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[MCQ’s]Applied Chemistry – I

Atomic and Molecular Structure

Applied Chemistry

1. Which of the following defines the Mass number of an atom?
a.number of protons + number of electrons
b.number of neutrons + number of electrons
c.number of protons + number of neutrons
d.number of electrons
Answer (c). number of protons + number of electrons

2. Who is credited with the discovery of electron?
a.JJ Thomson
b.James Chadwick
c.Ernest Rutherford
d.Niels Bohr
Answer (a). JJ Thomson

3. An atom has a mass number of 37 and atomic number 17. How many protons does it have?
a.20
b.17
c.54
d.21
Answer (b). 17

4. Which of the following mostly accounts for the mass of an atom?
a.neutrons
b.neutron and proton
c.electron and proton
d.electron and neutron
Answer (b).

5. Within an atom, the nucleus when compared to the extra nuclear part is
a.bigger in volume and heavier in mass
b.smaller in volume but heavier in mass
c.smaller in volume and lighter in mass
d.same size
Answer (b). smaller in volume but heavier in mass

6. What would be the atomic number of the element in whose atom the K and L shells are full?
a.10
b.12
c.14
d.16
Answer (a). 10

7. Which metal was used by Rutherford in his alpha-scattering experiment?
a.gold
b.platinum
c.silver
d.lead
Answer (a). gold

8. An element has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 7. Its valency is
a.2
b.7
c.3
d.1
Answer (d). 1

9. During a chemical reaction, atomic number
a.changes
b.remains same
c.changes and then is restored
d.changes alternately
Answer (b). remains same

10. Which isotope of hydrogen contains only one proton and no neutron in its nucleus?
a.protium
b.deuterium
c.tritium
d.None of the above
Answer (a). protium

11. Who of the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for his measurement of elementary electronic charge?
a.Rutherford
b.Robert Millikan
c.James Chadwick
d.JJ Thomson
Answer (b). Robert Millikan

12. How are the subshells in an atom labelled?
a.s, p, d, f, g
b.s, p, f, g, d
c.s, f, g, d, f
d.s, d, g, p, f
Answer (a). s, p, d, f, g

13. The isotopes of neutral atoms of an element differ in
a.Atomic number
b.Mass number
c.Number of electrons
d.Chemical properties
Answer (b). Mass number

14. The electronic configuration of an atom having atomic number 20 is
a.2, 8, 8, 2
b.2, 8, 10
c.2, 6, 8, 4
d.2, 4, 8, 6
Answer (a). 2, 8, 8, 2

15. Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the
a.proton
b.electrons
c.nucleus
d.neutrons
Answer (c). nucleus

16. An atom differs from its ion in
a.Nuclear charge
b.Mass number
c.Number of electrons
d.Number of neutrons
Answer (c). Number of electrons

17. The proton is heavier than an electron by
a.187 times
b.1837 times
c.3837 times
d.2827 times
Answer (b). 1837 times

18. Which of the following is true about a charged atom?
a.anion is negatively charged
b.cation is negatively charged
c.cation has gained an electrond.
anion has lost an electron
Answer (a).a.anion is negatively charged

19. Which of the following is not a fundamental particle?
a.Proton
b.Neut0ron
c.Alpha particle
d.Electron
Answer (c). Alpha particle

20. Which one among the following most correctly determines the atomic number of an element?
a. Number of protons
b. Number of protons and electrons
c. Number of ions
d. Number of nucleons
Answer (a). Number of protons

21. How many electrons does the outermost shell of neon have?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 2
d. 16
Answer (b). 8

23. Which of the following determines the chemical properties of an element?
a. Number of electrons
b. Number of neutrons
c. Number of protons
d. All of the above
Answer (a). Number of electrons

24. The number of protons in a negatively charged atom (anion) is
a. more than the atomic number of the element
b. less than the atomic number of the element
c. more than the number of electrons in the atom
d. less than the number of electrons in the atom
Answer (d). less than the number of electrons in the atom

25. Atoms which have same mass number but different atomic number are called
a. isotopes
b. isomers
c. isotones
d. isobars
Answer (d). isobars

26. The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by
a. John Dalton
b. Rutherford
c. J. J. Thomson
d. Niels Bohr
Answer (a). John Dalton

27. How many orbitals can have the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 ?
a) 3
b) 1
c) 4
d) 2
Answer: (b). 1

28. Electronic configuration of the outer shell of the element Gd with atomic number 64 is
a) 4f4 5d5 6s1
b) 4f3 5d5 6s2
c) 4f5 5d4 6s1
d) 4f7 5d1 6s2
Answer: (d). 4f7 5d1 6s2

29. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell can be
a) 4l + 2
b) 4l – 2
c) 2n2
d) 2l + 1
Answer: (a). 4l + 2

30. The orientation of atomic orbitals depends on their
a) spin quantum number
b) magnetic quantum number
c) azimuthal quantum number
d) principal quantum number
Answer: (b). magnetic quantum number

31. A gas X has Cp and Cratio as 1.4, at NTP 11.2 L of gas X will contain_______ number of atoms
a) 1.2 × 1023
b) 3.01 × 1023
c) 2.01 × 1023
d) 6.02 × 1023
Answer: (d)

32. Number of unpaired electrons in N2+
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0
Answer: (b). 1

33. The excitation energy of a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its third excited state is
a) 12.75 eV
b) 0.85 eV
c) 10.2 eV
d) 12.1 eV
Answer: (a). 12.75 eV

34. 3p orbital has _____ radial nodes
a) three
b) two
c) one
d) none
Answer: (c). one

35. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. Find its wavelength
a) 6.6 × 10-34 m
b) 6.6 × 10-32 m
c) 1.0 × 10-32 m
d) 1.0 × 10-35 m
Answer: (d). 1.0 × 10-35 m

36. Which among the following has the shortest C-C bond length?
a) Ethene
b) Ethane
c) Benzene
d) Ethyne
Answer: (d). Ethyne

37. The oxygen molecule is paramagnetic. It can be explained by
a) Resonance
b) Hybridisation
c) Valence bond theory
d) Molecular orbital theory
Answer: (d). Molecular orbital theory

38. Find the paramagnetic species
a) CN
b) NO+
c) CO
d) O2
Answer: (d). O2

39. Find the diamagnetic species
a) H2
b) H2
c) He2+
d) H2+
Answer: (a). H2

40. Which of the following pairs has the same bond order?
a) O2+, NO+
b) N2, O2
c) O22-, B2
d) NO, CO
Answer: (c). O22-, B2

41. Each P of P4O10 is attached to how many oxygen atoms?
a) 3
b) 2.5
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: (d). 4

42. When O2 changes to O2, the electron goes to which of the orbitals?
a) 𝜋 orbital
b) 𝜎 orbital
c) 𝜋* orbital
d) 𝜎* orbital
Answer: (c). 𝜋* orbital

43. O-O bond length is minimum in
a) O2
b) O2
c) O2+
d) O22-
Answer: (c). O2+

44. Which of the following is not paramagnetic?
a) CO
b) N2+
c) NO
d) O2
Answer: (a). CO

45. Find the molecule having the highest bond order
a) O2+
b) O2
c) O22-
d) O2
Answer: (a). O2+

46. C-O bond length is minimum in
a) CO2
b) CO32-
c) HCOO
d) CO
Answer: (d). CO

47. Molecules are held together in a crystal by
a) hydrogen bond
b) electrostatic attraction
c) Van der Waal’s attraction
d) dipole-dipole attraction
Answer: (c). Van der Waal’s attraction

48. Sp3d2 hybridization is present in [Co(NH3)63+], find its geometry
a) octahedral geometry
b) square planar geometry
c) tetragonal geometry
d) tetrahedral geometry
Answer: (a). octahedral geometry

49. Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment
a) CH4
b) NH3
c) CO2
d) NF3
Answer: (b). NH3

50. MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at 180°?
a) four
b) two
c) three
d) six
Answer: (c). three

51. Find the pair with sphybridisation of the central molecule
a) NH3 and NO2
b) BF3 and NH2
c) BF3 and NO2
d) NH2– and H2O
Answer: (c). BF3 and NO2

52. The formal charge and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively are
a) 0.6, -0.75
b) -0.75, 1.25
c) 1.0, -0.75
d) 1.25, -3
Answer: (b). -0.75, 1.25

53. Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?
a) SO3
b) SO2
c) H2S
d) CS2
Answer: (d). CS2

54. pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule
a) SO32-
b) CO32-
c) NO3
d) BO33-
Answer: (a). SO32-

55. Which one has a pyramidal shape?
a) SO3
b) PCl3
c) CO32-
d) NO3
Answer: (b). PCl3

Aromatic systems and their molecular structure

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of arenes?
a) Delocalisation of 𝞹-electrons
b) Resonance
c) Greater stability
d) Electrophilic additions
Answer: (d)

3. Which of the following statements is true for benzene?
a) Benzene easily undergoes addition due to unsaturation
b) 𝞹-electrons are delocalised in the benzene ring
c) Three isomeric forms are formed on monosubstitution of benzene
d) Two types of C-C bonds are present in benzene
Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is the correct representation to relate the two resonating Kekule structures of benzene?
a) →
b) ≡
c) ↔
d) ⇌
Answer: (c)

5. The bond length of C-C bonds in benzene is
a) 110 pm
b) 156 pm
c) 121 pm
d) 139 pm
Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of an aromatic compound?
a) Cyclic
b) Planar
c) (4n+2)𝞹 electrons
d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following is incorrect for benzene?
a) Planar Cring
b) Localised 𝞹 bonding
c) sp2 hybridised C atoms
d) It shows reactions characteristics of C=C double bonds
Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following is incorrect for electrophilic substitution?
a) -NO2 is deactivating and m-directing
b) -Cl is activating and o, p-directing
c) -OH is activating and o, p-directing
d) -CH3 is activating and o, p-directing
Answer: (b)

9. The number of delocalised 𝞹 electrons in the benzene ring are
a) 6
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: (a)

10. Which of the following is the reactive species in the nitration of benzene?
a) NO2+
b) NO2
c) NO3
d) HNO3

Answer: (a)

11. Identify the correct statement which is related to aromatic hydrocarbon?
a) It has only sigma bonds
b) It has only pi bonds
c) It has a sigma and two pi bonds
d) It has a sigma and delocalized pi bond
Answer: d
Explanation: An aromatic hydrocarbon always has a sigma as well as a delocalized pi bond found between the carbon atoms.

12. Select the incorrect option.
a) The aromatic hydrocarbon has a pleasant aroma (smell)
b) Some of the aromatic compounds are ring-shaped
c) Aromatic hydrocarbon can be either mono or polycyclic
d) Benzene is the simplest hydrocarbon
Answer: b
Explanation: All the aromatic hydrocarbon are ring shaped as all of them are sp2 hybridized with a geometry of trigonal planar.

13. Which among the following is not a property of aromatic hydrocarbon?
a) These compounds have very good aromaticity
b) These compounds have excellent stability
c) These compounds do not undergo nucleophilic substitutions but they undergo electrophilic substitutions
d) There exists a strong ratio between carbon and hydrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Aromatic hydrocarbons undergo both electrophilic and nucleophilic aromatic substitutions.

14. Arenes does not undergo ___________
a) Dehydrogenation
b) Coupling reaction
c) Halogenation
d) Cyclo additions
Answer: a
Explanation: Arenes undergo hydrogenation reaction and form saturated ring products.

15. Which among these is not a representative arene compound?
a) Durene
b) Picric chloride
c) Aspirin
d) Mesitylene
Answer: b
Explanation: Picric acid is a representative arene compound but not picric chloride.

16. Which among these is the simplest example for polycyclic arenes?
a) Benzacephenanthrylene
b) Naphthalene
c) Pyrene
d) Dibenz-anthracene
Answer: b
Explanation: Naphthalene has fused ring of aromaticity and has the simplest structure when compared with other polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons.

17. Arenes are polar.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Arenes are insoluble in water and hence they are non polar compounds.

18. Arenes are _________
a) volatile
b) Water soluble
c) Non-carcinogenic
d) Mostly gases
Answer: a
Explanation: Arenes have a very low boiling point and hence they are volatile in nature.

19. The main sources of these arenes are _________
a) Petroleum
b) Biogas and petroleum
c) Petroleum and coal tar
d) Natural gas
Answer: c
Explanation: As these petroleum and natural gas comprise of naturally occurring compounds such as carbon and hydrogen in abundance, these serve as the main source of arenes.

20. Benzene has a stronger Vander-Waal’s force than Methylbenzene.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: The benzene molecule is smaller than that of the methylbenzene and hence it does not have the Vander-Waal’s forces as equal to those of methylbenzene.

21. With respect to the electrophilic aromatic substitution of benzene which of the following is not true?





Answer: b

22. In the body many mono-substituted aromatic compounds are metabolised...




Answer: d

23. Which of the following statements is incorrect: aromatic compounds...




Answer: b

24. When considering electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions electron withdrawing substituents (e.g. nitro) are described as...




Answer: d

25. The Friedel-Crafts alkylation...




Answer: b

26. Salbutamol is an effective treatment for asthma; which of the following statements is not true:




Answer: c

27. When considering electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions the halides are described as...




Answer: b

28. When considering electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions electron donating subsituents (e.g. methoxy) are described as:




Answer: a



29. With respect to the electrophilic aromatic substitution of benzene which of the following is not true:




Answer: b


30. Which of the following drugs does not contain an aromatic species? You should use this opportunity to get some background on the well known drugs listed.




Answer: d

31. Which of the following is not associated with electrophilic aromatic substitution?



Intermolecular Forces and Critical Phenomena

1. Molecular iodine would be most soluble in:
a.vinegar (acetic acid and water)
b.carbon tetrachloride 
c.equally soluble in all four
d.water
e.vodka (ethanol and water)

Answer: b

2. One of the reasons that solid CuSO4 dissolves in water is:
a.instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (dispersion or London forces) between the Cu2+ and the SO42- ions
b.the hydrogen bonding between the water molecules
c.instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces (dispersion or London forces) between the water molecules
d.the ion-dipole forces between the ions and the water molecules
e.the electrostatic force of attraction between the Cu2+ and the SO42- ions

Answer: d

3. A solute is most likely to be highly soluble in a solvent if the solute is _____ and the solvent is ______. 
a.ionic or polar, non-polar
b.non-polar, polar 
c.non-polar, ionic
d.ionic or polar, polar

Answer: d

4. Which one of the following molecules would be most polar?
a.H2
b.HBr
c.HF
d.HCl
e.HI 
Answer: c

5. The interaction between highly electron-deficient hydrogen and highly electronegative atom is called
a.Covalent bond
b.ionic bond
c.dipole-dipole interaction
d.hydrogen bond
Answer D

6. When the partially positive end of one molecule is attracted weakly to partial negative end then force between them is
a.coulomb’s force
b.electrostatic force
c.dipole-dipole interaction
d.ionic bond
Answer C

7. When two identical atoms share electron pairs and exert force on each other then the bond form is
a.non-polar covalent bond
b.polar covalent bond
c.double covalent bond
d.coordinate covalent bond
Answer A

8. Synthetic resins are used in places where
a.air resistance is required
b.water resistance is required
c.friction is required
d.adhesion is required
Answer B

9. The strength of intermolecular forces from the ionic or covalent bond is
a.weaker
b.stronger
c.equal
d.none of above
Answer A

1o. London dispersion force is the only intermolecular force that works on _____.
a.noble gases and nonpolar molecules
b.polar molecules
c.noble gases
d.nonpolar molecules
Answer A

11. Which statement is incorrect?
a.boiling point is independent of the number of contact points
b.boiling point depends upon the number of electrons
c.boiling point depends upon the number of protons
d.boiling point is dependent on number of neutrons
Answer A

12. An increase in the number of electrons increases the
a.Van der Waal’s forces
b.enthalpy change of vaporization
c.boiling points of noble gases
d.melting point of Nobel gases
Answer B

13. In order to increase the Van der Waal’s forces,
a.contact points shall be minimized
b.contact points shall be made extinct
c.number of electrons shall be increased
d.number of protons shall be reduced
Answer C

14. In Van der Waal’s forces, forces of attraction are formed between
a. σ+ of dipole of one atom/molecule and σ− of dipole of next atom/molecule
b. π+ of dipole of one atom/molecule and π− of dipole of next atom/molecule
c. δ+ of dipole of one atom/molecule and δ− of dipole of next atom/molecule
d. none of above
Answer C

15. Noble gases can be liquefied at
a.low temperatures
b.high temperatures
c.low pressures
d.high bond energies
Answer A

16. The set of physical conditions at which the density and other properties of a liquid and vapour become identical, is called
a) Corresponding state
b) Critical state
c) Equation of state
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The set of physical conditions at which the density and other properties of a liquid and vapour become identical is known as Critical state.

17. Critical point occurs at
a) Highest temperature and pressure at which gas and liquid can coexist
b) Lowest temperature and pressure at which gas and liquid can coexist
c) Highest temperature and lowest pressure at which gas and liquid can coexist
d) Lowest temperature and highest pressure at which gas and liquid can coexist
Answer: a
Explanation: Critical point occurs at highest temperature and pressure.

18. Material in a state above its critical point is
a) Critical fluid
b) Supercritical fluid
c) Plasma fluid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Material in a state above its critical point is called Supercritical fluid.

19. “Any compound should have the same reduced volume at the same reduced pressure and reduced temperature.” Is known as
a) Law of corresponding states
b) Law of critical state
c) Law of reduced state
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Any compound should have the same reduced volume at the same reduced pressure and reduced temperature law of corresponding states.

20. Compressibility factor z is
a) z = PV/RT
b) z = Pv/RT
c) z = PM/RT
d) z = PV/nT
Where: P – Absolute Pressure of the gas
V – Total volume occupied by the gas
n – Number of moles of the gas
T – Absolute temperature
v – Specific molar volume
Answer: b
Explanation: z = Pv/RT.

21. For an ideal gas, the compressibility factor is
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0
Answer: b
Explanation: z = Pv/RT = 1, for an ideal gas.

22. A parameter that indicates the degree of nonsphericity of a molecule is called
a) Compressibility factor
b) Acentric factor
c) Holburn factor
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A parameter that indicates the degree of nonsphericity of a molecule is called Acentric factor.

23. The summation of each of the partial pressure of the component in a system equals to the total pressure. Is
a) Dalton`s law
b) Boyle`s law
c) Charles`s Law
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The summation of each of the partial pressure of the component in a system equals to the total pressure is Dalton`s law.

24. For the Van der Waals real gas equation
Statement I: The unit of constant a is atm.L2/mole2
Statement II: The unit of constant b is L
a) Both statements are false
b) Only one can be true at a time
c) Both statement are true
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the first statement, Specific molar volume is used and in second one, total volume. So for the given equation both statement can not be true at a time.

25. Corrected and normalized conditions of temperature, pressure and volume, normalized by their respective critical conditions is called
a) Reduced variables
b) Corresponding variables
c) Standard condition variables
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrected and normalized conditions of temperature, pressure and volume, normalized by their respective critical conditions is called Reduced variables.

26. What is the name of the phase transition that occurs when a solid is converted directly into a gas (without going through the liquid phase)?




Answer: d

27. Which if the following statements are true about the Eutectic point on a two component (compounds A and B) phase diagram?
a) Both compounds are solid
b) The melting point of the mixture is lower than the melting points of either of the individual compounds
c) One compound is in the liquid phase whilst the other is in the solid phase
d) It always occurs when the ratio of compound A to compound B is 50:50
Answer: b

28. On a phase diagram an isotherm indicates which of the following?
a) A region where the composition of the system is constant
b) A region where the pressure is constant
c) An area below which only the solid phase exists
d) A region where the temperature is constant
Answer: d

29. Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to a system that has reached the critical temperature?
a) The system must a closed system
b) The system can be described as a homogenous fluid
c) Substances can have more than one critical temperature.
d) A surface between the liquid and vapour phases is no longer present.
Answer: c

30. On a two component solid-liquid phase diagram, an isopleth indicates which of the following?
a) A region where the pressure is constant
b) An area below which only the solid phase exists
c) An area above which only the liquid phase exists
d) A region where the composition of the system is constant
Answer: d

31. On a two component solid-liquid phase diagram, a tie line indicates which of the following?
a) A region where the temperature is constant
b) A region where the composition is constant
c) An area below which only the solid phase exists
d) An area above which only the liquid phase exists
Answer: a

32. Which of the following statements about the rate of dissolution of a solid API into an aqueous biological environment is true?
a) Increasing the particle size, decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action
b) Increasing the particle size, increases the dissolution rate resulting in a quicker onset of action
c) Increasing the particle size, increases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action
d) Increasing the particle size, decreases the dissolution rate resulting in a slower onset of action
Answer: b

33. Which of the following statements is NOT true about cyclodextrins?
a) They are polysaccharides
b) They are useful for formulating hydrophobic APIs
c) They have a hydrophilic outer surface
d) They are useful for formulating hydrophilic APIs
Answer: d

34. Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to the triple point on a single component phase diagram?
a) The point at which the solid, liquid and gaseous phases for a substance co-exist
b) The triple point exists for a substance occurs at a specific temperature and pressure
c) The triple point exists at a single temperature and is independent of pressure
d) The system must be enclosed so that no vapour can escape
Answer: c

35. The upper critical solution temperature is defined as:
a) The maximum temperature at which two components will remain immiscible as two distinct liquids
b) The minimum temperature at which two components will remain immiscible as two distinct liquids
c) The maximum temperature at which two components remain miscible
d) The minimum temperature at which two components remain miscible
Answer: a

 

 

 

Phase Rule-Gibb’s Phase Rule

1.The polymers are classified into _________ types based on the nature of polymerization.
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The polymers are classified into two types based upon their nature of polymerization. They are homopolymers and co polymers.

2.A straight chain polymer comes under the _________ type of the polymers.
a) Homo polymers
b) Co-polymers
c) Regular chain copolymers
d) Irregular straight chain copolymers

Answer: A
Explanation: The straight chain polymers come under the homo polymers. The regular straight chain copolymers and irregular straight chain copolymer comes under the straight chain copolymers.

3.The different monomers are arranged alternatively in __________
a) Alternate straight chain polymers
b) Regular straight chain copolymers
c) Straight chain copolymer
d) Cross linked polymers

Answer: a
Explanation: The different monomers are arranged alternatively in alternate straight chain polymers. The regular straight chain polymers the monomeric units arranged regularly.

4.The polymers whose backbone is made of same type of atoms called ___________
a) Homo polymers
b) Heterochain polymers
c) Isotactic polymers
d) Atactic polymers

Answer: a
Explanation: The polymers whose back bone is made of some type of atoms is called as homopolymers. The heteropolymers backbone is constructed by the two or more than two different types of atoms.

5.Tacticity of the polymers is the arrangement of the ___________ on carbon backbone.
a) Hydrogen atoms
b) Nitrogen atoms
c) Functional groups
d) Carbons

Answer: c
Explanation: The tacticity is defined as the arrangement of the function groups on the carbon back bone of the polymer is called tacticity of the polymer.

6.Based on tacticity, the polymers are divided into __________ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: b
Explanation: Based on tacticity, the polymers are divided into three types. They are Isotactic polymers, Atactic polymers and syndiotactic polymer.

7.The functional group are arranged on the same side of the carbon back bone are said to be _________
a) Syndiotactic polymers
b) Atactic polymers
c) Isotactic polymers
d) Chain polymers

Answer: c
Explanation: The functional groups arranged on the same side of the carbon back bone then it is isotactic polymer, if they no regular arrangement then they are said to be Atactic polymers.

8.Which of the following is the example of the syndiotactic polymers?
a) Poly propylene
b) Poly vinyl chloride
c) Gutta percha
d) Poly lactic acids

Answer: c
Explanation: The gutta percha is the natural form of rubber. It is the example of the syndiotactic polymers in which the functional groups are alternately arranged. Poly propylene and poly lactic acids are the examples of the isotactic polymers.

9.Alternate straight chain polymers are ___________
a) Soft and flexible
b) Hard and flexible
c) Soft and brittle
d) Hard and brittle

Answer: a
Explanation: Alternate straight chain polymers are soft and brittle nature. All the straight chain polymers are soft and brittle.

10.Combination of the organic and inorganic polymers are called _________
a) Element organic polymers
b) Inorganic polymers
c) Fibres

d) Thermoplastics
Answer: a
Explanation: Combination of the organic and the inorganic polymers are called as the element of organic polymers. It comes under the synthetic polymers because it is produced by the synthesis.

11.Polymeric molecules __________ a definite crystalline structure.
a) Have
b) Do not have
c) Completely having
d) Partially having

Answer: b
Explanation: The polymeric molecules do not have a definite crystalline structure. The non-polymeric molecules have a definite crystalline structure.

12.The polymer is 100% crystalline.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: No polymer is 100% crystalline or 100% amorphous. A polymer is a mixture of 60% crystalline and 40% amorphous.

13.As the crystallinity increases The brittleness of the polymer _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Moderate
d) Remains constant

Answer: b
Explanation: As the crystallinity of the polymer increases then the brittleness of the polymer also increases. The strength and chemical resistance of the polymers also increases.

14.A polymeric molecules possess the molecular weight _____________
a) Different
b) Fixed
c) That cannot be determined
d) May be determined

Answer: a
Explanation: When polymerisation takes place, the growing polymeric chains are terminated at different sizes of molecules. So, as a result the polymeric molecules have different molecular weights.

15.Weight average molecular weight __________ on the weight of molecules in a polymer.
a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) Partially dependent
d) Neither dependent nor independent

Answer: a
Explanation: Weight average molecular weight depends on the weight of the molecules of each type and determined by making use of colloidal properties.

16.The polymer absorbs ________ and swells in size.
a) Ethyl alcohol
b) Ether
c) Water
d) Methanol

Answer: c
Explanation: The polymer absorbs the water and swells in size. Slowly polymer goes into the solution viscous polymer solution which is heterogeneous.

17.___________ is the property of recovering original shape after the removal of deforming strain.
a) Rigidity modulus
b) Youngs modulus
c) Elasticity
d) Bulk modulus

Answer: c
Explanation: The elasticity is the property of recovering the original shape after removal of deforming strain. Natural rubber possess high elasticity due to the coiled helix structure of poly isoprene.

18.The impact strength is measured as _________
a) Elasticity
b) Strength
c) Permeability
d) Toughness

Answer: d
Explanation: The impact strength is measured as the toughness. Below the glass transition temperature, the polymers break.

19.If the polymer is in the room temperature then it is ___________
a) Brittle
b) Viscofluid state
c) Amorphous
d) Rubbery
Answer: d
Explanation: The effect of heat on polymer is high. If the temperature changes, the state of the polymer will be changed.

20.The strength of the polymer increases with ________ in molecular weight.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
d) Slightly decrease

Answer: a
Explanation: The strength of the polymer increases with an increase in the molecular weight. The inter molecular attraction, presence of polar groups and chain length increases the strength.

21.Mechanism of polymerisation is classified into _______ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanism of polymerisation is classified into two types. They are chain or addition polymerisation and the step or condensation polymerisation.

22.The functionality of the monomer is a __________ bond.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) No

Answer: b
Explanation: The functionality of the monomer is a double bond and bi functional. The chain polymerisation yields the product which is exact multiple of the monomers.

23.The polymerisation takes place by __________ of the monomer molecules.
a) Addition
b) Self addition
c) Dissociation
d) Condensation

Answer: b
Explanation: The polymerisation takes place by self addition of the monomer molecules to each other through the chain polymerisation.

24.The bi products like water, methyl alcohol are produced in chain reaction.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The bi products like water, methyl alcohol are not produced in the chain reaction. The polymer has the same chemical composition as that of the monomer in chain polymerisation.

25.In how many steps the mechanism of the chain polymerisation is carried out?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanism of the chain polymerisation is carried out in three steps. They are 1. initiation, 2. propagation and 3. termination.

26.The chain polymerisation mechanism is _______
a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Rapid
d) Moderate

Answer: c
Explanation: The chain polymerisation mechanism is rapid. An initiator is required to start the polymerisation reaction.

27.The conversion of pi-bond to sigma bond during the chain propagation releases the energy of _________ K.cal/mole.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 40
d) 20

Answer: d
Explanation: The conversion of the pi-bond into the sigma bond during the chain polymerisation releases the energy of the 20K.cal/mole. An initiator is needed to start the polymerisation reaction.

28.Which of the following do not undergo the chain polymerisation?
a) Polyester
b) Vinyl
c) Allyl
d) Dienes

Answer: a
Explanation: The polyester do not undergo the chain polymerisation. The compounds having the double bond undergo chain polymerisation. Olefins, vinyl, allyl and dienes undergo chain polymerisation.

29.Addition polymerisation can be carried out in _________ mechanisms.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: b
Explanation: Addition polymerisation can be carried out in three mechanisms. They are: 1 – free radical mechanism, 2 – ionic mechanism, 3 – co-ordination mechanism.

30.Initiators are __________ compounds.
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Partially stable
d) Highly stable

Answer: b
Explanation: Initiators are the unstable compounds. For getting stability, they undergo homolytic fusion to produce free radicals.

31.For free radical chain polymerisation _________ are the good initiators.
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Benzoyl peroxide and hydrogen peroxide
d) Neither benzoyl peroxide nor hydrogen peroxide

Answer: c
Explanation: For free radical chain polymerisation, Benzoyl peroxide and hydrogen peroxide are the good initiators. They produce monomer free radicals.

32.The ionic mechanism again divided into _____________
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: The ionic mechanism is again dividing into two types. They are: cationic chain polymerisation and anionic chain polymerisation.

33.The __________ of the inhibitor result in the cationic chain polymerisation.
a) Homolytic fusion
b) Partially homolytic fusion
c) Heterolytic fusion
d) Partially heterolytic fusion

Answer: c
Explanation: The heterolytic fusion of the initiator results in the cationic chain polymerisation and homolytic fusion results in a free radical polymerisation.

34.The anion is produced by the __________ initiates the anionic chain polymerisation.
a) Homolytic fusion of initiator
b) Heterolytic fusion of initiator
c) Organo-alkali compounds
d) Inorganic compounds

Answer: c
Explanation: The anion is produced by the organo-alkali compounds like ethyl sodium, methyl potassium, butyl lithium etc initiates the anionic chain polymerisation.

35.The catalyst used in the co-ordination polymerisation is __________
a) Ziegler-natta catalyst
b) Vanadium pent-oxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Zeonar

Answer: a
Explanation: The catalyst used in the co-ordination polymerisation is Ziegler-natta catalyst. Combination of the metal halides and organometallic compounds are called as Ziegler-natta catalyst.

36.Polyethylene is a ___________
a) Bad conductor
b) Transparent
c) Polar material
d) High symmetrical structure

Answer: d
Explanation: Polyethylene is a rigid, waxy white, translucent, non-polar material, with high symmetrical structure. It is a good electrical insulator.

37.Which of the following is attacks the polyethylene?
a) Kerosene
b) Strong acids
c) Alkalis
d) Salt solutions

Answer: a
Explanation: The polyethylene is resistant to strong acids, alkalis and salt solutions. It is attacked by the oils and organic solvents. It is also resistant to oxygen, carbondioxide.

38.The low density polyethylene has a melting point.
a) 840C
b) 850C
c) 860C
d) 870C

Answer: d
Explanation: The low density polyethylene possess branched chain structure and its melting point is about the 870C.

39.Poly vinyl chloride is produced by the free radical chain polymerisation of the vinyl chloride in presence of the benzoyl peroxide.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Poly vinyl chloride is produced by the free radical chain polymerisation of the vinyl chloride in presence of the benzoyl peroxide. The hydrogen peroxide can also be used as the catalyst instead of the benzoyl peroxide.

40.Poly vinyl chloride is a __________
a) Blue coloured compound
b) Inflammable
c) Weak
d) Brittle

Answer: d
Explanation: Poly vinyl chloride is a colourless, non-inflammable and chemically inert in nature. It is strong and brittle.

41.Plasticized poly vinyl chloride can be used for _________
a) High frequency insulator parts
b) Bottle caps
c) Coated wires
d) Electrical insulation

Answer: d
Explanation: Plasticized poly vinyl chloride can be used for electrical insulation, injection moulding articles like tool handles, radio and telephone components.

42.Phenol is made to react with formaldehyde in the presence of acid or alkali produces ________
a) Phenol
b) Poly vinyl chloride
c) Plasticized poly vinyl chloride
d) Polyethylene

Answer: a
Explanation: Phenol is made to react with formaldehyde in the presence of acid or alkali produces di, tri and mono phenols depending on the phenol formaldehyde ratio.

43.Bakelite is __________
a) Good anion exchanging resin
b) Attacked by acids
c) Attacked by salts
d) Resistant to alkalis

Answer: a
Explanation: Bakelite is a good anionic exchanging resin. It is a good adhesive and it is resistant to acids and salts. It is attacked by the alkalis.

44.Glass laminates can be made by using ___________
a) Poly vinyl chloride
b) Bakelite
c) Polyethylene
d) Phenol

Answer: b
Explanation: Glass laminates can be made by using Bakelite. Bakelite is also called as the phenol-formaldehyde resin.

45.Bakelite is not _______
a) Hard
b) Strong
c) Rigid
d) Weak

Answer: d
Explanation: Bakelite is not weak. It is hard, strong and rigid. It is an excellent electrical insulator. It is scratch resistant and water resistant.

46.The bearings used in the propeller shafts are prepared using ________
a) Phenol-formaldehyde resin
b) TEFLON
c) Vinyl cyanide
d) Vinyl iso cyanide

Answer: a
Explanation: The bearings used in the propeller shafts are made by using Phenol-formaldehyde resin. It is also used in the paper industry and rolling mills.

47.TEFLON is obtained by the chain polymerisation of tetra fluoro ethylene in presence of __________ as initiator.
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Hydrogen nitrate
c) Hydrogen
d) Benzoyl peroxide

Answer: d
Explanation: TEFLON is obtained by the chain polymerisation of the tetra fluoro ethylene in presence of the benzoyl peroxide as an initiator.

48.TEFLON has _________
a) High melting point
b) Low melting point
c) Low density
d) Good conduction of electricity

Answer: a
Explanation: TEFLON has a high melting point, high density and it is the bad conductor of electricity as it is an insulator.

49.TEFLON is used to make chemical carry pipes due to its __________
a) extreme chemical resistance
b) Resistance towards alkalis
c) Resistance towards strong acids
d) Resistance towards salts

Answer: a
Explanation: TEFLON is used to make chemical carry pipes due to its extreme chemical resistance. It is used for making the gaskets, pump parts, tank linings and tubing.

Polymers

1. Nylon threads are made of
a.polyester polymer
b.polyamide polymer
c.polyethylene polymer
d.polyvinyl polymer
Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following is a branched polymer?
a.low density polymer
b.polyester
c.high density polymer
d.nylon
Answer: (a)

3. On the basis of mode of formation polymers can be classified:
a.as addition polymers only
b.as condensation polymers only
c.as copolymers
d.as addition and condensation polymers
Answer: (d)

4. The process of heat softening, moulding and cooling to rigidness can be repeated for which plastics?
a.thermoplastics
b.thermosetting plastics
c.both (a) and (b)
d.neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (a)

5. The polymer used in making hair synthetic hair wigs is mage up of
a.CH2=CHCl
b.CH2=CHCOOCH3
c.C6H5CH=CH2
d.CH2=CH-CH=CH2
Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following monomers form biodegradable polymers?
a.3-hydroxybutanoic acid + 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
b.Glycine + amino caproic acid
c.ethylene glycol + phthalic acid
d.both a and b
Answer: (d)

7. In addition polymer, monomer used is
a.unsaturated compounds
b.saturated compounds
c.bifunctional saturated compounds
d.trifunctional saturated compounds
Answer: (a)

8. Polymer formation from monomer starts by
a.the condensation reaction between monomers
b.the coordinate reaction between monomers
c.conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons
d.hydrolysis of monomers
Answer: (a)

9. Which of the following statements is not correct for fibres?
a.Fibres possess high tensile strength and high modulus
b.Fibres impart crystalline nature
c.Characteristic features of fibres are due to strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding
d.All are correct
Answer: (d)

10. Which of the following does not undergo additional polymerization?
a.vinyl chloride
b.butadiene
c.styrene
d.all of the above undergoes addition polymerizations
Answer: (d)

11. The polymers are classified into _________ types based on the nature of polymerization.
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The polymers are classified into two types based upon their nature of polymerization. They are homopolymers and co polymers.

12. A straight chain polymer comes under the _________ type of the polymers.
a) Homo polymers
b) Co-polymers
c) Regular chain copolymers
d) Irregular straight chain copolymers
Answer: a
Explanation: The straight chain polymers come under the homo polymers. The regular straight chain copolymers and irregular straight chain copolymer comes under the straight chain copolymers.

13. The different monomers are arranged alternatively in __________
a) Alternate straight chain polymers
b) Regular straight chain copolymers
c) Straight chain copolymer
d) Cross linked polymers
Answer: a
Explanation: The different monomers are arranged alternatively in alternate straight chain polymers. The regular straight chain polymers the monomeric units arranged regularly.

14. The polymers whose backbone is made of same type of atoms called ___________
a) Homo polymers
b) Heterochain polymers
c) Isotactic polymers
d) Atactic polymers
Answer: a
Explanation: The polymers whose back bone is made of some type of atoms is called as homopolymers. The heteropolymers backbone is constructed by the two or more than two different types of atoms.

15. Tacticity of the polymers is the arrangement of the ___________ on carbon backbone.
a) Hydrogen atoms
b) Nitrogen atoms
c) Functional groups
d) Carbons
Answer: c
Explanation: The tacticity is defined as the arrangement of the function groups on the carbon back bone of the polymer is called tacticity of the polymer.

16. Based on tacticity, the polymers are divided into __________ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on tacticity, the polymers are divided into three types. They are Isotactic polymers, Atactic polymers and syndiotactic polymer.

17. The functional group are arranged on the same side of the carbon back bone are said to be _________
a) Syndiotactic polymers
b) Atactic polymers
c) Isotactic polymers
d) Chain polymers
Answer: c
Explanation: The functional groups arranged on the same side of the carbon back bone then it is isotactic polymer, if they no regular arrangement then they are said to be Atactic polymers.

18. Which of the following is the example of the syndiotactic polymers?
a) Poly propylene
b) Poly vinyl chloride
c) Gutta percha
d) Poly lactic acids
Answer: c
Explanation: The gutta percha is the natural form of rubber. It is the example of the syndiotactic polymers in which the functional groups are alternately arranged. Poly propylene and poly lactic acids are the examples of the isotactic polymers.

19. Alternate straight chain polymers are ___________
a) Soft and flexible
b) Hard and flexible
c) Soft and brittle
d) Hard and brittle
Answer: a
Explanation: Alternate straight chain polymers are soft and brittle nature. All the straight chain polymers are soft and brittle.

20. Combination of the organic and inorganic polymers are called _________
a) Element organic polymers
b) Inorganic polymers
c) Fibres
d) Thermoplastics
Answer: a
Explanation: Combination of the organic and the inorganic polymers are called as the element of organic polymers. It comes under the synthetic polymers because it is produced by the synthesis.

21. Polymeric molecules __________ a definite crystalline structure.
a) Have
b) Do not have
c) Completely having
d) Partially having
Answer: b
Explanation: The polymeric molecules do not have a definite crystalline structure. The non-polymeric molecules have a definite crystalline structure.

22. The polymer is 100% crystalline.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: No polymer is 100% crystalline or 100% amorphous. A polymer is a mixture of 60% crystalline and 40% amorphous.

23. As the crystallinity increases The brittleness of the polymer _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Moderate
d) Remains constant
Answer: b
Explanation: As the crystallinity of the polymer increases then the brittleness of the polymer also increases. The strength and chemical resistance of the polymers also increases.

24. A polymeric molecules possess the molecular weight _____________
a) Different
b) Fixed
c) That cannot be determined
d) May be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: When polymerisation takes place, the growing polymeric chains are terminated at different sizes of molecules. So, as a result the polymeric molecules have different molecular weights.

25. Weight average molecular weight __________ on the weight of molecules in a polymer.
a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) Partially dependent
d) Neither dependent nor independent
Answer: a
Explanation: Weight average molecular weight depends on the weight of the molecules of each type and determined by making use of colloidal properties.

26. The polymer absorbs ________ and swells in size.
a) Ethyl alcohol
b) Ether
c) Water
d) Methanol
Answer: c
Explanation: The polymer absorbs the water and swells in size. Slowly polymer goes into the solution viscous polymer solution which is heterogeneous.

27. ___________ is the property of recovering original shape after the removal of deforming strain.
a) Rigidity modulus
b) Youngs modulus
c) Elasticity
d) Bulk modulus
Answer: c
Explanation: The elasticity is the property of recovering the original shape after removal of deforming strain. Natural rubber possess high elasticity due to the coiled helix structure of poly isoprene.

28. The impact strength is measured as _________
a) Elasticity
b) Strength
c) Permeability
d) Toughness
Answer: d
Explanation: The impact strength is measured as the toughness. Below the glass transition temperature, the polymers break.

29. If the polymer is in the room temperature then it is ___________
a) Brittle
b) Viscofluid state
c) Amorphous
d) Rubbery
Answer: d
Explanation: The effect of heat on polymer is high. If the temperature changes, the state of the polymer will be changed.

30. The strength of the polymer increases with ________ in molecular weight.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
d) Slightly decrease
Answer: a
Explanation: The strength of the polymer increases with an increase in the molecular weight. The inter molecular attraction, presence of polar groups and chain length increases the strength.

31. Mechanism of polymerisation is classified into _______ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanism of polymerisation is classified into two types. They are chain or addition polymerisation and the step or condensation polymerisation.

32. The functionality of the monomer is a __________ bond.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) No
Answer: b
Explanation: The functionality of the monomer is a double bond and bi functional. The chain polymerisation yields the product which is exact multiple of the monomers.

33. The polymerisation takes place by __________ of the monomer molecules.
a) Addition
b) Self addition
c) Dissociation
d) Condensation
Answer: b
Explanation: The polymerisation takes place by self addition of the monomer molecules to each other through the chain polymerisation.

34. The bi products like water, methyl alcohol are produced in chain reaction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The bi products like water, methyl alcohol are not produced in the chain reaction. The polymer has the same chemical composition as that of the monomer in chain polymerisation.

35. In how many steps the mechanism of the chain polymerisation is carried out?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanism of the chain polymerisation is carried out in three steps. They are 1. initiation, 2. propagation and 3. termination.

36. The chain polymerisation mechanism is _______
a) Slow
b) Very slow
c) Rapid
d) Moderate
Answer: c
Explanation: The chain polymerisation mechanism is rapid. An initiator is required to start the polymerisation reaction.

37. The conversion of pi-bond to sigma bond during the chain propagation releases the energy of _________ K.cal/mole.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 40
d) 20
Answer: d
Explanation: The conversion of the pi-bond into the sigma bond during the chain polymerisation releases the energy of the 20K.cal/mole. An initiator is needed to start the polymerisation reaction.

38. Which of the following do not undergo the chain polymerisation?
a) Polyester
b) Vinyl
c) Allyl
d) Dienes
Answer: a
Explanation: The polyester do not undergo the chain polymerisation. The compounds having the double bond undergo chain polymerisation. Olefins, vinyl, allyl and dienes undergo chain polymerisation.

39. Addition polymerisation can be carried out in _________ mechanisms.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: Addition polymerisation can be carried out in three mechanisms. They are: 1 – free radical mechanism, 2 – ionic mechanism, 3 – co-ordination mechanism.

40. Initiators are __________ compounds.
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Partially stable
d) Highly stable
Answer: b
Explanation: Initiators are the unstable compounds. For getting stability, they undergo homolytic fusion to produce free radicals.

41. For free radical chain polymerisation _________ are the good initiators.
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Benzoyl peroxide and hydrogen peroxide
d) Neither benzoyl peroxide nor hydrogen peroxide
Answer: c
Explanation: For free radical chain polymerisation, Benzoyl peroxide and hydrogen peroxide are the good initiators. They produce monomer free radicals.

42. The ionic mechanism again divided into _____________
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: The ionic mechanism is again dividing into two types. They are: cationic chain polymerisation and anionic chain polymerisation.

43. The __________ of the inhibitor result in the cationic chain polymerisation.
a) Homolytic fusion
b) Partially homolytic fusion
c) Heterolytic fusion
d) Partially heterolytic fusion
Answer: c
Explanation: The heterolytic fusion of the initiator results in the cationic chain polymerisation and homolytic fusion results in a free radical polymerisation.

44. The anion is produced by the __________ initiates the anionic chain polymerisation.
a) Homolytic fusion of initiator
b) Heterolytic fusion of initiator
c) Organo-alkali compounds
d) Inorganic compounds
Answer: c
Explanation: The anion is produced by the organo-alkali compounds like ethyl sodium, methyl potassium, butyl lithium etc initiates the anionic chain polymerisation.

45. The catalyst used in the co-ordination polymerisation is __________
a) Ziegler-natta catalyst
b) Vanadium pent-oxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Zeonar
Answer: a
Explanation: The catalyst used in the co-ordination polymerisation is Ziegler-natta catalyst. Combination of the metal halides and organometallic compounds are called as Ziegler-natta catalyst.

47. Polyethylene is a ___________
a) Bad conductor
b) Transparent
c) Polar material
d) High symmetrical structure
Answer: d
Explanation: Polyethylene is a rigid, waxy white, translucent, non-polar material, with high symmetrical structure. It is a good electrical insulator.

48. Which of the following is attacks the polyethylene?
a) Kerosene
b) Strong acids
c) Alkalis
d) Salt solutions
Answer: a
Explanation: The polyethylene is resistant to strong acids, alkalis and salt solutions. It is attacked by the oils and organic solvents. It is also resistant to oxygen, carbondioxide.

49. The low density polyethylene has a melting point.
a) 840C
b) 850C
c) 860C
d) 870C
Answer: d
Explanation: The low density polyethylene possess branched chain structure and its melting point is about the 870C.

50. Poly vinyl chloride is produced by the free radical chain polymerisation of the vinyl chloride in presence of the benzoyl peroxide.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Poly vinyl chloride is produced by the free radical chain polymerisation of the vinyl chloride in presence of the benzoyl peroxide. The hydrogen peroxide can also be used as the catalyst instead of the benzoyl peroxide.

51. Poly vinyl chloride is a __________
a) Blue coloured compound
b) Inflammable
c) Weak
d) Brittle
Answer: d
Explanation: Poly vinyl chloride is a colourless, non-inflammable and chemically inert in nature. It is strong and brittle.

52. Plasticized poly vinyl chloride can be used for _________
a) High frequency insulator parts
b) Bottle caps
c) Coated wires
d) Electrical insulation
Answer: d
Explanation: Plasticized poly vinyl chloride can be used for electrical insulation, injection moulding articles like tool handles, radio and telephone components.

53. Phenol is made to react with formaldehyde in the presence of acid or alkali produces ________
a) Phenol
b) Poly vinyl chloride
c) Plasticized poly vinyl chloride
d) Polyethylene
Answer: a
Explanation: Phenol is made to react with formaldehyde in the presence of acid or alkali produces di, tri and mono phenols depending on the phenol formaldehyde ratio.

54. Bakelite is __________
a) Good anion exchanging resin
b) Attacked by acids
c) Attacked by salts
d) Resistant to alkalis
Answer: a
Explanation: Bakelite is a good anionic exchanging resin. It is a good adhesive and it is resistant to acids and salts. It is attacked by the alkalis.

55. Glass laminates can be made by using ___________
a) Poly vinyl chloride
b) Bakelite
c) Polyethylene
d) Phenol
Answer: b
Explanation: Glass laminates can be made by using Bakelite. Bakelite is also called as the phenol-formaldehyde resin.

56. Bakelite is not _______
a) Hard
b) Strong
c) Rigid
d) Weak
Answer: d
Explanation: Bakelite is not weak. It is hard, strong and rigid. It is an excellent electrical insulator. It is scratch resistant and water resistant.

57. The bearings used in the propeller shafts are prepared using ________
a) Phenol-formaldehyde resin
b) TEFLON
c) Vinyl cyanide
d) Vinyl iso cyanide
Answer: a
Explanation: The bearings used in the propeller shafts are made by using Phenol-formaldehyde resin. It is also used in the paper industry and rolling mills.

58. TEFLON is obtained by the chain polymerisation of tetra fluoro ethylene in presence of __________ as initiator.
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Hydrogen nitrate
c) Hydrogen
d) Benzoyl peroxide
Answer: d
Explanation: TEFLON is obtained by the chain polymerisation of the tetra fluoro ethylene in presence of the benzoyl peroxide as an initiator.

59. TEFLON has _________
a) High melting point
b) Low melting point
c) Low density
d) Good conduction of electricity
Answer: a
Explanation: TEFLON has a high melting point, high density and it is the bad conductor of electricity as it is an insulator.

60. TEFLON is used to make chemical carry pipes due to its __________
a) extreme chemical resistance
b) Resistance towards alkalis
c) Resistance towards strong acids
d) Resistance towards salts
Answer: a
Explanation: TEFLON is used to make chemical carry pipes due to its extreme chemical resistance. It is used for making the gaskets, pump parts, tank linings and tubing.

Water

1. The quantity of water available for the actual use is _________
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 0.5%
d) 1%

Answer: c
Explanation: The quantity of water available on the earth’s crust is about 80% and the quantity of water available for actual use that is in the form of rivers, tanks is about 0.5%.

2. __________ of water is struck in underground which is not accessibly.
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 4%

Answer: a
Explanation: 96% of the water is struck in the forms of oceans which is too saline to use it directly and 2% is polar ice caps and glaciers and 1% is under ground water.

3. ___________ is the purest form of the water obtained by natural distillation.
a) Under ground water
b) Sea water
c) River water
d) Rain water

Answer: d
Explanation: Rain water is the purest form of the water obtained by natural distillation. Some part of the rain water penetrates into the ground and there it will be stored.

4. Lake water contains more __________ due to the biological oxidation of the organic matter.
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon monoxide

Answer: b
Explanation: Lake Water contains more amount of carbon dioxide due to the biological oxidation of the organic matter present at the bottom of the lake.

5. The colour and odour of the natural water is due to the presence of the ___________
a) Dissolved organic matter
b) Mud
c) Leaves
d) Other dust particles

Answer: a
Explanation: The colour and odour of the natural water is due to the presence of the dissolved organic matter. Dissolved gases like nitrogen, oxygen and carbondioxide are present in lake water.

6. Deep well water possess the rotten egg smell due to the dissolved ________
a) Sulphide
b) Sulphurous acid
c) Hydrogen sulphide
d) Hydrogen peroxide

Answer: c
Explanation: Deep well water possesses the rotten egg smell due to the dissolved hydrogen sulphide. The underground water is colourless and odourless.

7. Well water in wells located in the areas of oil and gases will contain __________
a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Carbon
d) Nitrogen

Answer: b
Explanation: Well water in wells located in the areas of oil and gases will contain methane gas. When rain water falls on earth and flows on the earth and becomes impure.

8. Surface water appears turbid due to the presence of the __________ which remains suspended in the water.
a) Impurities
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Water plants

Answer: a
Explanation: Surface water appears turbid due to the presence of the impurities which remains suspended in the water. The dissolved gases make the water into bad odour.

9. Which of the following is the suspended impurity?
a) Iron hydroxide
b) Dust
c) Mud
d) Nitrogen

Answer: a
Explanation: The nitrogen is the dissolved impurity. The suspended impurities are iron hydroxide, silica are the inorganic impurities which decomposes the organic impurities.

10. The suspended impurities is negligible due to the filtering action of __________
a) Water plants
b) Dissolved impurities
c) Soil
d) Dissolved gases

Answer: c
Explanation: The suspended impurities are negligible due to the filtering action of the soil. The soil filters all the suspended impurities like silica and iron hydroxide.

11. How many types of absorbed impurities in water are there mainly?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Answer: c
Explanation: There are four types of impurities in water are there. They are suspended impurities, dissolved gases, dissolved mineral salts and bacterial impurities.

12. In dissolved mineral salts ___________ gets converted into the bicarbonates by the action of carbondioxide by water.
a) Carbonate of calcium
b) Carbonates of magnesium
c) Carbonates of calcium and magnesium
d) Neither carbonates of calcium nor magnesium

Answer: c
Explanation: In dissolved mineral salts, the carbonates of calcium and magnesium get converted into the bicarbonates by the action of the carbondioxide by water.

13. ___________ water contains more soluble salts than the surface water.
a) Sea water
b) Rain water
c) Underground water
d) Tank water

Answer: c
Explanation: Sea water and tank water comes under the surface water and the under ground water contains more soluble salts than the surface water.

14. Amino acids comes under _________ impurity.
a) Dissolved impurity
b) Colloidal impurity
c) Dissolved gases
d) Bacterial impurities

Answer: b
Explanation: Amino acids comes under the colloidal impurities. All the gases like nitrogen, oxygen and carbondioxide comes under the dissolved gases.

15. Chemical composition of the lake water is _________
a) Constant
b) Not constant
c) Some times constant
d) Cannot be determined

Answer: a
Explanation: Chemical composition of lakes is constant. It has a high quantity of organic matter and lesser quantity dissolved minerals.

16. Soaps can be defined as the soap consuming capacity of the water sample.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Soaps are defined as the soap consuming capacity of the water. Soaps are sodium salts of fatty acids like oleic acid and stearic acid.

17. The soft water contains the hardness of about ____________
a) 0-45ppm
b) 0-55ppm
c) 0-65ppm
d) 0-75ppm

Answer: d
Explanation: The soft water contains the hardness of about 0-75ppm. The hardness of water is mainly due to the salts of calcium and magnesium.

18. The hardness of moderately hard water is about _____________
a) 75-150ppm
b) 75-120ppm
c) 75-130ppm
d) 75-100ppm

Answer: a
Explanation: The hardness of CaCO3 of moderately hard water is about 75-150ppm. The hardness of the water can be calculated from amount of calcium and magnesium ions present in water along with bicarbonates, sulphates.

19. The very hard water has the hardness of CaCO3 is given by ___________
a) 100-200ppm
b) 100-300ppm
c) 200-300ppm
d) Above 300ppm

Answer: c
Explanation: The very hard water has the hardness of CaCO3 is given about above 300ppm. The hard water is having the hardness of CaCO3 is given by 150-300ppm.

20. The PH value of the drinking water is about _________
a) 6.5-8.5
b) 5.5-6.5
c) 4.5-5.5
d) 3.5-4.5

Answer: a
Explanation: The PH value of the drinking water is about 6.5 to 8.5. The odour of the drinking water is unobjectionable but the drinking water is generally having no odour.

21. The drinking water can have the magnesium limit about ____________
a) 10-150ppm
b) 20-150ppm
c) 30-150ppm
d) 40-150ppm

Answer: c
Explanation: The drinking water can have the magnesium limit about 30-150ppm. The calcium in the drinking water can be about 75-200ppm.

22. The chloride in drinking water range can be about ___________
a) 200-600ppm
b) 300-600ppm
c) 400-600ppm
d) 500-600ppm

Answer: a
Explanation: The chloride in drinking water range can be about 200-600ppm. The nitrate is about the range of 45ppm in drinking water.

23. The iron is about the range in drinking water is _________
a) 1-1.5ppm
b) 0.01-0.1ppm
c) 1-1.1ppm
d) 0.1-1ppm

Answer: d
Explanation: The iron is about the range in drinking water is 0.1-1.0ppm. The magnesium is about the range of 30-150ppm in drinking water.

24. The phosphate is about the range of __________ in drinking water.
a) 5-10ppm
b) 10-15ppm
c) 15-20ppm
d) 20-25ppm

Answer: b
Explanation: The phosphate is about the range of 10-15ppm in drinking water. The sulphate in drinking water is about 200-400ppm.

25. The organic matter in drinking water must be about _________
a) 0.2-1.0ppm
b) 1.0-2.0ppm
c) 2.0-3.0ppm
d) 3.0-4.0ppm

Answer: a
Explanation: The organic matter in drinking water must be about 0.2-1.0ppm. The phosphate is also low that is about 10-15ppm.

26. In _____________ when the eater is heated then the soluble salts turns into insoluble ones and removed by filtration.
a) Temporary hardness
b) Permanent hardness
c) Non-carbonate
d) Non-alkaline

Answer: a
Explanation: The hardness in the temporary hard water can be removed by heating and filtrating the insoluble salts.

27. Which of the following does not cause the permanent hardness in water?
a) Nitrates
b) Sulphates
c) Chlorides
d) Bicarbonates

Answer: d
Explanation: The bicarbonates of the calcium and magnesium cause the temporary hardness and the sulphides, nitrates and the chlorides cause permanent hardness.

28. The total hardness can be given by _________
a) Temporary + permanent hardness
b) Temporary – permanent hardness
c) Temporary * permanent hardness
d) Temporary/permanent hardness

Answer: a
Explanation: The sum of the temporary and permanent hardness of the water gives the total hardness of the water.

29. Which of the following process does not remove the permanent hardness of water?
a) Lime-soda
b) Ion exchange process
c) Zeolite process
d) Heating

Answer: c
Explanation: Heating of the water removes the temporary hardness and the permanent hardness is removed by the zeolite process, lime soda process and the ion exchange method.

30. All carbonate and bicarbonates are _________
a) Alkaline
b) Acidic
c) Highly acidic
d) Neutral

Answer: a
Explanation: All the carbonates and bicarbonates are alkaline in nature. So, the hardness due to them is called carbonate hardness or alkaline hardness.

31. The cost of the lime soda process is _________
a) Less
b) High
c) Very high
d) Moderate

Answer: a
Explanation: The cost of the lime soda process is less and the operational cost of the lime soda process is high.

32. ___________ can be used for the turbid water.
a) Soap titration process
b) Zeolite process
c) Ion exchange process
d) Lime soda process

Answer: d
Explanation: Lime soda process can be used for the turbid water. The lime soda process removes the hardness of the water steps wise by treating with different chemicals.

33. Hardness of the water in the lime soda process is reduced to __________
a) 10-15ppm
b) 15-30ppm
c) 30-35ppm
d) 35-40ppm

Answer: b
Explanation: Hardness of the water in the lime soda process is reduced to 15-30ppm. The lime soda process involves the conversion of the soluble complexes into the insoluble precipitates.

34. Total dissolved solids in the lime soda process is _________
a) Reduced
b) Not reduced
c) Remains same
d) Slightly reduced

Answer: a
Explanation: Total dissolved solids in the lime soda process is reduced. It really works well for eliminating every complex element that cause the hardness of the water.

35. For avoiding the reduction of the residual hardness, incomplete precipitation and slow reaction, The reaction is carried out at __________ temperature.
a) 30-40oC
b) 40-50oC
c) 50-60oC
d) 60-70oC

Answer: c
Explanation: For avoiding the reduction of the residual hardness, incomplete precipitation and slow reaction, The reaction is carried out at 50-60oC temperature.

36. Lime soda process removes _________ from the water.
a) Minerals
b) Mineral acids
c) Mineral alkaline
d) Mineral complexes

Answer: b
Explanation: Lime soda process removes the mineral acids from the water. The cold soda lime, hot soda lime and continuous soda lime process are other processes to remove the hardness.

37. Batch process is only used for removing the hardness of the water on _________
a) Small scale
b) Large scale
c) Industrial purposes
d) Irrigation purposes

Answer: a
Explanation: Batch process is only used for removing the hardness of the small scale. The Continuous soda lime process is used for the industrial purposes.

38. The amount of coagulate if added in the hot lime soda process is __________
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Very low

Answer: d
Explanation: The amount of coagulate if added in the hot lime soda process is very low. The chemical reaction takes place faster and precipitation takes place faster.

39. The final hardness of the water after treating by the hot lime soda process is about __________
a) 10-15ppm
b) 15-20ppm
c) 20-25ppm
d) 25-30ppm

Answer: c
Explanation: The final hardness of the water after treating by the hot lime soda process is about the 20-25ppm. In very less time the water is treated in this method.

40. Due to heating at high temperature in the hot lime soda process reduces the __________
a) Time for treating
b) Energy
c) Corrosion of boiler
d) Cost

Answer: c
Explanation: Due to heating at high temperature in the hot lime soda process reduces the corrosion of boilers. The heating is done to remove the dissolved gases in the water.

41. Lime soda process does not involve steps.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Lime soda process involves steps like filtration, settling of precipitates, coagulation and removal of sludge.

42. In hot lime soda process, the bacteria in water is reduced to the minimum due to the _________
a) High temperature
b) Faster reactions
c) Slow reactions
d) Low temperature

Answer: a
Explanation: In hot lime soda process the bacteria count in water is reduced to the minimum due to the high temperatures that are applied to the water during the process.

43. In batch process, when the tank gets filled then it indicates that ____________
a) To stir more
b) Softening is completed
c) To add the catalyst
d) To add the lime

Answer: b
Explanation: In batch process, when the tank gets filled then it indicates that the softening of the water is completed. Two tanks are used for construction in the batch process.

44. Reagent used in the lime soda process is _______
a) Regenerated
b) Not regenerated
c) Regenerated depending on the hardness
d) Regenerated some times

Answer: b
Explanation: Reagent used in the lime soda process is can not be regenerated. The high temperatures are applied in this process.

45. In lime soda process, the change in the hardness of the water needs ________
a) Change in dose of lime
b) Change in dose of soda
c) Change in dose of lime and soda
d) Change in dose either lime or soda

Answer: c
Explanation: In lime soda process, the change in the hardness of the water needs the change in the dose of the lime and soda.

46. Ion exchange process is also called as ___________
a) Permutit’s process
b) Demineralization
c) Zeolite process
d) Lime soda process

Answer: b
Explanation: Ion exchange process is also called as the demineralization. The zeolite process is otherwise called as the ion exchange process.

47. The operational cost of the ion exchange process is __________
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Very low

Answer: b
Explanation: The capital cost of the ion exchange process is very high. The operational cost of the ion exchange process is about low.

48. The hardness in the ion exchange process is reduced to ___________
a) 0-1ppm
b) 0-2ppm
c) 0-3ppm
d) 0-4ppm

Answer: b
Explanation: The hardness of the ion exchange process is reduced to 0 to 2ppm. It is a very effective method to reduce the hardness of the water.

49. The total __________ are removed completely in the ion exchange process.
a) Dissolved gases
b) Dissolved solids
c) Dissolved solvents
d) Dissolved other impurities

Answer: b
Explanation: The total dissolved solids are removed completely in the ion exchange process. In lime soda process, the total dissolved solids are reduced only.

50. In ion exchange process, the iron and manganese ions are removed from the water.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In ion exchange process, not only iron and manganese ions are removed from the water but also all the cations are removed.

51. Water softened during __________ method will be ideal in boilers.
a) Zeolite method
b) Lime soda method
c) Demineralisation method
d) Permutit’s process

Answer: b
Explanation: Water softened during the demineralisation method is completely free from all the impurities and flaws. So, the water after the softening by this method will be ideal for boilers.

52. Ion exchange process is the clean process because it has ___________
a) Sludge formation
b) No sludge formation
c) Little sludge is formed
d) Other precipitates are formed

Answer: b
Explanation: In ion exchange process, there is no formation of sludge. So, it is called as the clean process.

53. The regeneration of acids and alkalis in ion exchange process is __________
a) Cheaper
b) Costlier
c) Time taking
d) Hard process

Answer: b
Explanation: The one of the disadvantages of the ion exchange process is the regeneration of the acids and alkalis in ion exchange process is costlier.

54. In ion exchange process, the cation exchange resin is generated by passing ____________
a) Acids
b) Dilute acids
c) Alkalis
d) Dilute alkalis

Answer: b
Explanation: In ion exchange process, the cation exchange resin is generated by passing the dilute acids. The anion exchange resin is generated by passing alkali.

55. In the case of the zeolites, ion exchange process do not function properly because of the __________
a) Turbidity
b) Suspended matter
c) Turbidity and suspended matter
d) Neither turbidity nor suspended matter

Answer: c
Explanation: In case of zeolites, ion exchange process do not function properly because of the turbidity and suspended matter as they send to cover the surface of the resin.

57. The initial equipment in the ion exchange process is ___________
a) More
b) Less
c) Very less
d) Very high

Answer: a
Explanation: The initial equipment in the ion exchange process is more. Continuous supply of softened water can be made available by providing storage facilities.

58. The residual hardness after the treatment of water is about __________
a) 1 ppm
b) Less than 1ppm
c) 2 ppm
d) Less than 2pmm

Answer: d
Explanation: The residual hardness after the treatment of the water is about less than 2ppm. So, they are suitable for the high pressure boilers.

59. The continuous supply of soft water can be provided by having ____________
a) Storage facilities
b) Required amount of ppm
c) High pressure boilers
d) 1ppm

Answer: a
Explanation: The continuous supply of soft water can be provided by having storage facilities and also two columns of each resin.

60. The cost of the resins used in the ion exchange process is _________
a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) Depends on water

Answer: a
Explanation: The cost of the resins used in the ion exchange process is high and the regeneration of the resins in also a costly process.

61. The mineral free water is not used in __________
a) Pharmaceuticals
b) Cosmetics
c) Explosives
d) Drinking

Answer: d
Explanation: In drinking water some minerals must be present. In pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, explosives and in other manufacturing processes, the mineral free water is used.

62. In biological oxidation process, depending on the organic load, the oxidation takes place ___________
a) 1-4Hours
b) 4-8Hours
c) 8-16Hours
d) 16-20Hours

Answer: b
Explanation: In biological oxidation process, depending on the organic load, the oxidation process takes place up to 4 to 8 hours. Organic impurities are reduced by the biological oxidation process by micro organisms.

63. All impurities are oxidised into the _________ and ___________ in the biological oxidation process.
a) Oxygen and water
b) Carbondioxide and water
c) Nitrogen and water
d) Chlorine an water

Answer: b
Explanation: All impurities are oxidised into the carbondioxide and water in the biological oxidation process. The sludge formed in this process will be settled down quickly and gives clear supernatant.

64. The water after removing of sludge in the biological oxidation process is treated with ____________
a) Chlorine
b) Bromine
c) Fluorine
d) Iodine

Answer: a
Explanation: The water after removing of sludge in the biological oxidation process is treated with the chlorine or bleaching powder to make it more safe and let it into surface water.

65. Trickling filter method is ___________ than the activated sludge process.
a) Fast
b) Slow
c) Very fast
d) Moderate

Answer: b
Explanation: Trickling filter method is slow process than that of the activated sludge process. This process is convenient and cheaper process than the activated sludge process.

66. The depth of the rectangular circular tanks in the trickling filters method is having the depth of ____________
a) 4m
b) 3m
c) 2m
d) 1m

Answer: c
Explanation: The depth of the rectangular circular tanks in the trickling filters method is having the depth of the 2 metres packed with broken stone pieces or coal etc.

67. Periodic cleaning is used to _________
a) Increase efficiency
b) Decrease efficiency
c) Increase pressure
d) Decrease dissolved oxygen

Answer: a
Explanation: Periodic cleaning is necessary to remove excess sludge in the water. So, it is useful to increase the efficiency of the process.

68. In the trickling filter process, the _________ build up and they block the passage.
a) Sludge formed
b) Dissolved impurities
c) Dissolved solids
d) Micro organisms

Answer: d
Explanation: The micro organism built up and they block the passage and then the rate of flow drops considerably.

69. Dried sludge can be used as _________
a) Fertilizer
b) Pesticide
c) Reagent
d) Medicine

Answer: a
Explanation: Dried sludge can be used as the fertilizer. It is one of the main advantages. The sludge is de watered by the filtration in sand beds.

70. The unpleasant odour of the water is due to presence of the __________
a) Nitrogen
b) Bismuth
c) Phenols
d) Dissolved oxygen

Answer: c
Explanation: The unpleasant odour of the water is due to the presence of the phenols, hydrogen sulphides, chlorine and organic sulphur compounds.

71. __________ imparts peculiar odour to the water.
a) Decaying organic matter
b) Detergents
c) Phenols
d) Dissolved oxygen

Answer: b
Explanation: The bad odour of water is due to the phenols, decaying organic matter and phenols. The peculiar odour is due to the detergents and pesticides.

72. Reacting the water with _________ removes the odour due to the phenols.
a) KMnO4
b) MnO4
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium

Answer: a
Explanation: The chlorination of water and reacting the water with the potassium permanganate removes the odour of water due to phenols.

73. The treatment of water with _________ improves the taste of water.
a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) KMnO4
d) Ozone

Answer: d
Explanation: The treatment of water with the ozone improves the taste of the water and the bed of activated carbon removes the colour.

74. How many methods of removing the radio active impurities are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of methods. They are: By absorbing the radio active elements by using suitable absorbent. Allowing of such periods at which it separates from water.

75. ___________ poisoning water in Japan is from fishes.
a) Bismuth
b) Arsenic
c) Antimony
d) Palladium

Answer: b
Explanation: The arsenic poisoning water in Japan is from fishes where the industrial effluent was going into the sea containing arsenic.

76. Fishes can store more quantity of ___________ in their bodies.
a) Mercury
b) Bismuth
c) Palladium
d) Chlorine

77. Waste water released from _________ are not the sources of bacteria.
a) Sanitaria
b) Municipalities
c) Tanning
d) Industries

Answer: d
Explanation: Waste water released from the sanitarias, municipalities, tanning and slaughtering plants are the sources of the bacteria.

78. Bacteria and micro organisms present in the water will cause _________ in human and animals.
a) Indigestion
b) Intestinal tract
c) Brain tumour
d) Cancer

Answer: b
Explanation: Bacteria and micro organisms present in the water will cause intestinal tract. The infected individual has the intestinal discharge containing the billions of pathogens.

79. Infectious hepatitis is caused by ___________
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Protozoa
d) Helminth

Answer: b
Explanation: The infectious hepatitis is caused by viruses. The viruses in water also cause the poliomyelitis disease.

80. Amoebic dysentery is caused by ___________
a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Helminth
d) Protozoa

Answer: d
Explanation: Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoa present in the drinking water. In this disease, the water content from the body is lost and the person will become weak.

81. Bacteria in water causes ________
a) Malaria
b) Typhoid
c) Dengue
d) Chicken guinea

Answer: b
Explanation: Bacteria in water causes the typhoid. This includes a high fever for the person. Bacteria in water also cause the cholera.

82. Helminth in the water causes __________
a) Hook worm
b) Amoebic dysentery
c) Cholera
d) Typhoid

Answer: a
Explanation: Helminth in the water causes the hook worm and also the guinea worm in the person. Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoa and cholera and typhoid is caused by the bacteria in water.

83. The ____________ is an important requirement of the aquatic life.
a) Dissolved nitrogen
b) Dissolved chlorine
c) Dissolved oxygen
d) Dissolved methane

Answer: c
Explanation: The dissolved oxygen is an important requirement of the aquatic life. They take oxygen from the water to survive.

84. The optimum value in natural water is ________
a) 2-4ppm
b) 4-7ppm
c) 4-6ppm
d) 2-7ppm

Answer: c
Explanation: The optimum value in natural water is about 4-6ppm. Decrease in the quantity of the dissolved water indicates the pollution of water.

85. What is the full form of BOD?
a) Biochemical oxygen demand
b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Biometric oxygen deep water
d) Biological oxygen deep water

86. COD is the short form of the chemical oxygen demand.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: COD is the short form of the chemical oxygen demand. The total organic content present in water is determined in another parameter called COD.

87. The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the _________ in water.
a) Nitrogen depletion
b) Chlorine depletion
c) Oxygen depletion
d) Ozone depletion

Answer: c
Explanation: The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the depletion of the oxygen in the water. Micro organisms mainly bacteria uses the organic matter in water as food.

88. The decomposition of the matter produces into ___________ and in presence of ____________
a) Carbondioxide and oxygen
b) Oxygen and nitrogen
c) Nitrogen and carbondioxide
d) Nitrogen and chlorine

Answer: a
Explanation: The decomposition of the matter produces into carbondioxide and in the presence of oxygen. Oxygen is taken from the water.

89. The organic matter present in the water is of __________ types.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: a
Explanation: The organic matter present in the water is of two types. They are biologically oxidisable and biologically inert.

90. The BOD value of the domestic sewage is about __________
a) 160
b) 161
c) 166
d) 168

Answer: c
Explanation: The BOD value of domestic sewage is about 166ppm. Total quantity of organic matter utilised is called as the BOD.

91. Non hazardous organic wastes from the sewage is to be separated from the ___________
a) Toxic industrial wastes
b) Bacteria
c) Helminth
d) Protozoa

Answer: a
Explanation: Non hazardous organic wastes from the sewage is to be separated from the toxic industrial wastes. The entry of the harmful things into water must be prevented.

92. Domestic water treatment is carried out under __________ conditions.
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Cannot be known
d) Depends on the pollution level of water

Answer: a
Explanation: Domestic water treatment is carried out in presence of the oxygen. The oxygen is taken from the water. So, it is aerobic process.

93. The BOD value of industrial waste must be about _________
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

Answer: b
Explanation: The BOD value of the industrial waste must be about the 200. The BOD value of the paper industry waste is about 370.

94. The BOD value of the food industry is about ___________
a) 742
b) 743
c) 744
d) 745

Answer: d
Explanation: The BOD value of the food industry is about 745. This value is higher than that of the normal limits.

95. In domestic water treatment, after the primary treatment _________ is done.
a) Screening
b) Sedimentation
c) Aerobic process
d) Anaerobic process

Answer: a
Explanation: In domestic water treatment, after the primary treatment of screening is done. Later sedimentation process is done.

96. In the domestic water process, when air is sent during the active sludge, then _________ released.
a) Oxygen
b) Carbondioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Chlorine

Answer: b
Explanation: When the air is sent during the active sludge, then the carbondioxide is released in domestic water process.

97. In final step of the domestic water process, the effluent contain ___________ BOD.
a) 10ppm
b) 15ppm
c) 20ppm
d) 25ppm

Answer: d
Explanation: The effluent obtained in the final step of the domestic water process contains ammonia ion and having the 25ppm.

98. Aerobic process is also called as ___________
a) Activated sludge process
b) Sludge thickening process
c) Sedimentation
d) Screening

Answer: a
Explanation: Aerobic process is also called as the activated sludge process. The sludge thickening, sedimentation and screening are the steps involved in the domestic water treatment.

99. By aerobic process _________ of biodegradable water is converted into the biomass.
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 75%

Answer: c
Explanation: By aerobic process the 50% of the biodegradable water is converted into the biomass and the remaining 50% into carbondioxide.

11. In anaerobic treatment the organic acid and alcohol is undergone into ___________ process.
a) Sedimentation
b) Screening
c) Catalysis
d) Fermentation

Answer: d
Explanation: In anaerobic treatment, the organic acid and alcohol is undergone into fermentation at 35oC and the ppm of 5 to 6.

101. When two solutions of the different concentration are separated by the semi permeable membrane then the solvent flows from low to higher concentration is called osmosis.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Always the energy flows from lower to higher concentration. When two solutions of the different concentration is separated by the semi permeable membrane then the solvent flows from low to higher concentration is called osmosis.

102. Which of the following method is not the method of desalination?
a) Reverse osmosis
b) Multi flash distillation
c) Electro dialysis
d) Smelting

Answer: d
Explanation: The reverse osmosis, multi flash distillation and electro dialysis are the methods of desalination and smelting is not the process of desalination.

103. The natural tendency of the water can be reversed by applying ________ to the salty water part.
a) Low pressure
b) High pressure
c) Low temperature
d) High temperature

Answer: b
Explanation: The natural tendency of the water can be reversed by applying the high pressure with a piston to the salty part of the water.

104. In reverse osmosis, the water flows from __________ concentration to ___________ concentration.
a) Low, high
b) High, low
c) High, moderate
d) Moderate, low

Answer: a
Explanation: In reverse osmosis, the water flows from the lower to higher concentration. In osmosis the water flows from the higher to lower concentration.

105. The semi permeable membranes used in the reverse osmosis is _________
a) Cellulose
b) Glucose
c) Cellulose acetate
d) Glucose acetate

Answer: c
Explanation: The semi permeable membrane used in reverse osmosis is cellulose acetate and cellulose butyrate etc.

106. By ultra filtration aldrin can be removed by _________
a) 100%
b) 99%
c) 98%
d) 97%

Answer: b
Explanation: By ultra filtration process, many micro organisms can be removed by reacting the industrial waste with activated charcoal. Aldrin can be removed by 99%.

107. __________ co polymer can remove the chlorinated pesticides.
a) Styrene di vinyl benzene
b) Styrene
c) Benzoyl peroxide
d) Phenol

Answer: a
Explanation: The styrene di vinyl benzene can remove the chlorinated pesticides by absorption at the surface.

108. Increase in the BOD value in the water indicates ___________
a) Decrease in pollution
b) Increase in pollution
c) Pollution is independent of BOD
d) Slight decrease in the BOD

Answer: b
Explanation: Increase in the value of the BOD in water indicates the increase in the water pollution.

109. The organic matter have the limit in water that is about __________
a) 0.2 to 1
b) 0.5 to 1
c) 1 to 2
d) 2 to 4

Answer: a
Explanation: The organic matter has the desired limit in water about 0.2 to 1 ppm. Increase in the value indicates the pollution.

110. In sewage the waste is about ___________
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.05

Answer: d
Explanation: Sewage contains 99.95% of water and 0.05% of the organic and municipal wastes. Strength of sewage is expressed in terms of BOD.

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