[MCQ,s] Wireless Network

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Module 01

1. The IETF standards documents are called ________
a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
Answer: a
Explanation: RFC stands for Request For Comments and they are documents that describe methods, behaviors, research, or innovations applicable to the working of the Internet.

2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are ___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
Answer: a
Explanation: Each layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer. For example, in the Internet layer, the IP header is added over the TCP header on the data packet that came from the transport layer.

3. The structure or format of data is called ___________
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
Answer: a
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. In programming languages, syntax of the instructions plays a vital role in designing of the program.

4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
Answer: d
Explanation: In simplex transmission, data flows in single direction which in this case refers to the data flowing from the keyboard to the computer. Another example would be of the mouse where the data flows from the mouse to the computer only.

5. The first Network was called ________
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks. It was the first network to be implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol in the year 1969.

6. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
Answer: b
Explanation: Messages travel from sender to receiver via a physical path called the medium using a set of methods/rules called protocol. Mediums can be guided (wired) or unguided (wireless).

7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
Answer: c
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission. FCC is responsible for regulating all interstate communications originating or terminating in USA. It was founded in the year 1934.

8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
Answer: d
Explanation: Network edge devices refer to host systems, which can host applications like web browser. A switch can’t operate as a host, but as a central device which can be used to manage network communication.

9. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) Servers
Answer: a
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow a network of nodes to transmit and receive information. Each layer in the network model has a protocol set, for example, the transport layer has TCP and UDP protocols.

10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) Simplex
Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network nodes are connected to each other. Frame relay, Ethernet and ATM are some examples of multipoint connections.

11. The IETF standards documents are called ________
a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
Answer: a
Explanation: RFC stands for Request For Comments and they are documents that describe methods, behaviors, research, or innovations applicable to the working of the Internet.

12. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are ___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
Answer: a
Explanation: Each layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer. For example, in the Internet layer, the IP header is added over the TCP header on the data packet that came from the transport layer.

13. The structure or format of data is called ___________
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
Answer: a
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. In programming languages, syntax of the instructions plays a vital role in designing of the program.

14. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
Answer: d
Explanation: In simplex transmission, data flows in single direction which in this case refers to the data flowing from the keyboard to the computer. Another example would be of the mouse where the data flows from the mouse to the computer only.

15. The first Network was called ________
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks. It was the first network to be implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol in the year 1969.

16. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
Answer: b
Explanation: Messages travel from sender to receiver via a physical path called the medium using a set of methods/rules called protocol. Mediums can be guided (wired) or unguided (wireless).

19. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) Servers
Answer: a
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow a network of nodes to transmit and receive information. Each layer in the network model has a protocol set, for example, the transport layer has TCP and UDP protocols.

20. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) Simplex
Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network nodes are connected to each other. Frame relay, Ethernet and ATM are some examples of multipoint connections.

21. The acronym OSI stands for ____ in computer networking.
A) Organization for Standards Institute
B) Open Systems Interconnection
C) Organizing Systems Interconnection
D) Open Systems Interworking
Answer: B
Explanation: OSI refers to Open Systems for Interconnection.

22. Who developed standards for the OSI reference model?
A) ANSI – American National Standards Institute
B) ISO – International Standards Organization
C) IEEE – Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
D) ACM – Association for Computing Machinery
Answer: B
Explanation: Yes. It is ISO (International Standards Organization) that developed standards for operating OSI model layers in the year 1984.

23. How many layers are there in the OSI reference model of networking?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: C
Explanation: 7 Layers in total.

24. Each layer of the OSI model receives services or data from a ___ layer.
A) below layer
B) above layer
Answer: A
Explanation: Layers receive data or services from the below layers.

25. In the OSI model, each layer gives services or data to the __ layer.
A) below
B) above
Answer: B
Explanation: In other words, the upper layers always receive services or data from the below layers.

26. A layer of the OSI model on one system communicates with the ___ layer of its peer system.
A) above
B) below
C) same
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: So, any given OSI layer can communicate with the same layer of its peer node.

27. Choose the correct layer numbers and names of the OSI model below.
A) Layer 7 – Application Layer, Layer 6 – Presentation Layer
B) Layer 5 – Session Layer, Layer 4 – Transport Layer
C) Layer 3 – Network Layer, Layer 2 – Data Link Layer, Layer 1 – Physical Layer
D) All the above.
Answer: D
Explanation: The matching order is as follows. Layer 7 = Application Layer, Layer 6 = Presentation Layer, Layer 5 = Session Layer, Layer 4 = Transport Layer, Layer 3 = Network Layer, Layer 2 = Data Link Layer, Layer 1 = Physical Layer.

28. In an OSI model, the lowest layer is the ___ layer.
A) Application Layer
B) Physical Layer
C) Presentation Layer
D) Data Link Layer
Answer: B
Explanation: Yes, the Physical layer is the lowest.

29. In the OSI model, which is the highest layer?
A) Application Layer
B) Physical Layer
C) Presentation Layer
D) Network Layer
Answer: A
Explanation: Yes, the Application Layer or Layer-7 is the highest layer.

30 In the OSI model, the bottom 3 layers assist in ___.
A) converting data
B) transporting data
Answer: B
Explanation: It is because of the bottom 3 layers of OSI, the data gets transferred from one node to another through the network.

31. What are the advantages of 7 layers of OSI model?
A) Troubleshooting the network is easy.
B) Developing new functions or services for a particular layer is easy.
C) Developing hardware devices targetting certain layers is easy because the services to be offered are fixed.
D) All the above
Answer: D

32. A set of standards that define how to communicate with each layer of the OSI model are ___.
A) functions
B) protocols
C) data formats
D) All the above.
Answer: D

33. The layer that transmits data in the form of bit streams using electrical and mechanical systems is ___ in the OSI model.
A) Physical layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Transport Layer
Answer: A
Explanation: Physical Layer

34. The physical layer involves ___
A) Optical, electrical and mechanical properties
B) Voltage levels, timing and frequency
C) Physical connections
D) All the above
Answer: D

35. The transmission media like ___ are part of the Physical layer of OSI model.
A) Copper cables
B) OFC – Optical Fiber Cables
C) RF – Radio Frequency waves including Microwaves
D) All the above
Answer: D

36 An ethernet cable is part of __ layer in the OSI model.
A) Physical layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Transport Layer
Answer: A

36. The protocols working in the physical layer of the OSI Model are ___.
A) USB, Bluetooth, IEEE 802.3, IEEE 802.11, IEEE 802.15, IEEE 802.16
B) POTS, PDH, SONET, SDH, PON, OTN, DSL, ITU-T V series, ITU-T G.hn PHY
C) I.430, I.431, EIA/TIA-232, EIA/TIA-449
D) All the above
Answer: D
Explanation: All the above protocols are worth remembering for competitive exams.

38 Which is the layer of the OSI reference model that employs Error Detection?
A) Physical Layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Session Layer
Answer: B
Explanation: Data Link Layer

39. Which is the layer that converts Packets to Frames and Frames to Packets in the OSI model?
A) Physical Layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Transport Layer
Answer: C
Explanation: Network Layer

40. Which is the layer that converts Raw Bits to Frames and Frames to Raw Bits in the OSI model?
A) Physical Layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Transport Layer
Answer: B
Explanation: Data Link Layer

Module 02

1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________
a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
d) multinet
Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of a bluetooth system having a master node and upto seven active slave nodes. A collection of piconets is called scatternet and a slave node of a piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.
a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511
Answer: c
Explanation: A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into parked mode. Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not disconnected from the network but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.

3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network
Answer: b
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for transmission.

4. Bluetooth uses __________
a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is a method of transmitting radio signals by rapidly changing the carrier frequency and is controlled by the codes known to the sender and receiver only.

5. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called _________
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) bluescoping
Answer: b
Explanation: Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called Bluesnarfing. It is done through exploiting the vulnerabilities of the Bluetooth device to steal the transmitted information.

6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?
a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) a bluetooth profile for security
d) a bluetooth profile for file management
Answer: a
Explanation: A2DP stands for Advanced Audio Distribution Profile is a transfer standard use to transmit high definition audio through Bluetooth. It is mainly used in Bluetooth speakers and wireless headphones.

7. In a piconet, one master device ________
a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) can be master in another piconet
Answer: b
Explanation: In a scatternet, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet. The scatternet uses this property to connect many piconets together to create a larger network.

8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
Answer: a
Explanation: Bluetooth operates on 2.45 GHz frequency ISM band for transmission. It is used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters.

9. Bluetooth supports _______
a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection
Answer: c
Explanation: In Bluetooth, each slave node communicates with the master of the piconet independently i.e. each master-slave connection is independent. The slave is not allowed to communicate with other slaves directly.

10. A scatternet can have maximum __________
a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
Answer: a
Explanation: A scatternet can have maximum of 10 piconets and minimum of 2 piconets. To connect these piconets, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

11. What is the use of the RFID Module?
a) Object Identification
b) To provide 3G Connectivity
c) To measure temperature
d) To measure Wi-Fi strength
Answer: a
Explanation: The RFID Module is primarily used for object identification and tracking. It’s abbreviation stands for Radio Frequency Identification Module. It’s working is mostly wireless and uses electromagnetic fields.

2. What is the role of the MISO pin in the RFID Module?
a) Master In Slave Out
b) Manage Internal Slave Output
c) Master Internal Search Optimization
d) Manage Input Slave Op
Answer: a
Explanation: The RFID Module’s MISO pin acts as Master In Slave Out while the SPI Interface is activated, and as a serial clock when I2C Interface is enabled. However, when UART Mode is activated, it assumes the role of the Serial Data Output Pin.

13. Is there an SDA pin on the RFID Module?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a
Explanation: The RFID Module has an SDA/SS/Rx Pin which, when the SPI Interface is enabled acts as a signal pin, when the I2C Interface is enabled acts as a Serial Data Pin, and in case of UART Mode Activation acts as a Serial Data Input pin.

14. What will happen if we supply a voltage of 25V to the Vcc of the RFID Module?
a) Damage is caused
b) Module will shut down
c) Module will not respond for the time the voltage is applied
d) Module will function normally
Answer: a
Explanation: The RFID Modules are mostly built to work on a voltage of approximately 3.3V. Any voltage lower than that and the board will not be able to power on, but however any voltage significantly above that and the board may suffer permanent damage.

15. Which frequency does the RFID Module operate in?
a) 12.98 MHz
b) 14.67 MHz
c) 19.56 MHz
d) 13.56 MHz
Answer: d
Explanation: The RFID Module operates in the 13.56 MHz frequency since it is the universal unregulated frequency for all scientific and medical research purposes. It was set as the standard international frequency to be followed by all, since it does not interfere significantly with the environment.

16. What is the maximum data rate of the RFID Module?
a) 11 Mbps
b) 1 Kbps
c) 10 Mbps
d) 11 Gbps
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum data rate of any given device is the ability of that given device to transfer as many bits of information from one location to another in unit time. Here, the maximum data rate of the RFID Module is 10 Mbps, which means that the module can transfer a maximum of 10 Megabytes of data in 1 second.

7. What is the maximum read range of the RFID Module?
a) 2 cm
b) 1 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 5 cm
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum read range of an RFID Module is the maximum distance in space that the receiver module can read the signal sent by the transmitter module. In order for proper working of the module during operation, it is advised that both the modules are kept within the read range for accurate performance.

18. Is there an interrupt pin on the RFID Module?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a
Explanation: There is an interrupt pin on the RFID Module which keeps the module alert to incoming connection requests from any RFID transmitter that approaches its maximum read range so that it can throw a subsequent software interrupt in order for the new transmitter to function in sync with the receiver.

19. What is the minimum working current internally in the RFID Module?
a) 12 mA
b) 13 mA
c) 10 mA
d) 1 mA
Answer: b
Explanation: The internal working current inside the RFID Module ranges between 13 mA and 26 mA approximately. If there is a power surge in any portion of the module, it can mean that there is a faulty component which can be dangerous for the entire module as a whole.

20. Till what voltage are the logic pins on the RFID Module resistant to?
a) 5V
b) 3.3V
c) 2V
d) 12V
Answer: a
Explanation: The logic pins on the RFID Module are resistant up to 5V despite having an operational range of 2.5V to 3.3V. This means that one does not need to connect any logic level converter circuit in between the RFID Module and any other Arduino Microcontrollers which work on 5V.

21. In a Zigbee network, a single device that controls the network is called _____.
A. master
B. server
C. coordinator
D. pointer
Answer: C

22. Devices being controlled in a zigbee network are known as _____.
A. end devices
B. clients
C. slaves
D. beggars
Answer: A

23. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11b
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
Answer: A

24. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11a
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
Answer: B

25. The World Wide Web or WWW was invented in the year _____.
A. 1991
B. 1990
C. 1989
D. 1995
Answer: C

26. He invented the World Wide Web or WWW
A. Karel Capek
B. Tim Berners-Lee
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Bill Gates
Answer: B

27. The number of satellites used by GLONASS
A. 30
B. 26
C. 24
D. 31
Answer: C

28. A 3G technology that delivers broadband-like data speeds to mobile devices.
A. EDGE
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
Answer: A

29. ADSL has maximum distance of _____.
A. 16,000 feet
B. 8,000 feet
C. 18,000 feet
D. 12,000 feet
Answer: C

30. ______ is an implementation of ADSL that automatically adjusts the connection speed to adjust for the quality of the telephone line.
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. RADSL
D. HDSL
Answer: C

31. A type of DSL that was developed to support exceptionally high-bandwidth applications such as High-Definition Television (HDTV).
A. VDSL
B. SDSL
C. ADSL
D. XDSL
Answer: A

32. A method for moving data over regular phone lines which is much faster than a regular phone connection and the wires coming into the subscriber’s premises are the same copper wires used for regular phone service.
A. VOIP
B. DSL
C. Cable Internet
D. POTS
Answer: B

33. What is the IEEE designation for Bluetooth?
A. 802.15
B. 802.14
C. 802.10
D. 802.16
Answer: A

34. Peripheral devices can communicate through a small network, known as
A. Wireless Network
B. Bluetooth Network
C. Adhoc Network
D. Piconet Network
Answer: B

35. ACL stands for
A. Asynchronous Connectionless Link
B. Asynchronous Connection Link
C. Asynchronous Connected Link
D. Asynchronous Communication Link
Answer: A

36. The addressing mechanism of the Bluetooth can include up to
A. 2 Addresses
B. 4 Addresses
C. 6 Addresses
D. 8 Addresses
Answer: B

37. Each channel in Bluetooth layer is of
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 3 MHz
D. 4 MHz
Answer: A

38. The baseband is roughly equivalent to the MAC sub layer in
A. WANs
B. LANs
C. MANs
D. Wi-Fi
Answer: B

Module 03

1. What is The Frequency of the IEEE 802.11a standard?
A.2.4Gbps
B.5Gbps
C.2.4GHz
D.5GHz
Answer: D
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11a standard runs in the 5GHz RF range.

2. What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate for 802.11b?
A.About 100 feet
B.About 175 feet
C.About 300 feet
D.About 350 feet
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11b standard provides the lowest data rate at 1Mbps, but it also has the longest distance, which is about 350 feet.

3. What is the maximum distance with data rate for 802.11a?
A.About 65-75 feet
B.About 90-100 feet
C.About 150 feet
D.Over 200 feet
Answer: A
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11a standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 54Mbps, but you need to be close to the access point, somewhere around 65 to 75 feet.

4.What is The Frequency of the IEEE 802.11b standard?
A.2.4Gbps
B.5Gbps
C.2.4GHz
D.5GHz
Answer: C
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g standards both run in the 2.4GHz RF range.

5. You have a Cisco mesh network.what protocol allows multiple APs to connect with many redundant connection between nodes?
A.LWAPP
B.AWPP
C.STP
D.IEEE
Answer: B
Explanation: Each AP in a mesh network runs the Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol (AWPP). This protocol allows RAPs to communicate with each other to determine the best path back to the wired network via the RAP.

6. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11g Standard ?
A.6Mbps
B.11Mbps
C.22Mbps
D.54Mbps
Answer: D
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11g standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 54Mbps.

7. How many non-ovelapping channel are available with 802.11b?
A.3
B.12
C.23
D.40
Answer: A
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11b standard provides 3 non-overlapping channels.

8. How many non-ovelapping channel are available with 802.11a?
A.3
B.12
C.23
D.40
Answer: B
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11a standard provides up to 12 non-overlapping channels.

9. In Cisco’s Unified Wireless Solution, What is the Split-Mac Architecture?
A.The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses to create a forward/filter table and break up collision domains.
B.The split-MAC architecture allows the splitting of 802.11 protocol packets between the AP and the controller to allow processing by both devices.
C.The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses on the wireless network and IP addresses on the wired network.
D.The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses to create a forward/filter table and break up broadcast domains.
Answer & Solution Discuss in Board Save for Later
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The split-MAC architecture allows the splitting of 802.11 protocol packets between the Cisco LWAPP-based AP, which handles real-time portions of the protocol, and the WLAN controller, which handles those items that are not time sensitive.

10. What is the maximum distance with maximum data rate for 802.11b?
A.About 65-75 feet
B.About 90-100 feet
C.About 150 feet
D.Over 200 feet
Answer: C
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11b standard provides a maximum data rate of up to only 11Mbps, and you can be around 150 feet, maybe farther, depending on conditions.

11. Which of the following is/are the advantages of wireless LANs.
i. Installation speed and simplicity
ii. Installation flexibility
iii. Scalability
A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
D. All i, ii and iii
Answer: D

12. Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of wireless LANs.
i. Noise and interference
ii. Lower reliability
iii. Fluctuation
A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
D. All i, ii and iii
Answer: D

13. Which of the following is/are the types of LAN.
i. Super LAN
ii. Home RF
iii. Bluetooth
iv. MANET
A. i, ii and iii only
B. ii, iii and iv only
C. i, iii and iv only
D. All i, ii, iii and iv
Answer: B

14. State whether the following statements about the Ad hoc mode are True or False.
i. In Ad hoc mode, there is an access point or infrastructure.
ii. Ad hoc networks only require 802.11 client radios in the client devices that connect to the network.
A. i-True, ii-False
B. i-False, ii-True
C. i-True, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False
Answer: B

15. State whether the following statements about the infrastructure mode are True or False.
i. In infrastructure mode, MS is connected to a base station or access point.
ii. Infrastructure network is similar to a star network where all the mobile stations are attached to the base station.
A. i-True, ii-False
B. i-False, ii-True
C. i-True, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False
Answer: C

16. Which of the following is/are the functions of the physical layer of the IEEE 802 reference model.
i. Encoding and decoding of the signals.
ii. Preamble generation.
iii. Bit transmission and reception
A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
D. All i, ii and iii
Answer: D

17. The … in a wireless LAN consists of some number of stations executing the same MAC protocol and competing for access to the same shared wireless medium.
A. Basic Service Set(BSS)
B. Extended Service Set(ESS)
C. Distributed System(DS)
D. Access Point(AP)
Answer: A

18. State whether the following statements about the basic service set(BSS) are True or False.
i. A BSS may connect to a backbone distribution system(DS) through an access point(AP).
ii. In BSS, client stations communicate directly with one another.
A. i-True, ii-False
B. i-False, ii-True
C. i-True, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False
Answer: A

19. An … consists of two or more basic service sets interconnected by a distribution system.
A. Basic Service Set(BSS)
B. Extended Service Set(ESS)
C. Distributed System(DS)
D. Access Point(AP)
Answer: B

20. IEEE 802.11 defines … services that need to be provided by the wireless LAN to provide functionality equivalent to that which is inherent to wired LANs.
A. seven
B. eight
C. nine
D. ten
Answer: C

21. Which of the following is/are the services provided by the wireless LAN defined by IEEE 802.11?
i. Association
ii. Integration
iii. Distribution
iv. Privacy
A. i, ii and iii only
B. ii, iii and iv only
C. i, iii and iv only
D. All i, ii, iii and iv
Answer: D

22. … are the transaction types defined by IEEE 802.11 standard based on mobility.
i. No transition
ii. Full transaction
iii. BSS transition
iv. ESS transition
A. i, ii and iii only
B. ii, iii and iv only
C. i, iii and iv only
D. All i, ii, iii and iv
Answer: C

23. State whether the following statements about the services need to be provided by the wireless LAN is True or False.
i. A station should give disassociation notification before leaving an ESS or shutting down.
ii. A station must establish an association with an AP within a particular BSS.
A. i-True, ii-False
B. i-False, ii-True
C. i-True, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False
Answer: C

24. The … service is used by the stations to establish their identity with stations they wish to communicate with IEEE 802.11.
A. Authentication
B. Association
C. De-authentication
D. Privacy
Answer: A

25. … is invoked whenever an existing authentication is to be terminated.
A. Authentication
B. Association
C. De-authentication
D. Privacy
Answer: C

26. … is used to prevent the contents of messages from being read by other than the intended recipient.
A. Authentication
B. Association
C. De-authentication
D. Privacy
Answer: D

27. The IEEE 802.11 MAC layer covers which of the following functions areas.
i. reliable data delivery
ii. medium access control
iii. security
A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
D. All i, ii and iii
Answer: D

28. State whether the following statements about the IEEE 802.11 physical layer is True or False.
i. IEEE802.11a operates in the 5-GHz band at data rates up to 54 Mbps.
ii. IEEE 802.11b operates in the 5-GHz band at 5.5 and 11 Mbps.
A. i-True, ii-False
B. i-False, ii-True
C. i-True, ii-True
D. i-False, ii-False
Answer: A

29. The 802.11i architecture consists of which of the following ingredients.
i. Authentication
ii. Access control
iii. Privacy with message integrity
iv. Privacy without message integrity
A. i, ii and iii only
B. ii, iii and iv only
C. i, iii and iv only
D. All i, ii, iii and iv
Answer: A

30. IEEE 802.11 includes which of the following features.
i. Open system and shared authentication modes
ii. Service set identifiers – SSID
iii. Wired Equipment Privacy – WEP
A. i and ii only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and iii only
D. All i, ii and iii
Answer: D

31. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices itself
d) all the nodes in the network
Answer: a
Explanation: Access point in a wireless network is any device that will allow the wireless devices to a wired network. A router is the best example of an Access Point.

32. In wireless ad-hoc network _________
a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) all nodes are access points
Answer: a
Explanation: An ad-hoc wireless network is a decentralized kind of a wireless network. An access point is usually a central device and it would go against the rules of the ad-hoc network to use one. Hence it is not required.

33. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) CSMA/CD
Answer: b
Explanation: CSMA/CA stands for Carrier-sense multiple access/collision avoidance. It is a multiple access protocol used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN. It’s based on the principle of collision avoidance by using different algorithms to avoid collisions between channels.

34. In wireless distribution system __________
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) access points are not required
Answer: a
Explanation: A Wireless Distribution System allows the connection of multiple access points together. It is used to expand a wireless network to a larger network.

35. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______
a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) WDS mode
Answer: c
Explanation: A wireless network interface controller works on the physical layer and the data link layer of the OSI model. Infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not required.

36. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________
a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) connected access points
Answer: a
Explanation: The extended service set is a part of the IEEE 802.11 WLAN architecture and is used to expand the range of the basic service set by allowing connection of multiple basic service sets.

37. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
Answer: b
Explanation: In orthogonal frequency division multiplexing, digital data is encoded on multiple carrier frequencies. It is also used in digital television and audio broadcasting in addition to Wireless LANs.

38. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?
a) collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) connection to wired networks
Answer: a
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in wireless LAN with no extensions. Collision detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in Wireless LANs.

39. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) security algorithm for emails
Answer: b
Explanation: WEP is a security algorithm for wireless network which intended to provide data confidentiality comparable to that of traditional wired networks. It was introduced in 1997.

40. What is WPA?
a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
Answer: a
Explanation: WPA or WiFi Protected Access is a security protocol used to provide users and firms with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

Module 04

1. What is the operating frequency of Wibro?
A. 2.1 GHz
B. 2.3 GHz
C. 2.2 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz
Answer: A

2. What is the base station data throughout for Wibro?
A. 30 to 50 Mbps
B. 40 to 60 Mbps
C. 50 to 70 Mbps
D. 60 to 80 Mbps
Answer: A

3. The maximum radius for Wibro is ____.
A. 2 km
B. 3 km
C. 4 km
D. 5 km
Answer: D

4. _____ is a published specification set of high level communication protocols designed to use small, low-power digital radios based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard for wireless personal area networks.
A. bluetooth
B. wpan
C. zigbee
D. wlan
Answer: C

5. In a Zigbee network, a single device that controls the network is called _____.
A. master
B. server
C. coordinator
D. pointer
Answer: C

6. Devices being controlled in a zigbee network are known as _____.
A. end devices
B. clients
C. slaves
D. beggars
Answer: A

7. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11b
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
Answer: A

8. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11a
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
Answer: B

9. The World Wide Web or WWW was invented in the year _____.
A. 1991
B. 1990
C. 1989
D. 1995
Answer: C

10. He invented the World Wide Web or WWW
A. Karel Capek
B. Tim Berners-Lee
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Bill Gates
Answer: B

11. The number of satellites used by GLONASS
A. 30
B. 26
C. 24
D. 31
Answer: C

12. A 3G technology that delivers broadband-like data speeds to mobile devices.
A. EDGE
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
Answer: A

13. ADSL has maximum distance of _____.
A. 16,000 feet
B. 8,000 feet
C. 18,000 feet
D. 12,000 feet
Answer: C

14. ______ is an implementation of ADSL that automatically adjusts the connection speed to adjust for the quality of the telephone line.
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. RADSL
D. HDSL
Answer: C

15. A type of DSL that was developed to support exceptionally high-bandwidth applications such as High-Definition Television (HDTV).
A. VDSL
B. SDSL
C. ADSL
D. XDSL
Answer: A

16. A method for moving data over regular phone lines which is much faster than a regular phone connection and the wires coming into the subscriber’s premises are the same copper wires used for regular phone service.
A. VOIP
B. DSL
C. Cable Internet
D. POTS
Answer: B

17. What is the IEEE designation for Bluetooth?
A. 802.15
B. 802.14
C. 802.10
D. 802.16
Answer: A

18. The IEEE designation for wireless LAN
A. 802.12
B. 802.13
C. 802.5
D. 802.11
Answer: D

19. The IEEE designation for broadband wireless network
A. 802.16
B. 802.15
C. 802.14
D. 802.13
Answer: A

20. The file extension for jpeg
A. .jpg
B. .jpe
C. .jfif
D. any of these
Answer: D

21. In SMS, the number of characters being sent in the network is _____ when Latin alphabet is used.
A. 80
B. 160
C. 65
D. 100
Answer: B

22. In SMS, the number of characters being sent in the network is _____ when non-Latin alphabet is used.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
Answer: C

23. It is an enhancement of data services of all current GSM networks, it allows you to access nonvoice services at 3 times faster
A. GPRS
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
Answer: B

24. A language derived from HTML especially for wireless network characteristics.
A. Delphi
B. PHP
C. Pearl
D. WML
Answer: D

25. The founding father of the Internet
A. Tim Burners-Lee
B. Vinton Gray Cerf
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Carel Kapek
Answer: B

26. What term is used by in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte?
A. harmonic
B. octet
C. actave
D. bit
Answer: B

27. The relative permittivity of silicon is _____
A. 11.7
B. 1.17
C. 1.18
D. 11.8
Answer: A

28. One of the following is NOT classified as a Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) by the NTC.
A. Automatic Teller Machine
B. Videophone Terminal Equipment
C. VSAT
D. ISDN Terminal Equipment
Answer: A

29. Zigbee network layer supports the following topologies except:
A. tree
B. bus
C. star
D. mesh
Answer: B

30. An Internet Messaging service can be either _____.
A. user-based or company based
B. sender-based or receiver based
C. network-based or device-based
D. feature-based or attachment-based
Answer: C

31. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54
Answer: a
Explanation: GSM was the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and level architectures and services. It is the world’s most popular 2G technology. It was developed to solve the fragmentation problems of the first cellular systems in Europe.

32. Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________
a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile
Answer: b
Explanation: In the mid-1980s GSM was called by the name Groupe special mobile. In 1992, GSM changed its name to Global System for Mobile Communication for marketing reasons.

33. Who sets the standards of GSM?
a) ITU
b) AT & T
c) ETSI
d) USDC
Answer: c
Explanation: The setting of standards for GSM is under the aegis of the European Technical Standards Institute (ETSI). GSM task was to specify a common mobile communication system for Europe in the 900 MHZ band.

34. Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM?
a) Standard mobile telephony
b) Mobile originated traffic
c) Base originated traffic
d) Packet switched traffic
Answer: d
Explanation: GSM services follow ISDN guidelines and are classified as either teleservices or data services. Teleservices include standard mobile telephony and mobile originated or base originated traffic.

35. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony
Answer: c
Explanation: Supplementary ISDN services are digital in nature. They include call diversion, closed user groups, and caller identification, and are not available in analog mobile networks. Supplementary services also include short messaging service (SMS).

36. Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS
Answer: c
Explanation: SIM (subscriber identity module) is a memory device that stores information such as the subscriber’s identification number, the networks and countries where the subscriber is entitled to service, privacy keys, and other user specific information.

37. Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic
Answer: b
Explanation: The on the air privacy feature of GSM makes impossible to eavesdrop on a GSM radio transmission. The privacy is made possible by encrypting the digital bit stream sent by a GSM transmitter, according to a specific secret cryptographic key that is known only to the cellular carrier.

38. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
Answer: d
Explanation: The GSM architecture consists of three major interconnected subsystems that interact between themselves and with the users through certain network interfaces. The subsystems are BSS (Base Station Subsystem), NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) and OSS (Operation Support Subsystem).

39. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile station and MSC?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) BSC
Answer: a
Explanation: The BSS provides and manages radio transmission paths between the mobile stations and the Mobile Switching Center (MSC). It also manages the radio interface between the mobile stations and all other subsystems of GSM.

40. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC
Answer: b
Explanation: NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) manages the switching functions of the system. It allows the MSCs to communicate with other networks such as PSTN and ISDN.

51. Link budget consists of calculation of
a) Useful signal power
b) Interfering noise power
c) Useful signal & Interfering noise power
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The link analysis and its output, the link budget consists of calculations and tabulations of useful signal power and interfering noise power at the receiver.

42. Link budget can help in predicting
a) Equipment weight and size
b) Technical risk
c) Prime power requirements
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Link budget can help to predict equipment weight, size, prime power requirements, technical risk and cost. Link budget is one of the system manager’s useful document.

43. Which is the primary cost for degradation of error performance?
a) Loss in signal to noise ratio
b) Signal distortion
c) Signal distortion & Loss in signal to noise ratio
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two primary causes for the degradation of error performance. They are loss in signal to noise ratio and the second is signal distortion caused by intersymbol interference.

44. Which factor adds phase noise to the signal?
a) Jitter
b) Phase fluctuations
c) Jitter & Phase fluctuations
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: When a local oscillator is used in signal mixing, phase fluctuations and jitter adds phase noise to the signal.

45. Antennas are used
a) As transducer
b) To focus
c) As transducer & To focus
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Antennas are used as transducer that converts electronic signals to electromagnetic fields and vice versa. They are also used to focus the electromagnetic energy in the desired direction.

46. Mechanism contributing to a reduction in efficiency is called as
a) Amplitude tapering
b) Blockage
c) Edge diffraction
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanism contributing to a reduction in efficiency is called as amplitude tapering, spillover, edge diffraction, blockage, scattering, re-radiation and dissipative loss.

47. Space loss occurs due to a decrease in
a) Electric field strength
b) Efficiency
c) Phase
d) Signal power
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to the decrease in electric field strength there will be a decrease in signal strength as a function of distance. This is called as space loss.

48. Antenna’s efficiency is given by the ratio of
a) Effective aperture to physical aperture
b) Physical aperture to effective aperture
c) Signal power to noise power
d) Losses
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the antenna aperture the larger is the resulting signal power density in the desired direction. The ratio of effective aperture to physical aperture is the antenna’s efficiency.

49. Effective radiated power of an isotropic radiator can be given as a product of
a) Radiated power and received power
b) Effective area and physical area
c) Transmitted power and transmitting gain
d) Receiving power and receiving gain
Answer: c
Explanation: An effective radiated power with respect to an isotropic radiator EIRP can be defined as the product of transmitted power and the gain of the transmitting antenna.

50. According to reciprocity theorem, _____ and _____ are identical.
a) Transmitting power and receiving power
b) Transmitting gain and receiving gain
c) Effective area and physical area
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The reciprocity theorem states that for a given antenna and carrier wavelength the transmitting and receiving gain are identical.

Module 05

1 : A vehicular ad hoc network (VANET) can be used —– loads, and
a. to alert drivers of traffic jams ahead, help balance traffic informing the
b. balance traffic loads, and reduce traveling time by
c. close the jam route
d. to observe the road to maintain street safty
answer: a

2 : The channel is divided into frames in ___________ .
a. D-PRMA
b. MARCH
c. BTMA
d. MACA
answer: a

3 : What is VANET stands for ——– .
a. Vehicular AdHoc Network
b. Vehicular Address Network
c. Vehicular Adhoc Neural Network
d. Wireless Sensor Networks
answer: a

4 : Which of these is not a fast fading propogation mechanisms?
Reflection
Diffraction
Refraction
Scattering
answer: c

5 : Application Controlled Transport Protocol ———
a. Provides freedom of choosing the required choosing the required
b. Is very compatible with TCP
c. Is very not compatible with TCP
d. is Less dependent on routing protocol
answer: a

6 : What type of routing is used in VANET?
a. Single layer routing
b. Cross Layer Routing
c. Hybrid Routing
d. AP Routing
answer: b

7 : In __________ an adversary node advertises routes to non-existent nodes, to the authorized nodes present in the network.
a. Routing table poisoning
b. Route cache poisoning
c. Routing table overflow
d. Packet replication
answer: c

8 : The wireless transmission is divided into ___________ .
a. 3 broad groups
b. 6 broad groups
c. 9 broad groups
d. 8 broad groups
answer: a

9 : Repudiation refers to the ——- .
a. attempted denial by a node involved in a communication
b. selection of node involved in a communication of having
c. selectively dropping packets
d. disrupt the normal operation of the network
answer: a

10 : The Random Direction mobility model was created to overcome —– .
a. Collision
b. Cogestion
c. Density Waves
d. Interference
answer: c

11 : In WPA, a choice can be made between either __________ or WEP2.
a. TKIP
b. SAP
c. DOA
d. TKP
answer: a

12 : Following are considered as characteristics of VANET.
a. Static Topology
b. Wired communication
c. Fixed ifrastucture
d. Mobility Modeling and Prediction
answer: d

13 : Classification of routing protocol is based on _________ .
a. Routing information update mechanism
b. Protocol(DSDV) Routing topology
c. Utilization of specific resources
d. Processing Utilization
answer: d

14 : Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA) allows —– .
a. Adhoc sensors
b. Wired communication
c. Safety messages
d. Physical infrastrucute
answer: c

15 : Which protocol ensure that all nodes are treated fairly with respect to bandwidth allocation?
a. MAC
b. MACAW
c. BTMA
d. PRMA
answer: a

16 : _____________ is a standard from the WifiAlliance based upon the IEEE 802.11i.
a. WEP
b. WPA
c. WPA2
d. IEEE 802.11
answer: c

17 : Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?
a. Collision detection
b. Acknowledgeme nt of data frames
c. Multi-mode data transmission
d. Connection to wired networks
answer: a

18 : Which one is the first protocols proposed for adhoc wireless networks?
a. Wireless routing protocol(WRP)
b. Destination sequenced distance-vector routing
c. Source-tree adaptive routing protocol (STAR)
d. Dynamic source routing protocol (DSR)
answer: b

19 : When using ________there is a shared key between all the stations and access points.
a. WPA
b. WEP
c.ICV
d. SSID
answer: a

20 : Two known attacks on WPA are ____________ and DOS attack
a. Session Hijacking
b. Dictionary Attack
c. Rushing Attack
d. Jamming
answer: b

21 : A ________ broadcast storm occurs when broadcast or multicast packets flood the LAN.
a. MAN
b. WAN
c. LAN
d. None of these
answer: c

22. : In this type of attack, an adversary attempts to prevent consume/waste away resources of other nodes present in the network.
a. Resource consumption attack
b. Blackhole Attack
c. Denial of Service Attack
d. Wormhole attack
answer: c

23 : In wireless ad-hoc network ____
a. Access point is must
b. Access point is not required
c. Nodes are not required
d. All nodes are access points
answer: b

24 : The basic idea of the aggregation scheme is based on so-called landmarks.
a. Judging the quality of information
b. Landmarkbased aggregation
c.Hierarchical landmark aggregation
d. Wired landmark
answer: b

25 : In RI-BTMA the data packets are divided into two portions a _________ and actual data packets.
a. Asynchronous
b. Synchronous
c. Preamble
d. Free
answer: c

26 : Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
a. Space division multiplexing
b. Channel division multiplexing
c. Orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
d. Time division multiplexing
answer: c

27 : Delay-Tolerant Routing is used in —-
a. Delivering advertisements
b. Sensing element
c. Path finding
d. Information Processing
answer: a

28 : In _________ attack, an attacker receives packets at one location in the network and tunnels them to another location in the network, where the packets are resent into the
a. Blackhole attack
b.Wormhole attack
c. Byzantine attack
d. Information disclosure
answer: b

29 : When using ________there is a shared key between all the stations and access points.
a. WPA
b. WEP
c. ICV
d. SSID
answer: b

Module 06

1. The number of elements in the Open IoT Architecture?
a) 6 elements
b) 8 elements
c) 7 elements
d) 3 elements
Answer: c
Explanation: The 7 main elements are : sensor middleware (X-GSN), cloud data storage, scheduler, service delivery and utility manager, request definition, request presentation, configuration and monitoring.

2. Global Sensor Network is built for _________
a) Reducing cost and time for development
b) Reducing cost and increasing time for development
c) Increasing cost and increasing time for development
d) Increasing cost and decreasing time for development
Answer: a
Explanation: GSN is developed on the observation that most of the requirements for the application development sensor network are same. Having each sensor network development using its own custom software not only increases the cost but also takes time for development and deployment.

3. One of the main characteristics of Linked Stream Data is “Live Streaming”.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the data on the web is from sensing devices. To facilitate the integration of data from sensed devices and other sources, both sensor stream source and data are being enriched with schematic descriptions, creating Linked Stream Data. It shows the live data depending on our application.

4. The huge number of devices connected to the Internet of Things has to communicate automatically, not via humans. What is this called?
a) Skynet
b) Bot 2 Bot
c) Machine 2 Machine
d) Intercloud
Answer: c
Explanation: Devices are connected to other devices like mobiles, laptops, etc, to communicate among themselves which is called machine to machine and that involves wireless communication techniques, serial connection and powerline connection.

5. Internet of Things needs a lot of network connection. What is the proposed “white Space” radio standard called?
a) Bluetooth
b) WiMax
c) Weightless
d) Zigbee
Answer: c
Explanation: White space is nothing but gaps that sit in the frequency band used to broadcast digital TV. The development of so called “Weightless standard” is for the use of TV white space and for IOT/M2M purpose. The main intention is to reduce the cost and power utilization.

6. What is the sensor/protocol used in GSN?
a) HTTP protocol
b) CoAP protocol
c) MQTT protocol
d) XMPP protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: Constrained Application Protocol is a specialized web transfer protocol which enables constrained devices to communicate over internet and it is required for GSN in transferring data stream.7. Which is the core wrapper of GSN?
a) Serial
b) UDP
c) GPSTest
d) ZeroMQWrapper
Answer: d
Explanation: Wrappers are classified as remote and local wrappers in GSN. Unlike them, the ZeroMQWrapper is a core wrapper which allows for publishing stream elements that are produced by a Virtual Sensor.8. Open IoT ontology is extending the W3C SSN ontology which supports the description of the physical and processing structure of sensors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors are not constrained to physical sensing devices, rather a sensor is anything that can calculate the value of the phenomenon. Thus, either a device or Computational process or a combination of them could play the role of a sensor.9. Open IoT manages the registration, data acquisition, deployment of sensors and interconnected of objects, through which network?
a) GSN
b) X-GSN
c) LSM
d) HTTP
Answer: b
Explanation: The core fundamental concept in X-GSN is the virtual sensor, which can represent not only physical devices but in general any abstract or concrete entity that observes features of any kind.10. Which environment does Global Sensor Network work on?
a) C++
b) JAVA
c) HTML
d) C
Answer: b
Explanation: GSN is expected to work in all standard computing environments. As Java is portable in nature which means that Java bytecode can execute on all platforms, GSN works on Java. C++, HTML and C are not portable in nature.

11. What happens when service providers change their operating system and communication protocols?
a) Inoperability and complexity arises
b) Only complexity arises
c) Only Inoperability arises
d) Nothing arises
Answer: a
Explanation: Complexity arises when service providers change their operating system and communication protocols, which results in inoperability. Service providers use standard protocols and conventional interfaces to facilitate information among diverse services.

12. In SOA, Service is termed as __________
a) Software service
b) Network service
c) Business service
d) Developer service
Answer: c
Explanation: Services are termed as business services. They are self-contained and logical.

13. Are SOA components loosely coupled.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: They are loosely coupled. That means every service is self-contained and exists alone logically.

14. The SOA architecture is divided into how many layers?
a) 5 layers
b) 2 layers
c) 7 layers
d) no layers ie., only one layer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first which has direct relevance to the business as it carries out business functions. The second layer is the technical layer which talks about managing computer resources like a database, web server etc.

15. Which layer in SOA delivers messages between applications?
a) ESB(Enterprise Service Bus)
b) Service Broker
c) SOA registry
d) SOA supervisor
Answer: a
Explanation: ESB is a group of components/ software which helps us to send and receive messages between the disparate applications. It is usually shown as a huge plump pipe in the architecture.

16. Which block is the central reference of meta-data for services?
a) ESB(Enterprise Service Bus)
b) Service Broker
c) SOA registry
d) SOA supervisor
Answer: c
Explanation: SOA registry is like a reference database of services. It describes what each service does, where they are located, and how they can communicate.

17. Which block ties work flow and SOA registry?
a) ESB(Enterprise Service Bus)
b) Service Broker
c) Accounting package
d) SOA supervisor
Answer: b
Explanation: Service broker reads the work flow and takes services from the SOA registry and ties them together. Service brokers are normally middleware like EAI(Enterprise Application Integration) products.

18. Which blocks deals with performance issues?
a) ESB(Enterprise Service Bus)
b) Service Broker
c) SOA registry
d) SOA supervisor
Answer: d
Explanation: SOA supervisor is a traffic cop ensuring do not having issues. It deals with performance issues of the system so that appropriate service levels are met. If any of the services have performance problems it sends messages to the proper infrastructure to fix the issue.

19. What are the three terminologies on which SOA service stands__________
a) Contract, Address and Building
b) Contract, Address and Service
c) Service, Contract and Building
d) Service, Building and Address
Answer: a
Explanation: Contract-It describes parameters and return values for a method.
Address-It is a URL which points to the location of the service.
Building-It determines how the communication is done.

20. Which standard is preferable to achieve SOA?
a) Software service
b) Business service
c) Network service
d) Web service
Answer: d
Explanation: In SOA we need services to be loosely coupled. A web service communicates using the SOAP protocol which is XML based, Which is very loosely coupled.

21. API enables services portability between ____________
a) Systems
b) Devices
c) Networks
d) Services
Answer: a
Explanation: API enables services portability between sysyems, I.e., service may be allocated to end-systems or servers, with possible relocation and replication throughout its lifecycle.

22. Ubiquitous service provision depends on _________
a) QoS
b) Management
c) Interoperability
d) Routing
Answer: c
Explanation: Ubiquitous service provision depends on interoperability, not only for provisioning of a standard QoS controlled IP bearer, but also for cross domain naming, security, mobility, multicast, including fair compensation for utility provisioning.

23. API architecture not only includes critical elements but also caters for _________
a) System
b) Devices
c) Network
d) Multi homing
Answer: d
Explanation: API architecture not only includes critical elements but also caters for multi homing, mobile networks with dynamic membership, and third party persistent storage based on indirection.

24. All portals are embedded into a single supercomputer, known as _________
a) Network
b) Web
c) Internet
d) System
Answer: b
Explanation: The web is now one, enormous, global computer. Our devices are them phones, tablets, TVS, watches, glasses, etc. These all are all portals into this single computer, known as Web.

25. _________ is uniquely identifiable embedded computing devices.
a) Internet
b) IoT
c) Bigdata
d) Cloud
Answer: b
Explanation: The IoT is the part of the Internet that is made up of “uniquely identified embedded computing devices,” as Wikipedia status. Just like the world Wide Web is a Internet, so does the IoT.

26. Web is a mesh of computers, so too is _________
a) IoT
b) Bigdata
c) Cloud
d) Internet
Answer: a
Explanation: Just like the World Wide Web runs over the Internet, so does the IoT. Similarly to how the Web is a mesh of computers, so too is the IoT.

27. Without _________ computers embedded in house keys are worthless.
a) Data
b) Services
c) Both Data and Services
d) Neither data nor services
Answer: c
Explanation: Without data and services, the little computers embedded in thermostat, house keys, baby monitors, trash cans, fire extinguishers, and store shelve are nearly worthless.

28. _________ Services are the way in which the IoT is connected to data.
a) Cloud
b) Bigdata
c) Internet
d) Network
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud based services are the way in which the IoT is connected to data. Just like World Wide Web runs over the Internet, so does the IoT.

29. APIs are the skybridge.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: APIs are the skybridge – IoT on one side, useful information and plentiful data crunching capabilities on the other. APIs make IoT useful, turning limited little things into powerful portals of possibilities.

30. IoT solutions are at the heart of IDC’s view of the _________
a) Three
b) Two
c) One
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: IoT solutions are at the heart of IDC’s view of the four pillars:
Mobility
Social business
Big data
Cloud
Resulting in the millions of applications available to the billions at the end point.

31. _________ are the inter connectors.
a) Web
b) Internet
c) Network
d) APIs
Answer: d
Explanation: APIs are the inter connector which provides the interface between the Internet and Things.

32. Is APIs are glue?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: JavaWorld’s Andrew Oliver calls APIs “the glue and interesting part where the Internet of Things starts to become useful and more than a buzzword.”

33. Most IoT problems are addressed at _________ layer
a) TCP
b) IP
c) API
d) UDP
Answer: c
Explanation: As more and more devices are connected to the net, however, certain recurring problems must be solved. These problems are addressed at the API layer.

34. IoT-A stands for ________
a) Internet of Things Address
b) Internet of Things Architecture
c) Internet of Things Area
d) Industrial of things Architecture
Answer: b
Explanation: The EU’s Internet of Things Architecture is another example of the way in which we can solve IoT related challenges.

35. IoT-A reference model is a _________
a) Scalable
b) Secure
c) Both scalable and secure
d) Neither scalable nor secure
Answer: c
Explanation: IoT-A architectural reference model is a scalable and secure solution intended to guide the design of protocols, interface and algorithms necessary to scale the IoT.

36. SOA stands for _____________
a) Solution Oriented Architecture
b) Sector Oriented Architecture
c) Service Oriented Architecture
d) Source Oriented Architecture
Answer: c
Explanation: Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) approach traditionally used to couple functionality of heavyweight corporate IT systems, are becoming application to embedded real world devices.

37. ________ is used to describe a perceived, quickly growing set of web based applications.
a) Web 4.0
b) Web 3.5
c) Web 2.0
d) Web 4.5
Answer: c
Explanation: Web 2.0 to describe a perceived, quickly growing set of web based applications. A topic that has experienced extensive coverage involves the relationship between Web 2.0 and service oriented architectures.

38. ________ is the philosophy of encapsulating application logic in services.
a) API
b) SOA
c) Both SOA and API
d) Neither SOA and API
Answer: b
Explanation: SOA is the philosophy of encapsulating application logic in services with a uniformly defined interface and making these publicly available via discovery mechanisms.

39. ________ are a modern interpretation of service oriented architectures used to build distributed software systems.
a) SOA
b) API
c) Microservices
d) Web 2.0
Answer: c
Explanation: Microservices is a modern interpretation of service oriented architectures used to build distributed software systems. Services in the microservice architecture are processes.

40. Services in a microservice architecture are _________ that communicates with each other over the network.
a) Microservices
b) SOA
c) API
d) Processes
Answer: d
Explanation: Services in the microservice architecture are processes that communicate with each other over the network in order to fulfill a goal. These services use technology agnostic protocols.

41. ___________ is a community that is working together to establish an IoT architecture.
a) Eclipse IoT
b) Red Hat
c) Intercloud
d) Bot 2 Bot
Answer: a
Explanation: Eclipse IoT is a community that is working together to establish an IoT architecture based on open source technologies and standards.

42. _________ provides a middleware and application container for IoT gateway.
a) Eclipse Kura
b) Red Hat
c) Intercloud
d) Bot 2 Bot
Answer: a
Explanation: Eclipse Kura provides a general purpose middleware and application container for IoT gateway services and includes everything for the edge, such as an application container or runtime environment.

43. _________ is a modular and cloud based platform.
a) Eclipse Kura
b) Red Hat
c) Intercloud
d) Eclipse Kapua
Answer: d
Explanation: Eclipse Kapua is a module and cloud based platform that provides services required for real time data management and analytics.

44. Kapua also provides a core integration framework.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Kapua also provides a core integration framework and an initial set of core IoT services, including a device registry, and application enablement.

45. _________ an open source stack for gateways and the edge.
a) Eclipse Kapua
b) Red Hat
c) Intercloud
d) Eclipse Kura
Answer: d
Explanation: Eclipse Kura, an open source stack for gateways and edge, and Eclipse Kapua, the first open source IoT cloud platform.

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