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[MCQ’s] Enterprise Network Design

Module 01

Enterprise Network Design-module 1

1. Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) is
a) Strongly Coupled
b) Loosely Coupled
c) Strongly Cohesive
d) Loosely Cohesive
Answer: b
Explanation: SOA is the architectural style that supports loosely coupled services to enable business flexibility.

2. Which of the following is an essential principle of an architecture?
a) Consistency
b) Reliability
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Architecture implies a consistent and coherent design approach.

3. Arrange the following activities in order to build a SOA.
i. Virtualization through mediation.
ii. Track services with registries.
iii. Govern, secure and manage the services.
iv. Design for interoperability through the adoption of standards.
a) i, ii, iii, iv
b) iii, ii, i, iv
c) ii, iii, i, iv
d) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: c
Explanation: The order mentioned is appropriate to build a SOA

4. How is SOA different from OO Architecture ?
a) Strong coupling among objects
b) Communications are prescriptive rather than being descriptive
c) Data is separated from a service or behavior
d) Data and methods are integrated into a single object
Answer: c
Explanation: A service-oriented architecture is essentially a collection of services which communicate with each other.

5. Which architecture will be built on top of a SOA ?
a) The Application Architecture
b) The Service Architecture
c) The Component Architecture
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Which of the following utilities is not a part of Application Service Layer ?
a) Policy implementation
b) QoS
c) Security
d) Verify invoice
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a part of Business service layer.

7. Which of the following utilities is not a part of Business Service Layer ?
a) Task centric service
b) Wrapper Services
c) Get account info
d) Entity centric service
Answer: b
Explanation: It is a part of Application service layer.

8. We can build Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) using Object Oriented (OO) language
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In SOA, the design methodology is associated, not an OO programming language. In fact we can do OO based architecture using non OO languages. Likewise we can build SOA using OO language.

9. Which architecture describes the various elements that support the implementation of services.
a) The Application Architecture
b) The Service Architecture
c) The Component Architecture
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Web Services is not a realization of SOA ?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Web services is one realization of the SOA.

11.Network resiliency and control occurs in which later of the borderless network architecture?
a.Borderless User Services
b.Connection Management
c.Borderless Network Services
d.Policy and Control
Ans:b

12.Which of the following commands can you use to view current NetFlow statistics in Cisco IOS software?
a.The show ip netflow cache command
b.The show ip flow command
c.The show ip flow cache command
d.The show ip cache flow command
Ans:C

13.Which are the three Cisco network architectures for the enterprise?
a.Hierarchical
b.Integrated
c.OSI model
d.Data center/virtualization
e.Borderless
f.Collaboration
Ans:b,f

14. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.

15. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.

16. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a different phase of Software Engineering.

18. FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

19. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

20. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another (external) system.

21. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have with the software.

22. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.

23. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.

24. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software
Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or customers, what’s the point of being in business?.

25. Software Design consists of _____________
a) Software Product Design
b) Software Engineering Design
c) Software Product & Engineering Design
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Software design consists of product and engineering design.

26. Which of the following is true?
a) Analysis – Solving problem
b) Design – Understanding problem
c) Analysis & Design
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Analysis- Understanding problem Resolution – Solving problem.

27. Which of these are followed in case of software design process?
a) Analysis occurs at start of product design with a product idea
b) Analysis occurs at the end of engineering design with the SRS
c) Product design resolution produces the design document
d) Engineering design resolution produces the SRS
Answer: a
Explanation: Only statement one is true rest all are false. Analysis is at start of design, Product design resolution produces SRS.

28. Which of these is not in sequence for generic problem solving strategy?
a) Understand the problem
b) Generate candidate solutions
c) Iterate if no solution is adequate
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Iteration is done at last stage.

29. Which of these is not in sequence for generic design process?
a) Analyze the Problem
b) Evaluate candidate solutions
c) Finalize the Design
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Evaluation is followed after Generation of candidate solutions.

30. Why do you think iteration is important for design?
a) To frequently reanalyze the problem
b) To generate and improve solutions only once for better output
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: It has to follow both in order to complete iteration process.

31. What is true about generic software product design process?
a) It begins with SRS
b) It ends with Product Design Problem
c) Analysis is done and end product is project mission statement
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It begins with product design problem ends with SRS and starting point is project mission statement, hence all choices are false.

32. Generic software engineering design process defined by which of these steps?
a) Generic software engineering design process first job after analysis is detailed design
b) Attention is turned later to architectural design
c) Architectural design is not followed by Detailed design
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Following procedure is followed in engineering design process.

33. Which of these is said to be true about resolution process in generic software engineering design process?
a) Architectural design is low resolution process
b) Detailed design is high resolution process
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Architectural design is high resolution, detailed design is low resolution

34. Which step among these follows the wrong sequence in software engineering design process?
a) Analyze problem
b) Generate candidate architecture
c) Finalize design
d) Select detailed design
Answer: c
Explanation: Selection of design is followed first later design is finalized.

35. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

36. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

37. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

38. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
Answer: c
Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.

39. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.

40. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.

41. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

42. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.

43. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

44. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.

45. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.

46. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.

Module 02

Enterprise Network Design-module 2

1. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
Answer: c
Explanation: SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is an application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents. It is used under the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used for managing devices on the internet.

2. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
Answer: a
Explanation: In full duplex mode, both endpoints share a single channel bandwidth to achieve two-way transmission. This results in complete utilization of the band capacity increasing the capacity by 10 to 20 mbps than half-duplex mode.

3. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Configuration and dialing up
Answer: a
Explanation: The best current practices report is created by a management group to ensure the most effective configuration management. The group also makes a MIB (Management Information Base) module to help with the configuration management.

4. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
Answer: d
Explanation: Rules are a collection of expression containing parameters to observe the attributes of the user’s device, and then execute some actions. It specifies the parameters for the managed objects inside the application and performs operations that would support the expression. The input of a rule may be many expressions or even a single expression that end in an output of single object invoking some action.

5. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
Answer: d
Explanation: SNMPv3 has introduced new cryptographic security, through which confidentiality is provided by encrypting packets and blocking intruders. It also ensures that the message is coming from a reliable source.

6. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for controlling access to network based on a predefined policy is called _________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
Answer: d
Explanation: Security management is also responsible to provide confidentiality, authentication and encryption in addition to controlling access to network. Without security management, the network and its traffic would be vulnerable to be exploited by attackers.

7. BER stands for ________
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
Answer: a
Explanation: The Basic Encoding Rules are a set of rules that specify the guidelines to encode the SNMP messages in binary form. Each SNMP message is encoded into 3 parts namely data, length and type of message.

8. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
Answer: c
Explanation: The accounting management keeps track of the users and their access rights to the network and controls the user’s access by communicating with the security management. The accounting management takes support of the Management Information Block to perform its operations.

9. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a management protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents using the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol.

10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
Answer: b
Explanation: SMI was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association (SNIA) and it defines a standard that can be manipulated by SNMP. Basically, it defines the standard format and hierarchy of management data which is used by the SNMP. It does not describe how the objects are to be managed.

11. Which of the following describes a message-passing taxonomy for a component-based architecture that provides services to clients upon demand?
a) SOA
b) EBS
c) GEC
d) All of the mentioned

answer: a
Explanation: Clients access a component that complies with SOA by passing a message containing metadata to be acted upon in a standard format.

12. Point out the correct statement.
a) Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) describes a standard method for requesting services from distributed components and managing the results
b) SOA provides the translation and management layer in an architecture that removes the barrier for a client obtaining desired services
c) With SOA, clients and components can be written in different languages and can use multiple messaging protocols
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: You don’t need SOA if you are creating a monolithic cloud application that performs a specific function such as backup, e-mail, Web page access, or instant messaging.

13. Which of the following is a repeatable task within a business process?
a) service
b) bus
c) methods
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A business task is a composition of services.

14. Which of the following module of SOA is shown in the following figure?

a) Description
b) Messaging
c) Business Process
d) QOS
Answer: d
Explanation: QoS is established, and the service is instantiated.

15. Point out the wrong statement.
a) SOA provides the standards that transport the messages and makes the infrastructure to support it possible
b) SOA provides access to reusable Web services over an SMTP network
c) SOA offers access to ready-made, modular, highly optimized, and widely shareable components that can minimize developer and infrastructure costs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Service Oriented Architecture has been part of a collaborative effort on the part of both large and small vendors to come up with a common solution to architecting complex business software processes efficiently.

16. Which of the following is used to define the service component that performs the service?
a) WSDL
b) SCDL
c) XML
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: SCDL stands for Service Component Definition Language.

17. Which of the following is commonly used to describe the service interface, how to bind information, and the nature of the component’s service or endpoint?
a) WSDL
b) SCDL
c) XML
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The most commonly used message-passing format is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) document using the Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP).

18. Which of the following provides commands for defining logic using conditional statements?
a) XML
b) WS-BPEL
c) JSON
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Business process is a collection of activity graphs.

19. Which of the following is used as middleware layer in the following figure?

a) XML
b) ESB
c) UDDI
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: An ESB may be part of a network operating system or may be implemented using a set of middleware
products.

20. Which of the following figure is associated with Description Module in SOA stack?
a)
b)
c)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: WSDL is a language for describing web services and how to access them.

Module 03

Enterprise Network Design-module 3

1. Which of the following is correct criteria to be considered while designing?
a) Structure should be aesthetically pleasing but structurally unsafe
b) Structure should be cheap in cost even though it may be structurally unsafe
c) Structure should be structurally safe but less durable
d) Structure should be adequately safe, should have adequate serviceability
Answer: d
Explanation: Structure should be designed such that it fulfils it intended purpose during its lifetime and be adequately safe in terms of strength, stability and structural integrity and have adequate serviceability. Structure should also be economically viable, aesthetically pleasing and environment friendly.

2. What is serviceability?
a) It refers to condition when structure is not usable
b) It refers to services offered in the structure
c) It means that the structure should perform satisfactorily under different loads, without discomfort to user
d) It means that structure should be economically viable
Answer: c
Explanation: Serviceability is related to utility of structure. The structure should perform satisfactorily under service loads, without discomfort to user due to excessive deflection, cracking, vibration, etc. Other considerations of serviceability are durability, impermeability, acoustic and thermal insulation etc.

3. Analysis is referred to _____________
a) determination of cost of structure
b) determination of axial forces, bending moment, shear force etc.
c) determination of factor of safety
d) drafting architectural plans and drawings
Answer: b
Explanation: Analysis refers to determination of axial forces, bending moment, shear force, torsional moments etc. acting on different members of structure due to applied loads and their combinations.

4. The structure is statically indeterminate when________________
a) static equilibrium equations are insufficient for determining internal forces and reactions on that structure
b) static equilibrium equations are sufficient for determining internal forces and reactions on that structure
c) structure is economically viable
d) structure is environment friendly
Answer: a
Explanation: When the static equilibrium equations are insufficient for determining internal forces and reactions on that structure, the structure is said to be statically indeterminate. Analysis of these structures is complex and cannot be analysed only by using laws of statics, various analytical methods like slope deflection method, moment distribution method, etc.

5. Which of the following is one of the methods of analysis prescribed in the code for steel structures?
a) Hinge Analysis
b) Limit Analysis
c) Roller Analysis
d) Dynamic Analysis
Answer: d
Explanation: Code suggests the use of any of the following methods for steel structures : (i) elastic analysis, (ii) plastic analysis, (iii) advanced analysis, (iv) dynamic analysis.

6. Which method is mainly adopted for design of steel structures as per IS code?
a) Limit State Method
b) Working Stress Method
c) Ultimate Load Method
d) Earthquake Load Method
Answer: a
Explanation: Steel structures and their elements are normally designed by limit state method. When limit state method cannot be conveniently adopted, working stress method may be used.

7. Which IS code is used for general construction of steel?
a) IS 456
b) IS 256
c) IS 800
d) IS 100
Answer: c
Explanation: IS 800:2007 is the code of practice for general construction in steel. It is issued by Bureau of Indian Standards.

8. Which of the following relation is correct?
a) Permissible Stress = Yield Stress x Factor of Safety
b) Permissible Stress = Yield Stress / Factor of Safety
c) Yield Stress = Permissible Stress / Factor of Safety
d) Permissible Stress = Yield Stress – Factor of Safety
Answer: b
Explanation: Permissible Stress = Yield Stress / Factor of Safety. Permissible Stress is the amount of stress that will not cause failure. It is a fraction of yield stress. It takes care of overload or other unknown factors.

9. In Working Stress Method, which of the following relation is correct?
a) Working Stress ≤ Permissible Stress
b) Working Stress ≥ Permissible Stress
c) Working Stress = Permissible Stress
d) Working Stress > Permissible Stress
Answer: a
Explanation: In Working Stress Method, Working Stress ≤ Permissible Stress. Each member is checked for number of different combinations of loadings.

10. Arrange the following in ascending order according to their factor of safety in working stress method :
(i) tension members, (ii) long column, (iii) short column, (iv) connections
a) i < ii < iii < iv
b) i < iv < ii < iii
c) i = iii < ii < iv
d) iv = i < iii < ii
Answer: c
Explanation: In working stress method, the factor of safety for the above are as follows : (i) for tension members = 1.67, (ii) for long column = 1.92, (iii) for short columns = 1.67, (iv) for connections = 2.5-3.

11. What is Load Factor?
a) ratio of working load to ultimate load
b) product of working load and ultimate load
c) product of working load and factor of safety
d) ratio of ultimate load to working load
Answer: d
Explanation: Load Factor = working load / ultimate load. In ultimate load design, different types of loads and load combinations have different load factors assigned.

12. Which of the following is not a main element of framed structure?
a) Beam
b) Column
c) Shear connector
d) Lattice member
Answer: c
Explanation: For framed structure, the main elements are beam, column, beam-column, tie and lattice members.

13. Which of the following are subjected to both axial loads and bending moments?
a) Beam-Column
b) Column
c) Lattice member
d) Beam
Answer: a
Explanation: Beams are those elements which are subjected to bending moments and shear force only. Columns are subjected to axial loads. Beam-Column is subjected to axial load and bending moment. In special cases, beams are subjected to torsional moments.

14. How much percentage increase of permissible stress is allowed when dead load, live load and wind load are considered together in working stress method?
a) 50%
b) 33%
c) 40%
d) 60%
Answer: b
Explanation: In working stress method, working stress ≤ permissible stress.
Stress due to dead load + live load ≤ permissible stress
Stress due to dead load + wind load ≤ permissible stress
Stress due to dead load + live load + wind load ≤ 1.33 permissible stress.

15. Stressed parts are always kept in tension.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Cast iron has more compressive strength.

16. Shot blasting process improves the endurance limit of the component.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Shot blasting employs throwing wheel which imparts strength to the material.

17. Which process allows controlling grain structure of the product?
a) Casting
b) Forging
c) None of the mentioned
d) Die Casting
Answer: b
Explanation: In casting metal is in fluid state and hence impossible to control the grain structure.

18. While designing a forging, the profile is selected such that the fibrous lines are parallel to the tensile forces and perpendicular to shear forces.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Tensile load is applied parallel to the grain structures.

19. Cast surfaces have good finishing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cavity is surrounded by sand and hence not good finish is obtained.

20. In forging, metal is in which of the following stage?
a) Elastic
b) Plastic
c) Can be in any stage
d) Rigid
Answer: b
Explanation: Forging is the working of metal in plastic range.

21. Forged components can be held between close limits.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no shrinkage problems and hence less tolerances.

22. Among casting, forging and forging which has the slowest rate of production?
a) Casting
b) Forging
c) Machining
d) All have equal rate of production
Answer: c
Explanation: Machining each part is very time consuming.

23. In manual assembly, cost of screw is higher than the cost of driving a screw.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally manufacturing screw is cheaper than driving it.

24. Maximum carbon content in welding is usually limited to
a) 0.22%
b) 0.8%
c) 1.5%
d) 2%
Answer: a
Explanation: With increase of carbon, welding becomes difficult as weld becomes susceptible to cracks.

25. Why does architectural design occurs during product design?
a) Stakeholders must convinced that their needs will be met, which may be difficult without demonstrating how the engineers plan to build the product
b) Product designers must judge the feasibility of their designs
c) Project planners must have some idea about what software must be built to create schedules and allocate resources
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned factors are reason for the occurrence of architectural design during product design.

26. What kind of investments does organization have in order to make most of by the software architects in their design?
a) Libraries
b) Standards and guidelines
c) Software tools
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Organizations investment such as libraries, standards and guidelines, software tools, and people with particular skills that software architects are expected to make the most of during its design.

27. Which of the following is true?
a) The input of architectural design process is SAD
b) The output of architectural design process is SRS
c) The input of architectural design process is SRS
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The input of architectural design process is SRS and its output is SAD.

28. Which of these steps are followed in architectural design process?
a) Analyze SRS
b) Evaluate Candidate Architectures
c) Select architecture and finalize architecture
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned steps are followed in architectural design process.

29. Which of these are the content for SAD?
a) Product Overview
b) Architectural Models
c) Architectural design rationale
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Contents of SRS includes product overview, architectural models, architectural design rationale, mapping between models.

30. Which of these are included in the product overview for SAD?
a) product vision, assumptions, constraints
b) product scope
c) target markets, business requirements
d) product vision, assumptions, constraints, target markets & business requirements
Answer: d
Explanation: Product overview includes product vision, assumptions, constraints, target markets and business requirements.

31. Which amount the following is correct?
a) Architectural models explains the main design decisions made in arriving the architecture
b) Architectural design rationale presents architecture, using variety of models to represent different aspects or views
c) Mapping between models says sometimes it is difficult to connect different architectural models
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The incorrect statements are architectural modes presents architecture, using variety of models to represent different aspects or views and Architectural design rationale explains the main design decisions made in arriving the architecture.

32. What are the categories in which quality attributes are divided in?
a) Development Attributes
b) Operational Attributes
c) Functional Attributes
d) Development & Operational Attributes
Answer: d
Explanation: Quality attributes are divided into two major categories development and operational attributes.

33. Which of these comes under development attribute?
a) Maintainability
b) Reusability
c) Performance
d) Maintainability & Reusability
Answer: d
Explanation: Maintainability, Reusability comes under Development attributes.

34. Which of these comes under operational attributes?
a) Performance
b) Availability
c) Reliability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned comes under operational attributes.

Module 04

Enterprise Network Design-module 4

1. What is the format of IP address?
a) 34 bit
b) 64 bit
c) 16 bit
d) 32 bit
Answer: d
Explanation: The format of an IP address is a 32-bit numeric address written as four numbers separated by periods. Each number can be zero to 255. For example, 1.160.10.240 could be an IP address.

2. Version 6 of IP address has how many bits.
a) 64 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 32 bits
d) 256 bits
Answer: b
Explanation: Because of the growth of the Internet and the depletion of available IPV4 address, a new version of IP(IPV6), using 128 nits for the IP address, was developed in 1995, and standardized as RFC 2460 in 1998. IPV6 deployment has been ongoing since the mid 2000s.

3. IANA stands for __________
a) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
b) Internal Assigned Numbers Authority
c) Internet Associative Numbers Authoritative
d) Internal Associative Numbers Authority
Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address space is managed globally by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority(IANA), and by five Regional Internet Registries(RIR) responsible in their designated territories for assignment to end users and local Internet registries, such as Internet services providers.

4. RIR stands for ________
a) Regional Internal Registries
b) Registries Internet Regional
c) Regional Internet Registries
d) Registries Internal Regional
Answer: c
Explanation: The IP address space is managed globally by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority(IANA), and by five Regional Internet Registries(RIR) responsible in their designated territories for assignment to end users and local Internet registries, such as Internet services providers.

5. Geolocation software is used by host.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The header of each IP packet contains the IP address of the sending host, and that of the destination host. A host may use geolocation software to deduce the geolocation of it communication peer.

6. How many version /s of IP’s are there?
a) 4 versions
b) 3 versions
c) 2 versions
d) 1 version
Answer: c
Explanation: Two versions of the Internet Protocol are in common use in the Internet today. The original version of the Internet Protocol for use in the Internet is Internet Protocol Version 4, first installed in 1983.

7. VLSM stands for ________
a) Version Length Subnet Masking
b) Variable Length Subnet Masking
c) Variable Length Surface Masking
d) Version Length Surface Masking
Answer: b
Explanation: The class system of the address space was replaced with Classless Inter – Domain Routing in 1993. CIDR is based on variable length Subnet Masking to allow allocation and routing based on arbitrary length prefixes.

8. Many desktops and operating systems include which protocol?
a) IPv6 protocol
b) IPv4 protocol
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4 protocol
d) IPv3 protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: All modern desktop and enterprise server operating systems include native support for the IPv6 protocol, but it is not yet widely deployed in other devices, such as residential networking routers, voice over IP(VoIP) and multimedia equipment, and network peripherals.

9. The design of the Internet protocol suites adhere to the ________ principle.
a) Data corruption
b) Connection oriented
c) End to End principle
d) Reliability
Answer: c
Explanation: The design of the Internet protocol suite adheres to the end to end principle, a concept adapted from the CYCLADES project. Under the end to end principle, the network infrastructure is considered inherently unreliable at any signal network element or transmission medium and is dynamic in terms of availability of links and notes.

10. ___________ adjusts the segment size to be smaller than MTU.
a) Internet Protocol 6
b) User Datagram Protocol
c) Internet Protocol 4
d) Transmission Control Protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: The Transmission Control Protocol is an example of a protocol that adjusts its segment size to be smaller than the MTU.

11. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?


i. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
ii. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
iii. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
iv. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
v. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.

a) i only
b) ii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i and v only
Answer: d
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).

12. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?

i. 172.16.1.100
ii. 172.16.1.198
iii. 172.16.2.255
iv. 172.16.3.0

a) i only
b) ii and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) ii only
Answer: c
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the 172.16.2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 172.16.3.255 because the next subnet is 172.16.4.0. The valid host range is 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the range.

13. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

i. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
ii. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
iii. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
iv. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

a) i and iii
b) ii and iv
c) i, ii and iv
d) ii, iii and iv
Answer: b
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 10.16.2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 10.16.4.0, so the broadcast address for the 10.16.2.0 subnet is 10.16.3.255. The valid host addresses are 10.16.2.1 to 10.16.3.254.

14. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 30
Answer: d
Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.

15. You need to subnet a network into 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
Answer: b
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts which is less than 15, so this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts so this may work. The mask 255.255.255.192 provides 4 subnets, each with 60 hosts so this may work. Comparing both the possible masks, 255.255.255.224 provides the best answer.

16. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets, so let’s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.

17. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0
d) 172.16.255.0
Answer: a
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 since 128 is the next subnet

18. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 30
d) 32
Answer: a
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts are the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface. Out of the 8 addresses possible with the host bits, the first and the last address are for the subnet id and broadcast address respectively.

19. What is the subnet id of a host with an IP address 172.16.66.0/21?
a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0
Answer: c
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.

20. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: b
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.

21. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
a) 4 bytes
b) 128 bits
c) 8 bytes
d) 100 bits
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion addresses are possible in IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible addresses and IPv6 would be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of possible new addresses.

22. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results in faster processing of the datagram. There is one fixed header and optional headers which may or may not exist. The fixed header contains the mandatory essential information about the packet while the optional headers contain the optional “not that necessary” information.

23. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
d) Option field
Answer: c
Explanation: The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar functionality to the Type of Service field in the IPv4 header. It’s an 8-bit field and its values are not defined in the RFC 2460.

24. IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.
a) broadcast
b) multicast
c) anycast
d) unicast
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no concept of broadcast address in IPv6. Instead, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.

25. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address
Answer: d
Explanation: There is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.

26. The _________ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram
a) Hop limit
b) TTL
c) Next header
d) Type of traffic
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwarded by the router. When the value becomes zero the datagram is discarded. The field is 8-bits wide, so an IPv6 packet can live up to 255 router hops only.

27. Dual-stack approach refers to _________
a) implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks
Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approaches used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. ISPs are using it as a method to transfer from IPv4 to IPv6 completely eventually due to the lower number of possible available addresses in IPv4.

28. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel in which at the sender’s side, the IPv6 datagram is encapsulated in to IPv4, and at the receiver’s side of the tunnel, the IPv4 packet is stripped and the IPv6 packet is sent to the receiver.

29. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ______
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
Answer: a
Explanation: Teredo is a technique through which gives the possibility for full IPv6 network connectivity to IPv6 capable hosts which are currently on an IPv4 network. Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address of the IPv4 network.

30. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling
Answer: a
Explanation: The Internet Protocol is the networking protocol that establishes the internet by relaying datagram across network boundaries. ICMP is a supporting protocol for IP which handles the Error Reporting functionality.

31. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets. It is not related to fragmentation but is used to request specific treatment such as high throughput, high reliability or low latency for the IP packet depending upon the type of service it belongs to.

32. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: TTL stands for Time to Live. This field specifies the life of the IP packet based on the number of hops it makes (Number of routers it goes through). TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router. When the value is 0, the packet is automatically destroyed.

33. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) IGMP
Answer: b
Explanation: The protocol field enables the demultiplexing feature so that the IP protocol can be used to carry payloads of more than one protocol type. Its most used values are 17 and 6 for UDP and TCP respectively. ICMP and IGMP are network layer protocols.

35. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?
a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fragment Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram. The offset of the first fragment will always be 0. The size of the field (13 bits) is 3-bits shorter than the size of the total length field (16 bits).

36. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
a) 4bytes
b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
d) 100bits
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion unique addresses are available in IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible addresses and IPv6 would be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of possible new addresses.

37. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results in faster processing of the datagram. There is one fixed header and optional headers which may or may not exist. The fixed header contains the mandatory essential information about the packet while the optional headers contain the optional “not that necessary” information.

38. In an IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field
d) Option field
Answer: c
Explanation: The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar functionality to the Type of Service field in the IPv4 header. It’s an 8-bit field and its values are not defined in the RFC 2460.

39. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address.
a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Any cast
d) Unicast
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no concept of broadcast address in IPv6. Instead, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.

40. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address
Answer: d
Explanation: There is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.

41. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
Answer: b
Explanation: Classful routing means that all hosts in the internetwork use the same mask. Classless routing means that you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and can also support discontinuous networking.

42. What is route poisoning?
a) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
b) It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless routing
c) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity
Answer: d
Explanation: When a network goes down, the distance-vector routing protocol initiates route poisoning by advertising the network with a metric of 16, or unreachable.

43. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?
a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
b) It converges faster than RIPv1
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1
Answer: c
Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPv1. It has the same administrative distance and timers and is configured just like RIPv1.

44. Which of the situations might not require multiple routing protocols in a network?
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network
b) When you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
c) When you are using routers from multiple vendors
d) When there are host-based routers from multiple vendors
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple routing protocols are required only when we need to migrate from one routing protocol to another, or when we are using routers from multiple vendors, or when there are host-based routers from multiple vendors. Routing is not a layer-2 function so we don’t require multiple routing protocols when new layer-2 switch is added.

45. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP
Answer: c
Explanation: OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First. It is a Link state routing protocol. IP EIGRP and RIPv2 can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router.

46. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two routing domains?
a) Higher cost of two routers
b) Routing feedback
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
d) Not possible to use two routers
Answer: b
Explanation: Routing feedback is an anomaly in which the routing protocols go back and forth between one route and another. Routing feedback is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two routing domains.

47. What does administrative distance rank?
a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information
c) Router reliability
d) Best paths
Answer: b
Explanation: Sources of routing information is the administrative distance rank. It is used by routers to select the best path when there are different routes to the same destination. It’s used only two different routing protocols are being used.

48. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?
a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
b) IGRP and EIGRP
c) RIPv2
d) EIGRP
Answer: c
Explanation: Neighbor adjacency refers to the formal handshake performed by neighboring routers. It is to be done before the router share any routing information. RIP V2 maintains neighbor adjacencies.

49. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm?
a) IS-IS
b) IGRP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPFAnswer: c
Explanation: The diffusing update algorithm (DUAL) is used to maintain backup routes to a destination for when the primary route fails. EIGRP routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm.

50. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
Answer: b
Explanation: RIPv2protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops. It uses classless routing and the routing updates are broadcasted over the network. It notifies routers about the update so that they update their own routing tables.

51. The value of one decibel is equal to?
a) 0.115 N
b) 0.125 N
c) 0.135 N
d) 0.145 N
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of one decibel is equal to 0.115 N. One decibel = 0.115 N where N is the number of nepers and N = loge(V1/V2).

52. A filter which passes without attenuation all frequencies up to the cut-off frequency fc and attenuates all other frequencies greater than fc is called?
a) high pass filter
b) low pass filter
c) band elimination filter
d) band pass filter
Answer: b
Explanation: A filter is called a low pass filter if it passes all frequencies up to the cut-off frequency fc without attenuation and attenuates all other frequencies greater than fc. This transmits currents of all frequencies from zero up to the cut-off frequency.

53. A filter which attenuates all frequencies below a designated cut-off frequency fc and passes all other frequencies greater than fc is called?
a) band elimination filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) high pass filter
Answer: d
Explanation: A filter is called high pass filter if attenuates all frequencies below a designated cut-off frequency fc and passes all other frequencies greater than fc. Thus the pass band of this filter is the frequency range above fc and the stop band is the frequency range below fc.

54. A filter that passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and attenuates all other frequencies is called?
a) high pass filter
b) band elimination filter
c) band pass filter
d) low pass filter
Answer: c
Explanation: A band pass filter passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and attenuates all other frequencies. A band pass filter has two cut-off frequencies and will have the pass band f2-f1; f1 is the lower cut-off frequency, f2 is the upper cut-off frequency.

55. A filter that passes all frequencies lying outside a certain range, while it attenuates all frequencies between the two designated frequencies is called?
a) low pass filter
b) high pass filter
c) band elimination filter
d) band pass filter
Answer: c
Explanation: A band elimination filter passes all frequencies lying outside a certain range, while it attenuates all frequencies between the two designated frequencies. It is also referred to as band stop filter.

56. The expression of the characteristic impedance of a symmetrical T-section is?
a) ZOT=√(Z12/4-Z1Z2)
b) ZOT=√(Z12/4+Z1)
c) ZOT=√(Z12/4+Z2)
d) ZOT=√(Z12/4+Z1Z2)
Answer: d
Explanation: For a T-section, the value of input impedance when it is terminated in Zo is
Zin=(Z1/2)+(Z2((Z1/2)+Zo))/((Z1/2)+Z2+Zo) and Zin=Zo. On solving, the expression of the characteristic impedance of a symmetrical T-section is ZOT=√(Z12/4+Z1Z2).

57. The expression of the open circuit impedance Zoc is?
a) Zoc=Z1/2+Z2
b) Zoc=Z2/2+Z2
c) Zoc=Z1/2+Z1
d) Zoc=Z1/2-Z2
Answer: a
Explanation: On open circuiting the port 2 of T-section, we get the expression of the open circuit impedance Zoc as Zoc=Z1/2+Z2.

58. The expression of short circuit impedance Zsc is?
a) Zsc=(Z12-4Z1Z2)/(2Z1-4Z2)
b) Zsc=(Z12+4Z1Z2)/(2Z1+4Z2)
c) Zsc=(Z12-4Z1Z2)/(2Z1+4Z2)
d) Zsc=(Z12+4Z1Z2)/(2Z1-4Z2)
Answer: b
Explanation: On short circuiting the port 2 of T-section, we get the expression of short circuit impedance Zsc as Zsc=(Z1/2)+((Z1/2)xZ2)/((Z1/2)+Z2). On solving we get Zsc=(Z12+4Z1Z2)/(2Z1+4Z2).

59. The relation between ZOT, Zoc, Zsc is?
a) ZOT=√ZocZsc
b) Zoc=√(ZOT Zsc)
c) Zsc=√(ZOT Zoc)
d) Zoc=√(ZOT Zoc)
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoc=Z1/2+Z2 and Zsc=(Z12+4Z1Z2)/(2Z1+4Z2) => ZocxZsc=Z1Z2+Z12/4 =Zo2T. The relation between ZOT, Zoc, Zsc is ZOT=√ZocZsc.

60. The value of sinh⁡ϒ/2 in terms of Z1 and Z2 is?
a) sinh⁡ϒ/2=√(4Z1/Z2)
b) sinh⁡ϒ/2=√(Z1/Z2)
c) sinh⁡ϒ/2=√(Z1/4Z2)
d) sinh⁡ϒ/2=√(2Z1/Z2)
Answer: c
Explanation: sinhϒ/2=√((1/2(coshϒ-1)/(1/2(1+Z1/2Z2-1))). The value of sinh⁡ϒ/2 in terms of Z1 and Z2 is sinh⁡ϒ/2=√(Z1/4Z2).

Module 05

Enterprise Network Design-module 1

1. How can states of units be updated in hopfield model?
a) synchronously
b) asynchronously
c) synchronously and asynchronously
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: States of units be updated synchronously and asynchronously in hopfield model.

2. What is synchronous update in hopfield model?
a) all units are updated simultaneously
b) a unit is selected at random and its new state is computed
c) a predefined unit is selected and its new state is computed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In synchronous update, all units are updated simultaneously.

3. What is asynchronous update in hopfield model?
a) all units are updated simultaneously
b) a unit is selected at random and its new state is computed
c) a predefined unit is selected and its new state is computed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In asynchronous update, a unit is selected at random and its new state is computed.

4. Asynchronous update ensures that the next state is atmost unit hamming distance from current state, is that true?
a) yes
b) no
Answer: a
Explanation: Asynchronous update ensures that the next state is at most unit hamming distance from current state.

5. If pattern is to be stored, then what does stable state should have updated value of?
a) current sate
b) next state
c) both current and next state
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Stable state should have updated value of current sate.

6. For symmetric weights there exist?
a) basins of attraction corresponding to energy minimum
b) false wells
c) fluctuations in energy landscape
d) none of he mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: For symmetric weights there exist a stable point.

7. If connections are not symmetric then basins of attraction may correspond to?
a) oscillatory regions
b) stable regions
c) chaotic regions
d) oscillatory or chaotic regions
Answer: d
Explanation: If connections are not symmetric then basins of attraction may correspond to oscillatory or chaotic regions.

8. For analysis of storage capacity what are the conditions imposed on hopfield model?
a) symmetry of weights
b) asynchronous update
c) symmetry of weights and asynchronous update
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: For analysis of storage capacity, symmetry of weights and asynchronous update conditions are imposed on hopfield model.

9. What is gradient descent?
a) method to find the absolute minimum of a function
b) method to find the absolute maximum of a function
c) maximum or minimum, depends on the situation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Gradient descent gives absolute minimum of a function.

10. If connections are not symmetric then basins of attraction may correspond to oscillatory or stable regions, is that true?
a) yes
b) no
Answer: b
Explanation: Asymmetric weight can’t lead to stable regions.

11. Which of the following service provider provides the least amount of built in security?
a) SaaS
b) PaaS
c) IaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: You get the least amount of built in security with an Infrastructure as a Service provider, and the most with a Software as a Service provider.

12. Point out the correct statement.
a) Different types of cloud computing service models provide different levels of security services
b) Adapting your on-premises systems to a cloud model requires that you determine what security mechanisms are required and mapping those to controls that exist in your chosen cloud service provider
c) Data should be transferred and stored in an encrypted format for security purpose
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: When you identify missing security elements in the cloud, you can use mapping to work to close the gap.

13. Which of the following services that need to be negotiated in Service Level Agreements?
a) Logging
b) Auditing
c) Regulatory compliance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Logging, auditing, and regulatory compliance are all features that require planning in cloud computing systems.

14. The following flowchart is intended to evaluate __________ in any cloud.

a) risk
b) errors
c) inconsistencies
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Your risks in any cloud deployment are dependent upon the particular cloud service model chosen and the type of cloud on which you deploy your applications.

15. Point out the wrong statement.
a) You can use proxy and brokerage services to separate clients from direct access to shared cloud storage
b) Any distributed application has a much greater attack surface than an application that is closely held on a Local Area Network
c) Cloud computing doesn’t have vulnerabilities associated with Internet applications
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Additional vulnerabilities arise from pooled, virtualized, and outsourced resources.

16. Which of the following area of cloud computing is uniquely troublesome?
a) Auditing
b) Data integrity
c) e-Discovery for legal compliance
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Storing data in the cloud is of particular concern.

17. Which of the following is the operational domain of CSA?
a) Scalability
b) Portability and interoperability
c) Flexibility
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: CSA is an industry working group that studies security issues in cloud computing and offers recommendations to its members.

18. Which of the following is considered an essential element in cloud computing by CSA?
a) Multi-tenancy
b) Identity and access management
c) Virtualization
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Multi-tenancy adds a number of additional security concerns to cloud computing that need to be accounted for.

19. Which of the following is used for Web performance management and load testing?
a) VMware Hyperic
b) Webmetrics
c) Univa UD
d) Tapinsystems
Answer: b
Explanation: CA Cloud Insight is a cloud metrics measurement service.

20. Which of the following is application and infrastructure management software for hybrid multi-clouds?
a) VMware Hyperic
b) Webmetrics
c) Univa UD
d) Tapinsystems
Answer: c
Explanation: Tapinsystems is provisioning and management service.

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