1. The main features of the Roman road do not include the following?
a) They were built straight
b) They were strong
c) They excavated soft soil till hard strata was obtained
d) The total thickness was 0.75m to 1.2m
Answer: b
Explanation: The romans built roads by excavating till the hard strata they were much stronger than required for animal drawn carts that time.

2. The tresaguet method of laying roads was developed in the year?
a) 1764
b) 1774
c) 1800
d) 1796
Answer: a
Explanation: The tresaguet method was developed in 1764 AD in France after the fall of Roman Empire, in later years better methods were developed.

3. The method of providing a definite cross slope by varying thickness of foundations under roads was proposed by?
a) Tresauguet
b) Metcalf
c) Telford
d) Macadam
Answer: c
Explanation: Telford insisted to provide a definitely varying cross slope by varying the thickness under the foundation of stones.

4. The cross slopes provided for drainage water under Macadam’s construction road is?
a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 20
c) 1 in 36
d) 1 in 40
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope provided is 1 in 36, it was proposed by Macadam. He also completely changed the construction methods that were used earlier.

5. The broken stones that were used in the construction of roads in macadam’s construction were?
a) 10mm and 20mm
b) 20mm and 40mm
c) 30mm and 50mm
d) 50mm and 100mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The bigger stones that were passing through 100mm sieve were used at the bottom and compacted and the smaller stones that were passing through 50mm were used at the top of the pavement.

6. The Indian Roads Congress was formed in the year?
a) 1928
b) 1934
c) 1929
d) 1930
Answer: b
Explanation: The Indian Roads Congress was formed in the year 1934 after a recommendation from the jayakar committee after a meeting in year 1928 and CRF was formed in 1929.

7. A research organisation that was formed for the research and development organisation works related to roads was?
a) Indian Roads Congress
b) Central Research Institute
c) Central road found
d) NHAI
Answer: b
Explanation: The jayakar committee recommended that a research board should be formed for all research and development works related to roads and it was formed in 1950.

8. The first 20 year development plan is also called as?
a) Nagpur road plan
b) Lucknow road plan
c) Bombay road plan
d) Delhi road plan
Answer: a
Explanation: The First 20 year development plan conference was held in Nagpur, hence it is also called a Nagpur road plan, second was held in Mumbai and third in Lucknow.

9. The east west corridor of the National highway connects which of the following cities?
a) Delhi-Bombay
b) Bombay-Madras
c) Kolkata-Vadodara
d) Porbandar- Silichar
Answer: d
Explanation: The Phase II of NHDP consists of linking the east west corridor from Porbandar in Gujarat to Silichar in Assam.

10. Primary system of roads consists of?
a) National highway
b) Expressway
c) National highway and Expressway
d) State highway
Answer: c
Explanation: The Primary system consists of National Highway and expressway. The secondary system consists of State highway and other Major District Roads.

11. Planning is based on _______________
a) Factual data
b) Analysis
c) Scientific data
d) Factual data and analysis
Answer: d
Explanation: Planning based on factual data and analysis may be considered scientific and sound.

12. The planning survey consists of how many numbers of studies?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: The planning survey consists of the four studies namely
Economic studies
Financial studies
Traffic studies
Engineering studies.

13. The estimates are studied in which type of studies?
a) Economic studies
b) Financial studies
c) Traffic studies
d) Engineering studies
Answer: a
Explanation: The details to be collected during economic studies are useful in estimating the requirements, cost involved in the project and economic justification.

14. The revenue from road transport sector is studied in which type of studies?
a) Economic
b) Financial
c) Traffic
d) Engineering
Answer: b
Explanation: The sources of income, excise duty, registration charges and tax all are studied in financial studies only.

15. The accident cost analysis is estimated by conducting ______________
a) Origin and destination
b) Traffic survey
c) Transportation facilities
d) Geometric design
Answer: b
Explanation: The accident cost analysis, trends in road accidents and facilities all are estimated by conducting traffic survey, origin and destination studies are for trips and geometry for the facility.

16. The topographic survey is conducted to estimate which of the following characteristics?
a) Engineering
b) Traffic
c) Financial
d) Soil
Answer: a
Explanation: The engineering studies are conducted to assess topography, soil, location and classification of existing roads and other developments.

17. The master plan may not be prepared for ______________
a) Village
b) City
c) State
d) Country
Answer: a
Explanation: The master plan is prepared after interpretation of small plans in different phases. It may be prepared for a city, district, state or even country.

18. The determination of optimum length is based on ______________
a) Saturation system
b) Geometric design
c) Type of highway
d) Length of highway
Answer: a
Explanation: The determination of optimum length is based on the saturation system based on U.S system of highway planning.

19. The final step after fixing the optimum length of the road is?
a) Financing
b) Construction
c) Phasing
d) Preparation of master plan
Answer: c
Explanation: The final step after fixing the optimum length is phasing of the road program before the construction, after financing and master plan the construction is under taken.

20. The utility unit as per saturation system for a population of less 1001 to 2000 is?
a) 0.25
b) 0.50
c) 1.00
d) 2.00
Answer: c
Explanation: The utility unit is a factor that is used to decide the priority given to the users for optimum utilization of road and it is 1.00 for a population of 1001-2000, it increases based on the population.

21. The length visible to driver at any instance of time is called ___________
a) Sight distance
b) Visibility limit
c) Head light distance
d) Overtaking sight distance
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the road that is visible to the driver at any time is called sight distance, in night visibility it is headlight sight distance and in zone which it can be overtaken is called overtaking sight distance.

22. The stopping sight distance of a vehicle moving with 45kmph and having a coefficient of friction as 0.4 is?
a) 48m
b) 49m
c) 50m
d) 51m
Answer: d
Explanation: SSD=0.278vt+v2/254f
SSD=0.278*45*2.5+452/(254*0.4)
SSD=51m.

23. The stopping sight distance does not depend on ___________
a) Break reaction time
b) Speed of vehicle
c) Length of vehicle
d) Friction
Answer: c
Explanation: SSD=0.278vt+v2/ (254f)
In this equation t is the reaction time taken by driver for stopping the vehicle, v is the speed of the vehicle and f is the coefficient of friction, so the SSD is independent of the length of the vehicle.

24. The SSD is based on ___________
a) Speed of vehicle
b) PIEV theory
c) Voluntary action of brain
d) Reflex action of brain
Answer: b
Explanation: The SSD is based on PIEV theory, it is the theory that estimates the time taken to perceive and react.

25. The reaction time considered in SSD is ___________
a) 1.5 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 2.5 sec
d) 3 sec
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction time considered in SSD unless and until specified is 2.5 sec; it is based on PIEV theory.

26. The desirable relationship between OSD and length of overtaking zone is ___________
a) Length of overtaking zone = OSD
b) Length of overtaking zone = 2 OSD
c) Length of overtaking zone = 3 OSD
d) Length of overtaking zone = 5 OSD
Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum length of the overtaking zone is 3 times of OSD, but desirable is 5 times of OSD.

27. If the speed of overtaken vehicle is 80Kmph, then the design speed is ___________
a) 80kmph
b) 96kmph
c) 100kmph
d) 106kmph
Answer: c
Explanation: Vb=V-16
V=Vb+16
V=80+16=96Kmph.

28. If the speed of overtaken vehicle is 50kmph then spacing of vehicles is ___________
a) 10m
b) 12m
c) 14m
d) 16m
Answer: d
Explanation: The spacing of vehicles is given by S=0.2Vb+6
S=0.2*50+6
S=16m.

29. The reaction time of a driver assumed in OSD is ___________
a) 1 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 2.5sec
d) 3 sec
Answer: b
Explanation: The reaction time assumed is 2 sec which is less than time taken in SSD because here the driver does not need to perceive and react so this time is less than the time taken in SSD.

30. The height of the driver above the road level is assumed as ___________
a) 1.1m
b) 1.2 m
c) 1.5 m
d) 1.6m
Answer: b
Explanation: The height of the driver assumed is 1.2m which is till the eye level; this is assumed for clear vision in night.

31. The degree if curve is central angle subtended by an arc of length is?
a) 20m
b) 25m
c) 30m
d) 35m
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between degree and radius of circular curve is RDπ/180=30.

32. The ratio between centrifugal force and weight of the vehicle is called ___________
a) Impact factor
b) Impact ratio
c) Centrifugal factor
d) Centrifugal impulse
Answer: a
Explanation: The relationship between centrifugal force and weight of the vehicle is called impact factor or centrifugal ratio.

33. Which of the following is equal to super elevation?
a) Sinθ
b) Cosθ
c) Tanθ
d) Secθ
Answer: c
Explanation: The transverse inclination to the pavement surface is called as super elevation or cant banking which is equal to tanθ.

34. If the radius of a horizontal curve is 120m, then calculate the safe allowable speed.
a) 50kmph
b) 60kmph
c) 70kmph
d) 80kmph
Answer: b
Explanation: The safe allowable speed is Va = √(27.94R)
Va = √(27.94*120)
Va = 60kmph.

35. If the super elevation of the highway provided is zero, then the design speed of highway having a curve of 200m and coefficient of friction 0.10 is?
a) 40kmph
b) 50kmph
c) 55kmph
d) 60kmph
Answer: b
Explanation: The design velocity is given by V=√127Rf
V=√127×200×0.1
V=50Kmph.

36. The design speed on a highway is 60kmph; calculate the super elevation if radius of curve is 150m and coefficient of friction is 0.15.
a) 0.07
b) 0.038
c) 0.04
d) 0.15
Answer: b
Explanation: e+f=v2/127R
e+f=3600/(127*150)
e+f=0.188
e=0.188-0.15
e=0.038.

37. The superelevation is calculated for ___________
a) 75% of design speed including friction
b) 80% of design speed neglecting friction
c) 75% of design speed neglecting friction
d) 80% of design speed including friction
Answer: c
Explanation: The super elevation is calculated for 75% of design speed neglecting the friction on the pavement.

38. If the superelevation is 0.07 and the width of the pavement is 7m then the raise of the outer edge with respect to the inner edge is ___________
a) 0.47m
b) 0.48m
c) 0.49m
d) 0.50m
Answer: c
Explanation: The raise of outer edge is given by
E=Be,
E=7*0.07=0.49m

39. The ruling minimum radius in the curve is given by ___________
a) R=V2/127(e+f)
b) R=V’2/127 (e+f)
c) R=127(e+f)
d) R=127/(e+f)
Answer: b
Explanation: The ruling minimum radius is calculated by using the minimum design speed provided by IRC.

40. The extra widening is the sum of ___________
a) Mechanical widening and psychological widening
b) Two times of mechanical widening
c) Two times of psychological widening
d) Mechanical widening – physical widening
Answer: a
Explanation: The extra widening is the sum of mechanical widening and physiological widening, the mechanical widening is done for the safety of vehicles and psychological widening is done for the comfort of passengers.

41. The vertical alignment of a highway includes?
a) Sight distance and traffic intersection
b) Widening of pavements
c) Design of valley curves and gradients
d) Highway lighting
Answer: c
Explanation: The design of valley curves, summit curves and gradient are included in the vertical alignment of highway.

42. The ruling gradient required for plain or rolling terrain is ___________
a) 1 in 15
b) 1 in 20
c) 1 in 30
d) 1 in 40
Answer: c
Explanation: The ruling gradient value required for plain and rolling terrain type of road is 1 in 30 or 3.3%.

43. The maximum grade compensation for a curve of radius 75m is?
a) 1%
b) 1.4%
c) 1.5%
d) 1.6%
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum grade compensation is 75/R = 75/75 = 1%.

44. The vertical alignment does not influence?
a) Sight distance
b) Vehicle operation cost
c) Accidents
d) Vehicle speed
Answer: c
Explanation: The vertical alignment influences sight distance, vehicle operation cost, vehicle speed and comfort while travelling at high speed.

45. The angle which is measured at the change of direction of two gradients is called ___________
a) Standard angle
b) Subtended angle
c) Deviation angle
d) Setback angle
Answer: c
Explanation: The angle which denotes the direction of change of two gradients angle is called as deviation angle.

46. The length of the summit curve is based on ___________
a) Comfort
b) Sight distance
c) Convexity
d) Deviation angle
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of summit curve is based on stopping sight distance, it is further divided into two cases when L>SSD and L<SSD.

47. The value of “a” in the equation y=ax2 used in the summit curve is ___________
a) N/2L
b) N/3L
c) N/4L
d) N/5L
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of the constant “a” is N/2L where N is the deviation angle and L is the length of the curve.

48. If the length of the summit curve having SSD as 150m and deviation angle is 1 in 30 is ___________
a) 50m
b) 100m
c) 150m
d) 170m
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the summit curve is given by
L=NS2/4.4
L=1*150*150/ (4.4*30)
L=170m.

49. If the deviation angle of the curve is 1/200 and the design speed is 80kmph then calculate the total length of the valley curve for comfort condition.
a) 18.22
b) 18.52
c) 19.22m
d) 19.52m
Answer: c
Explanation: The total length of the curve for comfort condition is 0.38(NV3)1/2
=0.38(1/200*803)0.5
=19.22m.

50. The equation for L<OSD for summit curve is given by ___________
a) NS/8H
b) NS2/8H
c) NS2/10H
d) NS2/12H
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation of summit curve for L< OSD or L<ISD is given by NS2/8H and the height of the eye of driver is generally assumed as 1.2m

1. The branch of engineering that deals with the improvement of traffic performance, traffic studies and traffic network is called ___________
a) Highway engineering
b) Railway engineering
c) Traffic engineering
d) Traffic management
Answer: c
Explanation: The branch of engineering that deals with improvement of traffic performance, traffic studies and traffic network are called as traffic engineering, it also includes geometric design and other specifications.

2. In India for design of roads pedestrian is considered as ___________
a) Element of traffic
b) Intruder in traffic
c) Essential part of traffic
d) Controller of traffic
Answer: b
Explanation: In India unfortunately pedestrian is considered as an intruder in traffic and not given much importance as a result most of the victims are pedestrians only.

3. The basic objective of traffic engineering is to achieve ___________
a) Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with least priority given to accidents
b) Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with fewer accidents
c) Efficient and rapid flow of traffic
d) Rapid flow of traffic
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic objective of traffic engineering is to achieve efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with fewer accidents and pedestrians are also given importance.

4. The study of traffic engineering is divided into how many major categories?
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Eight
Answer: c
Explanation: The study of traffic engineering is divided into 7 major categories they are traffic characteristics, traffic studies and analysis, planning and analysis, geometric design, traffic operation, road safety and administration.

5. The “3-Es” of traffic engineering stand for?
a) Enforcement, empowerment and eradication
b) Engineering, education and expulsion
c) Engineering, education and enforcement
d) Engineering, education and enthusiasm
Answer: c
Explanation: The “3-Es” in traffic engineering represent Engineering, education and enforcement.

6. In traffic engineering, the elements are classified into how many categories?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: In traffic engineering, the elements are classified into two categories they are human and machine.

7. Which of the following roads are congested during peak hours?
a) Rural roads
b) Urban roads
c) Highways
d) Express ways
Answer: b
Explanation: The urban roads mostly in cities and towns are congested during morning and evening times due to the school, college and office timings.

8. The traffic survey is conducted during ___________
a) Harvest season
b) Harvest and lean season
c) Rainy season
d) Summer season
Answer: b
Explanation: Traffic surveys are conducted during harvest and lean season because they are more accurate and easy to conduct.

9. Design of road intersections is a part of ___________
a) Highway engineering
b) Railway engineering
c) Traffic engineering
d) Harbour engineering
Answer: c
Explanation: Design of road intersections is a part of highway engineering in which types of intersections, the advantages and disadvantages are studied.

10. What is the most important objective of traffic engineering?
a) To consider pedestrians as obstruction
b) To reduce the accidents
c) To increase the traffic
d) To provide a high speed road without any other priority
Answer: b
Explanation: The most important objective is to reduce accidents with considerable speed and the pedestrian should be considered as an element not obstruction.

11. What is the first stage in traffic engineering studies?
a) Traffic volume studies
b) Spot speed studies
c) Speed and delay studies
d) Origin and destination studies
Answer: a
Explanation: The first step in traffic engineering studies is traffic volume studies, which are carried out to understand the traffic characteristics.

12. The traffic volume is usually expressed in __________
a) LMV
b) PCU
c) LCV
d) HCV
Answer: b
Explanation: In India the traffic is heterogeneous so there are many types of vehicles, so every vehicle is expressed with the same unit PCU which means passenger car unit.

13. The number of vehicles that pass through a transverse line of road at a given time in a specified direction is called __________
a) Traffic studies
b) Traffic flow
c) Traffic origin
d) Traffic destination
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of vehicles that pass through a transverse line of road at a given time in a specified direction is called as traffic flow or traffic volume expressed in PCU.

14. HCV stands for __________
a) Heavy commercial vehicle
b) Heavy cash vehicle
c) Heavy consolidated vehicle
d) Hard commercial vehicle
Answer: a
Explanation: HCV stands for heavy commercial vehicle which includes trucks and buses.

15. The traffic flow is __________
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Static and dynamic
d) May be static or dynamic
Answer: b
Explanation: The traffic flow on the roads is dynamic it changes with year, month and season. It also depends on time daily.

16. What is the first objective of traffic volume studies?
a) To decide priority for improvement of roads
b) For geometric design
c) For computing roadway capacity
d) To plan traffic operation
Answer: a
Explanation: The first objective of the traffic volume studies is to decide priority for improvement of roads like relaying of roads, widening of roads and other works.

17. Pedestrian data is used for planning __________
a) Highway
b) Sidewalks and cross-walks
c) Kerb
d) Camber
Answer: b
Explanation: The pedestrian data is used for planning of sidewalks, cross walks, subways and foot-over bridges.

18. Which of the following method is more accurate for traffic analysis?
a) Manual count
b) Automatic count
c) Average of manual and automatic
d) Past records
Answer: b
Explanation: The automatic count is more accurate as it is done for 24 hours by machine; it is more reliable than manual counting.

19. The outgoing and incoming traffic are counted at __________
a) Traffic intersections
b) Highway
c) Urban roads
d) Traffic symbols
Answer: a
Explanation: The outgoing and incoming traffic are usually counted at traffic intersections as they are convenient to count.

20. The traffic that is prepared based on 365 days of the year is called?
a) Yearly traffic
b) Annual average daily traffic
c) Average daily traffic
d) Average yearly traffic
Answer: b
Explanation: The traffic that is prepared based on 365 days of the year is called as AADT or annual average daily traffic.

21. The weaving manoeuvres is a type of __________
a) Merging
b) Diverging
c) Intersection
d) Crossing
Answer: d
Explanation: The weaving manoeuvre is a type of crossing manoeuvre as it involves crossing of traffic.

22. Which of the following does not affect traffic flow?
a) Vehicles travelling at speed
b) Length of the vehicle
c) Weather conditions
d) Geometric design
Answer: b
Explanation: Traffic flow does not depend on the length of the vehicle, as it is not related to the flow.

23. The speed at which the value of time headway is lowest represents the __________
a) Optimum speed
b) Maximum speed
c) Maximum headway
d) Minimum headway
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed at which the value of time headway is lowest represents the optimum speed.

24. In countries like USA and UAE, which of the regulation is followed?
a) Keep to left
b) Keep to right
c) Keep to middle
d) Follow intersection
Answer: b
Explanation: In countries like US and UAE, keep to right regulation is followed as they follow the left hand drive.

25. When the gap of the vehicle changes to a smaller lane then it is called __________
a) Lane change
b) Forced lane change
c) Simultaneous lane change
d) Voluntary lane change
Answer: b
Explanation: The gap of the vehicle changes to a smaller lane then it is called as forced lane change, as it forces a driver to shift to the smaller lane.

26. The vehicles per unit length at any instant of time is called as __________
a) Density
b) Jam density
c) Maximum density
d) Traffic flow
Answer: a
Explanation: At any instant of time, the vehicles per unit length are called as density, if traffic speed is zero then it is called jam density.

27. The distance between the two consecutive vehicles is called __________
a) Space headway
b) Time headway
c) Jam density
d) Traffic flow
Answer: a
Explanation: The distance between the two consecutive vehicles is called as space headway, and it is measured from head to head of the vehicle.

28. The maximum jam density occurs at __________
a) Zero speed
b) 15th percentile speed
c) 30th percentile speed
d) 98th percentile speed
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum jam density occurs at zero speed, which indicates that there is no movement of vehicles and the density is maximum.

29. If the space headway is 7m, then the jam density in vehicle/km is __________
a) 142
b) 144
c) 145
d) 146
Answer: a
Explanation: Ki=1000/7
Ki=142 vehicles/km.

30. The minimum space headway increases with __________
a) Increase in length of vehicle
b) Increase in width of vehicle
c) Increase in weight of vehicle
d) Increase in width of pavement
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum space headway increases with the length of the vehicle, if the length is more then the headway will be more.

31. Which of the following is not an intersection at grade?
a) Un-channelized
b) Channelized
c) Rotary
d) Different level intersections
Answer: d
Explanation: The intersection at grade include un channelized, channelized and rotary intersections, the different level intersections are used for over pass and under pass.

32. An intersection that is provided for different levels of road is called __________
a) Intersection at grade
b) Grade separated intersections
c) Channelized intersection
d) Rotary intersection
Answer: b
Explanation: An intersection that is provided for different levels of road is called grade separated intersection, thus eliminating the crossing manoeuvre.

33. If the velocity of a vehicle is 60kmph and the other vehicle velocity is 20kmph, then the relative velocity is?
a) 80kmph
b) 40kmph
c) 20kmph
d) 60kmph
Answer: b
Explanation: The relative velocity is the difference of the velocities moving in same direction and sum of the velocities of vehicle moving in opposite direction.

34. If the angle of merging is low, then the relative speed will be __________
a) Low
b) High
c) Medium
d) Depends on width of pavement
Answer: a
Explanation: If the angle of merging is small, then the relative velocity will be low and impact will be low.

35. If an additional pavement is provided for lane change, then that intersection is called __________
a) Tee intersection
b) Rotary intersection
c) Flared intersection
d) Skewed intersection
Answer: c
Explanation: If an additional pavement is provided for lane change, then that intersection is called as flared intersection, it is provided in very crowded areas.

36. Which of the following is not a requirement for the intersection at grade?
a) Area of conflict should be large
b) Adequate visibility
c) Avoiding sudden change of path
d) Sufficient radius should be provided
Answer: a
Explanation: The intersection at grade requirements do not include large conflict area, it says the area of conflict should be as less as possible.

37. The most complex type of intersections for traffic operation is __________
a) Un-channelized
b) Channelized
c) Rotary
d) Grade separated
Answer: a
Explanation: The channelized intersections are the most complex type of intersections for traffic operation, but they are very easy to construct.

38. The procedure of adopting medians and traffic island in an un-channelized intersection is called __________
a) Dividing
b) Crossing
c) Channelizing
d) Designing
Answer: c
Explanation: The procedure of adopting medians and traffic island in an un-channelized intersection is called as channelizing of the intersection.

39. In India the design velocity at rotary is considered as __________
a) 30kmph
b) 40kmph
c) 50kmph
d) 60kmph
Answer: b
Explanation: In India, usually there is no limit to approach the rotary but for safety it is considered as 40kmph for design purposes.

40. If the coefficient of friction is 0.43, and the design velocity is 40kmph then the radius of curve is?
a) 20m
b) 25m
c) 28m
d) 30m
Answer: d
Explanation: The radius of curve is given by
R=V2/127f
R=40*40/ (127*0.43)
R=30m.

41. What is the first phase of traffic regulation?
a) Driver controls
b) Vehicle controls
c) Traffic flow regulations
d) General controls
Answer: a
Explanation: The first phase of traffic regulation is driver controls followed by vehicle control, traffic flow regulation and general control.

42. The various regulations imposed through the traffic control devices do not include __________
a) Clear visibility
b) Easy recognition
c) Sufficient time for driver
d) Traffic population
Answer: d
Explanation: The various regulations imposed through the traffic control devices do not include as they are not related to control of traffic.

43. The minimum age for attaining a license for a geared vehicle is?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 21 years
Answer: b
Explanation: Then minimum age for driving a non-geared vehicle is 16 years, for geared vehicle it is 18 years and for transport vehicle it is 21 years.

44. The motor vehicle act was revised in __________
a) 1939
b) 1988
c) 1989
d) 1987
Answer: b
Explanation: The motor vehicle act was passed in 1939, and it was revised in 1988.

45. Traffic symbols are classified into how many categories?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The traffic symbols are classified into three types they are informatory, cautionary and mandatory.

46. The symbol when violated which may lead to offense is?
a) Cautionary
b) Mandatory
c) Informatary
d) Both informatory and cautionary
Answer: b
Explanation: Mandatory symbol is a symbol which has to be followed at all times, if violated except for special cases, they may attract a penalty.

47. Which of the following is a disadvantage in one way traffic?
a) Increase in average travel speed
b) More effective coordination of signal system
c) More stream lined movement of vehicles
d) More chances of overtaking
Answer: d
Explanation: In one way traffic there are more chances of overtaking as there is traffic only in one direction, there is a chance of overtaking.

48. The total conflict points at a junction on both two way roads are?
a) One
b) Four
c) five
d) six
Answer: d
Explanation: The total number of conflict points is the sum of major and minor conflict points, major conflict points are 4 and minor conflict points are 2, so total conflict points are six.

49. The maximum number of conflict points is formed in __________
a) One way regulation on one road
b) One way regulation on two roads
c) Two way regulation on one road
d) Two way regulation on both roads
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum number of conflict points is formed in two ways regulation on both roads is 24.

50. The specifications for road signs are specified by __________
a) IRC 6
b) IRC 21
c) IRC 67
d) IRC 97
Answer: c
Explanation: The specifications for road signs are specified by IRC 67-2010.

1. The surface of the highway pavement should be designed to allow __________
a) High rolling resistance
b) Low rolling resistance
c) No rolling resistance
d) Very high rolling resistance
Answer: b
Explanation: The surface of highway pavement should be designed to allow no rolling resistance for safety purposes.

2. The soil becomes weak in __________
a) Summer
b) Winter
c) Rainy season
d) Spring season
Answer: c
Explanation: The soil becomes weak in rainy season due to the absorption of water in the soil.

3. The pavement layer is considered superior if it distributes load like a __________
a) Point load
b) Uniformly distributed load
c) Uniformly varying load
d) Triangular load
Answer: a
Explanation: The pavement layer is considered most superior if it distributes the load equally to all parts of pavement.

4. Which of the following pavement has greater life?
a) Bituminous pavements
b) Cement concrete pavements
c) Gravel roads
d) Earth roads
Answer: b
Explanation: The cement concrete roads have a greater life than remaining all pavements which may last even up to 100 years.

5. Which of the following requirement is given most importance in highway design?
a) Structural
b) Functional
c) Seasonal
d) Maintenance
Answer: a
Explanation: The structural design like highway speed, geometric design is given the most importance in design.

6. The surface of the pavement should be __________
a) Smooth
b) Rough
c) Sufficient enough to resist skid
d) Very rough
Answer: c
Explanation: The surface of the pavement should be sufficient enough to resist the skid of vehicles by using friction.

7. Rough and uneven roads increase __________
a) Vehicle cost
b) Petrol cost
c) Accident cost
d) Vehicle operation cost
Answer: d
Explanation: Roughness and uneven roads will increase the cost of vehicle operation and maintenance of vehicle cost.

8. The drainage layer is __________
a) Surface course
b) Sub base
c) Base
d) Sub grade
Answer: b
Explanation: The drainage layer is the sub base layer that is used to collect the water from pavement surfaces to send to ground water.

9. The maximum stress sustained by concrete pavements in kg/cm2 is __________
a) 40
b) 45
c) 50
d) 55
Answer: b
Explanation: The concrete pavements are designed to sustain a stress of 45Kg/cm2 which is the maximum limit.

10. The ICPB type of pavement uses __________
a) Concrete paver blocks
b) Fly ash
c) GGBS
d) RMC
Answer: a
Explanation: The ICPB uses mostly interlocking concrete paver blocks for the construction of pavements.

11. The ICPB may be used in __________
a) Water logged areas
b) Parks
c) Footpaths
d) Highways
Answer: a
Explanation: The inter locking concrete paver blocks may be used in water logged areas to absorb the water and send it to the ground water.

12. The design life of flexible pavement is __________
a) 12
b) 10
c) 8
d) 15
Answer: d
Explanation: The design life of flexible pavement is considered as 15 years, it may last even further if properly maintained.

13. The design period of cement concrete road is taken as __________
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
Answer: c
Explanation: The design period of cement roads is usually taken as 30 years but they can even last longer if properly maintained and designed.

14. In India the flexible pavement is designed as per __________
a) MSA
b) KSA
c) CSA
d) FSA
Answer: a
Explanation: The flexible pavements are designed as per IRC 37 which uses MSA to specify the unit of the vehicles.

15. The maximum length of vehicle that can be used on Indian roads is __________
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum length of a vehicle in India is restricted as per the rotary design of the highway which is maximum 12m.

16. The number of factors considered for flexible pavement is ______________
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Five
Answer: d
Explanation: The design factors that are considered are wheel load, soil, climate, pavement layer, drainage.

17. The contact pressure is given by _____________
a) Pa
b) a/P
c) P/A
d) PA
Answer: c
Explanation: The contact pressure is given by P/A, where P is wheel load and A is area of contact.

18. The distribution of circular load was obtained by _____________
a) Wester guard
b) Boussinesq
c) McAdam
d) Taylor
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress distribution for the circular load was obtained by Boussinesq, in which he assumed homegenous and elastic material.

19. What is the last step in the design of flexible pavement?
a) Design of sub grade
b) Design of base
c) Design of mix
d) Design of the pavement thickness
Answer: d
Explanation: The last step in the design of the pavement is design of pavement thickness, after design of mix, design of sub grade, sub base and base.

20. If one or more wheels act as a single load then it is called as _____________
a) EASEL
b) EQWL
c) EQML
d) EQVL
Answer: a
Explanation: If one or more wheels act as a single load then it is called as an equivalent single wheel load.

21. The pressure in pneumatic tyres should not exceed _____________
a) 10Kg/cm2
b) 9.5Kg/cm2
c) 9Kg/cm2
d) 8Kg/cm2
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum tyre pressure in pneumatic tyre is 9.5kg/cm2.

22. The revised legal load of HCV in India in tonnes is _____________
a) 8.17
b) 9.17
c) 10.2
d) 11.2
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum legal load in India is considered after revision as 10.2 tonnes, before it was 8.17 tonnes only.

23. The legal load considered in the benklemen beam method is _____________
a) 8.17
b) 9.17
c) 10.2
d) 11.2
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum legal load in benklemen beam method is considered as 8.17 tonnes or 8170 kg.

24.The load dispersion is assumed at an angle of _____________
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 75°
d) 90°
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of the dispersion is assumed as 45° in the ESWL for the ease of construction and calculation.

25. The equivalent wheel load factors are calculated by using _____________
a) First power law
b) Second power law
c) Third power law
d) Fourth power law
Answer: d
Explanation: The load factor follows the fourth power law for the calculation of VDF and load factor.

26. The most superior material is used in _____________
a) base
b) sub base
c) surface
d) soil
Answer: c
Explanation: The most superior material is used in the surface layer of pavement as it is the layer that is exposed to more number of stresses.

27. The soil subgrade suitable for pavement is _____________
a) Gravel
b) Sand
c) Black cotton soil
d) Red soil
Answer: a
Explanation: The soil sub grade most suitable for pavement layer is gravel as it is very strong rock, black cotton is not suitable for pavement but suitable for crops, sand has a danger of liquefaction and red soil is not so advisable.

28. The drainage layer is _____________
a) Sub grade
b) Sub base
c) Base
d) Surface
Answer: b
Explanation: The drainage layer of the pavement is granular sub base course which collects water from pavement surfaces.

29. What is the minimum thickness of compacted sub grade?
a) 300 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 700 mm
d) 900 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum thickness of sub grade required is 300mm and in highways it is 500 mm as they are provided with the maximum best facilities.

30. What is the most common test used in evaluating soil strength?
a) CBR
b) DCP
c) Triaxial
d) Plate bearing test
Answer: a
Explanation: All the tests are performed but the most commonly used one is CBR, which is called as California bearing test, performed in India.

31. The CBR standard penetration is __________
a) 2.5 mm
b) 5.0 mm
c) 7.5 mm
d) 25mm
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard penetration value of the CBR value is 2.5mm if 5 mm value is greater then the penetration test is repeated again.

32. What is the minimum thickness of seal coat?
a) 20mm
b) 25mm
c) 30.m
d) 35mm
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum thickness of the seal coat required is 20mm for bitumen pavement, seal coat is a layer above the flexible pavement surface.

33. The impact value of aggregate used in the pavement is __________
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
Answer: a
Explanation: The aggregate impact value should not be more than 30% for aggregate used in bitumen if it is less than 30 the aggregate may be replaced.

34. The abrasion value of the aggregate in pavement should be less than __________
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
Answer: b
Explanation: The abrasion value of aggregate should not be more than 40% for the aggregate tested by Los Angeles abrasion test, if it is more than 40, then it may be rejected.

35. The specifications for highway are prepared by __________
a) IRC
b) MORTH
c) BIS
d) NHAI
Answer: b
Explanation: The specifications for the highway are prepared by MORTH, which is the Ministry of Road Transport and Highway.

36. The PQC denotes __________
a) Paved quality cement
b) Paved quality concrete
c) Pavement quality concrete
d) Paved quantity cement
Answer: c
Explanation: The PQC denotes the pavement quality concrete which is used in rigid pavement.

37. The layer not required in cement road is __________
a) Sub grade
b) Sub base
c) Base
d) Surface
Answer: c
Explanation: The base course may be required but in cement road it is not mandatory, it is better if it is provided.

38. The cement slab is provided with __________
a) Long joints
b) Longitudinal joints
c) Transverse joints
d) Both Longitudinal and transverse joints.
Answer: d
Explanation: A cement slab is provided with both the longitudinal and transverse joints in both the direction as a slab is not laid at a stretch, it may be useful for identification.

39. The soil sub grade design is done by __________
a) Plate bearing test
b) CBR
c) Plate load test
d) Shear test
Answer: a
Explanation: The most commonly used test is plate bearing test which was developed by Westergard.

40. Failure in rigid pavement occurs due to __________
a) More compaction
b) Less compaction
c) More load
d) Less load
Answer: b
Explanation: The greater compaction effort does not lead to any loss but if the compaction is less then there may be a failure.

41. What is the size of particles preferred in GSB layer of pavement?
a) 0.075 mm
b) 0.150 mm
c) 0.300 mm
d) 0.600 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: The size of aggregate used in pavement GSB layer should be 0.075mm and have 5% fines.

42. What is the failure in GSB layer of rigid pavement?
a) Pumping
b) Blowing
c) Pumping and blowing
d) Fatigue
Answer: c
Explanation: The most commonly found failure in the GSB layer is pumping and blowing, these failure mainly take place due to the water.

43. The drainage layer of pavement can __________
a) Increase the pavement life
b) Decrease the pavement life
c) Increase the pavement thickness
d) Decrease the pavement thickness
Answer: a
Explanation: The pavement thickness is constant and does not depend on granular sub base layer and if maintained properly it can increase the life span.

44. The base course uses __________
a) RCC
b) Wet lean concrete
c) Dry lean concrete
d) Heavy weight concrete
Answer: c
Explanation: The most commonly used concrete for base is high quality concrete of lean concrete.

45. The spacing between construction joints in rigid pavement is?
a) 4.5 m
b) 5.0 m
c) 5.5 m
d) 6.0 m
Answer: b
Explanation: The spacing between construction joints in rigid pavement is formed for expansion and contraction of pavement which is 5.0 m.

46. Based on topography and climate of the location which factor is estimated?
a) Temperature
b) Pavement quality
c) Pavement thickness
d) Pavement design method
Answer: b
Explanation: The thickness is the most important factor that is designed as per requirement, pavement quality and pavement method are indirectly dependent on pavement design.

47. The warping stress is dependent on __________
a) Length of slab
b) length and width of slab
c) Thickness of slab
d) Water content in slab
Answer: b
Explanation: The warping stress is due to the variation in the temperature of the pavement depends on length and width.

48. The first thickness assumed in pavement is called __________
a) IRC thickness
b) MORTH thickness
c) Trial thickness
d) Estimated thickness
Answer: c
Explanation: The first thickness is assumed as a trail thickness, it may be later revised after design.

49. The factor of safety is the stress caused at __________
a) Mid day
b) Summer
c) Winter
d) Rainy
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress caused is measured at the mid day due to wheel load and temperature stress.

50. What is the minimum factor of safety for rigid pavement?
a) 1
b) 1.1
c) 1.5
d) 1.7
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum factor of safety is 1.1 and if it doesn’t satisfy then the pavement thickness is revised.

51. The Westergaard equation was modified by __________
a) Bradbury
b) Burnister
c) Teller and Sutherland
d) Telford
Answer: c
Explanation: The Westergaard analysis gave low stress results so it was modified by Teller and Sutherland at edge.

52. If the flexural strength of pavement is 45 and it’s stress is 40 then factor of safety is __________
a) 1
b) 1.1
c) 1.15
d) 1.2
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of the flexural strength to total flexural stress is called as factor of safety.

53. The pavement thickness is usually assumed in rigid pavement as __________
a) 20 cm
b) 25 cm
c) 30 cm
d) 35 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: The trail thickness usually assumed in rigid pavement is 25 cm, if it doesn’t satisfy then the pavement thickness is revised.

54. The temperature differential in coastal regions in India for a thickness of 25 cm is __________
a) 15
b) 16.2
c) 17
d) 18
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature differential in coastal regions in India is assumed as 16.2 degrees centigrade as recommended by IRC.

55. What is the minimum quality of thickness in the low volume roads?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 35
Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum grade required is M 40 but for low volume roads M 30 roads can be used.

56. The cement concrete roads are designed with __________
a) Plain concrete
b) RCC
c) ICPB
d) Bitumen
Answer: a
Explanation: The cement slab is provided with dowel bars but it’s not considered as reinforced concrete.

57. Boussinesq assumed soil as _____________
a) Homogeneous
b) Heterogeneous
c) Rigid
d) Flexible
Answer: a
Explanation: The assumption by Boussinesq was the soil is homogeneous, elastic and isotropic under a circular load.

58. Two elastic theory was developed by _____________
a) Boussinesq
b) Westergard
c) Burnister
d) McAdam
Answer: c
Explanation: The two elastic theory was developed by Burnister after Boussinesq developed the equation for evaluation of stress.

59. Boussinesq assumed the load as a _____________
a) Point load
b) UDL
c) UVL
d) Triangular load
Answer: a
Explanation: Boussinesq assumed the load as a single point load acting at a depth z and radius r.

60. The ratio of z/a=0 represent the stress at _____________
a) Top surface
b) Bottom surface
c) Middle
d) Maximum stress point
Answer: a
Explanation: The depth is zero, so the stress represented is at the surface of the pavement.

61. The z is a function of _____________
a) P, a
b) P, z
c) P, a, z
d) P only
Answer: c
Explanation: The depth is a function of the stress, depth and radius of the load acting on the point.

62. The ratio of the radius r/a=0 represents _____________
a) Center of chart
b) Center of load
c) Center of stress
d) Center of the pavement
Answer: a
Explanation: The radius is zero so it is possible only in a chart, which represents a point in the center of the chart.

63. The Poisson’s ratio of soil is assumed as _____________
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
Answer: a
Explanation: The Poisson’s ratio for a homogeneous soil is assumed as 0.5.

64. At surface the value of constant F is _____________
a) 1
b) 1.18
c) 1.5
d) 2
Answer: c
Explanation: The value of the constant F in finding out the deflection is 1.5.

65. The unit of deflection is measured in _____________
a) mm
b) N mm
c) joule
d) watt
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection is measured in mm, cm or m depending on the requirement of the pavement.

66. The constant in rigid pavement design is _____________
a) 1.5
b) 1.18
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: b
Explanation: The constant value of the pavement in rigid pavement design is assumed as 1.18.

1. What is the first principle of mechanical soil stabilisation?
a) Proportioning
b) Compaction
c) Consolidation
d) Shear
Answer: a
Explanation: The first principle of mechanical stabilised soil is proportioning and then compaction.

2. The non desirable property of soil is __________
a) Shear
b) Swelling
c) Incompressibility
d) Stability
Answer: b
Explanation: Swelling is not such a desirable property in soil because change in volume may cause great loss to soil.

3. The maximum dry density of the soil can be achievement by __________
a) Compaction
b) Consolidation
c) Removal of voids
d) Removal of rocks
Answer: a
Explanation: The best method to achieve maximum dry density is by compaction of soil, as it is the easy, best and fast method.

4. The compaction of granular material is __________
a) Very easy
b) Easy
c) Difficult
d) Very difficult
Answer: d
Explanation: The compaction of granular material is a very difficult task as it needs a lot of effort.

5. If the grains in the aggregate lose contact, they __________
a) Melt
b) Float
c) Freeze
d) Sieze
Answer: b
Explanation: When granular material is separated, then the grains in the soil mostly float and in cold region they freeze.

6. The n in the gradation formula is called __________
a) Gradation value
b) Gradation index
c) Gradation factor
d) Gradation distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The n in gradation formula is called as the gradation index of the soil, which is used to denote the property of a particular soil.

7. The value of the maximum gradation index lies between?
a) 0.5
b) 0.3
c) 0.2
d) 0.1
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum gradation index is 0.5 it depends on the coarseness of aggregate, for less coarse aggregate it may be 0.1 to 0.2.

8. The mechanical stabilised soil does not depend on __________
a) Gradation
b) Salts
c) Compaction
d) Consolidation
Answer: d
Explanation: The mechanical stabilisation of soil doesn’t depend on consolidation as it is a long process.

9. The proportioning method not in use is __________
a) Rothfutch
b) Triangular
c) Lab tests
d) CBR method
Answer: d
Explanation: The CBR method is a method of designing of flexible pavement, the remaining are proportioning methods.

10. The percentage of chemical added in soil by weight is?
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 0.5
d) 0.2
Answer: c
Explanation: The usual volume of chemical added in the soil is 0.5% of the weight of soil if it is added more then the soil may lose it’s strength.

11. In soil cement stabilisation the bond is imparted between cement and __________
a) Water
b) Fine aggregate
c) Coarse aggregate
d) Soil
Answer: d
Explanation: In the soil cement stabilisation, the bond is imparted between hydrated cement and compacted soil.

12. Making of solid into fine powder is called __________
a) Powdering
b) Crushing
c) Pulverising
d) Refining
Answer: c
Explanation: The crushing of the solid into the fine powder is called as pulverising, mostly pulverised materials are used.

13. The chemical that can harm the hydrated cement is __________
a) Calcium sulphate
b) Calcium di sulphate
c) Calcium tri sulphate
d) Magnesium sulphate
Answer: d
Explanation: The magnesium sulphate is a very strong chemical and it may even effect the hydrated cement reducing its strength.

14. The increase of cement causes __________
a) Increase in weight
b) Increase in void ratio
c) Increase in strength
d) Increase in porosity
Answer: c
Explanation: The increase in cement causes the increase in strength and durability, and of water is added then it’s strength decreases.

15. Presence of unpulverised dry lumps reduce the __________
a) Strength
b) Durability
c) Strength and durability
d) Water content
Answer: c
Explanation: The strength and durability of the soil are badly affected by the unpulverised powder.

16. If compaction efforts increase, then __________
a) Dry density increase
b) Dry density decrease
c) Wet density increase
d) Wet density decrease
Answer: a
Explanation: If compaction efforts increase, then dry density increases and wet density doesn’t change.

17. The high temperature in soil cement stabilisation accelerates __________
a) Strength
b) Dry density
c) Shear
d) Compaction
Answer: a
Explanation: The higher temperature leads to rapid drying of the sample, which leads to the gain in strength.

18. The additive not used in soil cement stabilisation is?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Calcium chloride
d) Sugar
Answer: d
Explanation: Sugar is a retarder and it should not be used in soil cement stabilisation, whereas other chemicals like calcium chloride and sodium carbonate can be used.

19. The BIS for soil cement stabilisation is based on __________
a) British
b) ASTM
c) PCA
d) British and ASTM
Answer: d
Explanation: The BIS method is based on both British and ASTM for the soil cement stabilisation.

20. What is the soil samples are prepared in a mould of diameter?
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: The samples are tested in a sample of diameter 5 cm and height 10 cm, by compacting them into the mould.

21. The graph between cement content and compressive strength is plotted for how many days of curing?
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 9 days
Answer: c
Explanation: The graph is plotted for cement content and compressive strength for a curing period of 7 days.

22. What is the maximum brushing loss for A6 A7 soil type?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 10
Answer: c
Explanation: The PCA recommends a loss of not more than 7% for soil type of A6 and A7, after 12 cycles of freeze and thaw.

23. The plasticity index of soil cement base course should be less than __________
a) 28
b) 18
c) 38
d) 48
Answer: b
Explanation: From practical considerations, the results obtained tell that the plasticity index should be less than 18.

24. How many methods are available for the construction of a soil cement base course?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: The two available methods are mix in place method, plant mix method.

25. The degree of pulverisation is checked by sieve of __________
a) 10 mm
b) 6.25 mm
c) 4.75 mm
d) 2.36 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of pulverisation is checked by the sieve passing through 4.75 mm and it should exceed 50%.

26. What is the basic principle of bituminous stabilisation?
a) Water proofing
b) Cohesion
c) Water proofing with cohesion
d) Adhesion
Answer: c
Explanation: The principle of the bituminous stabilisation mix is to impart strength by cohesion and water proofing.

27. Which is the most commonly used bitumen?
a) Tar
b) VG 70
c) Cutbacks
d) VG 30
Answer: c
Explanation: The most commonly used bitumen is cutback and emulsion, depending on the requirements.

28. The bituminous layer can be used in which layer of the pavement in low rainfall areas?
a) Sub grade
b) Sub base
c) Base
d) Surface
Answer: d
Explanation: The bituminous stabilisation road can be used in the sub base, base and even surface course if there is low rainfall.

29. The soil not preferred in bituminous mix is __________
a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Gravel
d) Granite
Answer: b
Explanation: All the soils other than clay are having high permeability, high clay content is not desirable as it expands.

30. The increase in strength in soil may be seen at an age of __________
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 28 days
d) 56 days
Answer: c
Explanation: The strength of the soil increases up to a certain limit and then decreases, but for clay it will increase if soaked for long period like 28 days.

31. The OMC of bitumen binder is taken as __________
a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 8%
Answer: c
Explanation: The OMC is usually considered based on experience, but it may be taken anywhere between 4 and 6%.

32. The stability of the bituminous mix is always __________
a) Greater than water content
b) Lesser than water content
c) Equal to water content
d) Can’t determine
Answer: a
Explanation: If a graph is drawn between the bitumen content and maximum dry density its stability is always greater than water content.

33. The higher compaction will result in __________
a) Less stability
b) Less strength
c) Less absorption of water
d) High absorption of water
Answer: c
Explanation: The higher resistance to the absorption of water can be achieved by the higher compaction effort.

34. The liquid limit of soil bitumen mix should be less than __________
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 45%
d) 40%
Answer: d
Explanation: The liquid limit of the soil based on practical considerations should be less than 40%, it is even good if it is lesser.

35. The bitumen giving more better results is __________
a) Cutback
b) Emulsion
c) VG 30
d) VG 40
Answer: a
Explanation: The emulsion gives an inferior result when compared with the cutback, so the cutback is the most preferred bitumen.

36. How many types of challenges are encountered in bitumen stabilisation?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The major problems are choice of stabilisation, design mix and thickness of layer.

37. The final choice of stabilisation technique is based on __________
a) Labour
b) Material
c) Equipment
d) Cost
Answer: d
Explanation: Though all the equipment, labour and materials are equally important, the final factor is cost.

38. The flexural strength is based on __________
a) IRC
b) Plate test
c) CBR
d) Shear
Answer: c
Explanation: The most commonly used method for testing the strength of the flexible pavement.

39. The mix design should take into consideration is?
a) Stability
b) Durability
c) Stability and durability
d) Age
Answer: c
Explanation: The mix should take into consideration, the stability and durability requirements, strength is also equally important.

40. The modification factor used in base course thickness is called __________
a) Granite equivalence
b) Gravel equivalence
c) Sand equivalence
d) Soil equivalence
Answer: b
Explanation: In the thickness of the pavement layer the mix can’t be designed directly, so it needs some factor which is called equivalence factor.

41. The colloidal content in BC soils can be up to __________
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Answer: d
Explanation: The colloidal content in the soil may be up 50%, which is an undesirable property for pavement.

42. What is the shrinkage limit value in BC soil?
a) 0%
b) 9%
c) 15%
d) 16%
Answer: c
Explanation: The BC soils have a less shrinkage limit value from 10% to 15 %, which is a very high value, whereas in sand and silt they don’t exist.

43. The cement content required for BC soil is __________
a) High
b) Very high
c) Low
d) Very low
Answer: b
Explanation: The cement content required for the cement is 15 to 25%, so it is not advisable to directly stabilize with cement.

44. The desert sand is __________
a) Strong
b) Weak
c) Normal
d) Unfit for pavements
Answer: b
Explanation: The sand in the desert is very huge and non availability of water is a major problem in the desert, and desert sand is very less stable, hence suitable stabilisation should be done.

45. The water content in the emulsion is about __________
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
Answer: d
Explanation: The emulsion in the mix consists of 40% of water, hence it is used for stabilisation of desert sand.

46. The process of removing and controlling excess surface and sub soil water within roadway is ___________
a) Highway Engineering
b) Highway maintenance
c) Highway drainage
d) Highway finance
Answer: c
Explanation: The removal of excess surface and sub surface soil within the roadway or right of way is considered highway drainage.

47. The number of important factors for highway engineer are ___________
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The important factors that are considered for the highway engineer are design, construction and maintenance.

48. The highway drainage system consists of how many types?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: The drainage system is classified as surface drainage system and sub surface drainage system.

49. The surface water is obtained from ___________
a) Ground water
b) Rainfall
c) Leakage of water from water treatment plants
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Both surface and sub surface water are obtained from the rainfall, in case of leakage the water is percolated into the ground, the run off is obtained from the remaining water flowing on the ground.

50. The removal and diversion of surface water from the roadway is called ___________
a) Surface drainage
b) Sub surface drainage
c) Camber
d) Cross slope
Answer: a
Explanation: The removal of land from surface and adjoining land is called as surface drainage.

51. The surface drainage doesn’t consist of ___________
a) Camber
b) Road side drains
c) Culverts
d) Curves
Answer: d
Explanation: As far as possible the surface drainage should be kept as straight as possible, usually curves are not the part of surface drainage if unavoidable then bends may be provided.

52. The seepage flow is present in ___________
a) Surface drainage
b) Sub surface drainage
c) Camber
d) Cross slope
Answer: b
Explanation: The seepage flow is present in the sub surface drainage which is excavated from the soil.

53. The water that cannot be drained of by gravity is called ___________
a) Pore water
b) Held water
c) Gravitational water
d) Capillary water
Answer: c
Explanation: The gravitational force can’t send off the water which is present in pores, such water is called as held water.

54. The structure provided on the pavement to remove the storm water is ___________
a) Drainage
b) Camber
c) Crown
d) Curves
Answer: b
Explanation: The camber is a structure provided on the pavement to drain off the storm water, resulting from rain crown is provided above the camber.

55. The highest point provided on the pavement is ___________
a) Crown
b) Camber
c) Cross slope
d) Drainage
Answer: a
Explanation: The highest point provided on the pavement is called crown, which is provided above the camber and it is not used for the same function as camber.

56. The highway drainage requirement don’t include ______________
a) Effective drainage
b) Water entering the roadway
c) Sufficient longitudinal slope
d) Erosion free
Answer: b
Explanation: The water should not enter the roadway as it will cause severe damage to the pavements.

57. The preferable height of the water table should be __________
a) 0.75 m
b) 1.0 m
c) 1.2 m
d) 0.5 m
Answer: c
Explanation: The preferred height for the ground water should be 1.2 m below the sub grade. If it is less than 1.2 m it may raise upward.

58. The precautions should be mostly taken for drainage in __________
a) Dry areas
b) Semi dry areas
c) Water logged areas
d) Desert areas
Answer: c
Explanation: Special precautions need to be taken especially in the areas where there is water logging.

59. The increase in moisture causes the strength to __________
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
d) Can’t determine
Answer: b
Explanation: An increase in the moisture content will reduce the strength of the soil, so it should be very carefully calculated.

60. The excess water on shoulder in a dry region with a good drainage system causes __________
a) Water stagnation
b) Floods
c) Damage to pavement
d) Increase of initial cost
Answer: c
Explanation: The damage of pavement is caused due to the excessive amount of water on the pavement shoulders.

61. How many components are present in the surface drainage system?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The surface drainage system consists of three components they are camber, side drains and cross drains.

62. If the canal and drain at same level then the cross drainage structure is called __________
a) Aqueduct
b) Siphon aqueduct
c) Level crossing
d) Aquiclude
Answer: c
Explanation: If the canal and the drainage both are at the same level then the drainage structure is called level crossing.

63. What is the value of camber on earth roads?
a) 4%
b) 3%
c) 2%
d) 1.7%
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of the camber is recommended as 1.7% for the earth roads, for paved it may be up to 4%.

64. Which is the most preferred shape of drainage?
a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Triangular
d) Circular
Answer: b
Explanation: The trapezoidal shape is the most preferred shape of the drainage because of it’s simplicity and ease.

65. The longitudinal drain may be provided if the cross slope is more than __________
a) 1.0%
b) 2.0%
c) 3.0%
d) 4.0%
Answer: d
Explanation: The longitudinal drain should be provided only if the cross slope exceeds 4.0%, if it doesn’t exceed then it may not be necessary.

1. The earth slopes and cuts get damaged due to __________
a) Rain cuts
b) Erosion
c) Weathering
d) Unevenness
Answer: a
Explanation: The embankment and earth slopes particularly during rainfall get heavily damaged due to the formation of cuts.

2. The erosion between shoulder and pavement leads to __________
a) Drop
b) Break down
c) Edge drop
d) Flat drop
Answer: c
Explanation: The erosion between the pavement and shoulder leads to the formation of the edge drop.

3. The deterioration rate is more in __________
a) Flexible pavements
b) Rigid pavements
c) Composite
d) Same in all
Answer: a
Explanation: Usually the deterioration rate of the pavement is more in flexible than rigid because it’s having a less design life.

4. How many types of deterioration can be found in pavements?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: The deterioration of the pavement is of 2 types, structural and functional, structural is related to design and functional is related to the maintenance aspects.

5. Which factor doesn’t affect physical deterioration?
a) Traffic
b) Climate
c) Environment
d) Population
Answer: d
Explanation: The population may surround near the pavement, but it is not going to affect the pavement.

6. Which of the following is a physical factor?
a) Formation of pot holes
b) Formation of unevenness
c) Freezing and thawing
d) Formation of ruts
Answer: c
Explanation: The freezing and thawing is a physical factor, whereas the remaining all are structural.

7. The road roughness is measured by __________
a) Bump integrator
b) Laser profile
c) Both bump integrator and laser
d) Overlay vehicle
Answer: c
Explanation: The road roughness can be measured by both bump integrator and laser, bump integrator is widely used whereas laser is used in advanced countries.

8. The uniform speed of bump integrator is __________
a) 10 Kmph
b) 15 Kmph
c) 25 Kmph
d) 30 Kmph
Answer: d
Explanation: The uniform speed of the bump integrator is 30 Kmph, considered to measure the unevenness.

9. The pavement rating of 3 is regarded as __________
a) Poor
b) Good
c) Very good
d) Excellent
Answer: b
Explanation: The rating of the pavement is considered from 0 to 5, as very poor, poor, good, very good and excellent.

10. The pavement surface value needing immediate attention is __________
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
Answer: c
Explanation: The pavement surface index value needing immediate attention is 2.5, if not taken any immediate action then pavement may fail.

11. The modern day pavement don’t consider loads of ____________
a) HCV
b) LMV
c) Motor cycle
d) Animal drawn vehicles
Answer: d
Explanation: The olden days pavement consisted of most predominantly animal drawn vehicles but they are not used so much now.

12. The CBR method in India is followed since __________
a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1990
Answer: c
Explanation: In India since 1970s the CBR method is followed and in 1990 an additional layer called drainage layer was added.

13. The failure in olden roads were classified into how many types?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum failure of the pavement is classified into three types namely failure from sub grade, failure in pavement layers and total pavement failure.

14. The recoverable type of deformation is called as __________
a) Elastic deformation
b) Semi elastic deformation
c) Rigid deformation
d) Semi rigid deformation
Answer: a
Explanation: The deformation occurred on pavement in which it can recover itself is elastic deformation.

15. The plastic deformation occurs in __________
a) Gravel
b) Sand
c) Silt
d) Clay
Answer: d
Explanation: The plastic deformation mostly occurs in the clayey soil and it is not even partly recoverable.

16. The consolidation deformation is __________
a) Non recoverable
b) Semi recoverable
c) Completely recoverable
d) Partly recoverable and partly non recoverable
Answer: d
Explanation: The plastic deformation in pavements occurs only in a part and that part may be recoverable or non recoverable depnding on the extent of failure.

17. The shear failure occurs in __________
a) Elastic deformation
b) Consolidated deformation
c) Plastic deformation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The shear failure occurs due to the plastic flow which mostly occurs in the plastic deformation.

18. The deformation doesn’t increase with __________
a) Increase in stress
b) Increase in load
c) Increase in thickness of pavement
d) Increase in compacted soil
Answer: d
Explanation: The compacted soil, is a very important factor for the pavement, if it is compacted properly then the pavement will have less settlement.

19. The shear failure of soil subgrade may be attributed to __________
a) Inadequate stability
b) Excessive stress
c) Inadequate stability & Excessive stress
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The failure of sub grade in shear may be attributed to inadequate stability and excessive stress application.

20. The main cause of inadequate stability of bitumen mix doesn’t include __________
a) Improper gradation of aggregate
b) Use of wrong viscosity grade of bitumen
c) Poor quality check
d) More stopping sight distance provided
Answer: d
Explanation: The stopping sight distance is not a property of the bitumen mix, it is a geometric design property.

21. The rate of structural deterioration of flexible pavement doesn’t depend on ___________
a) Stability of pavement
b) Magnitude of traffic
c) Growth rate
d) Climatic change
Answer: d
Explanation: The structural deterioration doesn’t depend on the climate, it is a functional change.

22. The objective of conducting structural evaluation studies doesn’t consist of ___________
a) To measure the present structural condition
b) Determine the drainage system
c) Estimate the residual life
d) Design of overlay
Answer: b
Explanation: The objective of conducting structural evaluation doesn’t consist of estimate for the drainage system.

23. The existing strength of pavement can be made stronger by ___________
a) Construction from sub grade
b) Construction from sub base
c) Construction from base
d) Overlay
Answer: d
Explanation: The economic solution is to provide overlay for making the pavement stronger, the remaining methods may be used if the pavement is extremely damaged.

24. The repair cost is approximately how many times the maintenance cost?
a) Three times
b) Four times
c) Five times
d) Six times
Answer: d
Explanation: The maintenance cost if neglected for 3 years rises up to 6 times and even uptown 18 times if neglected for 5 years.

25. The structural evaluation studies are usually conducted for every?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
Answer: a
Explanation: The structural evaluation studies are conducted for every 1 year to evaluate the pavement strength.

26. The difference between existing pavement and new pavement is ___________
a) Strength
b) Deficiency
c) Permeability
d) Shear
Answer: b
Explanation: The difference between the thickness of the pavement between the existing pavement and overlaid pavement is the deficiency.

27. The Stability of flexible pavement structure depend on ___________
a) Sub grade
b) Degree of compaction
c) Drainage system
d) Water cement ratio
Answer: d
Explanation: The stability doesn’t depend directly on the water cement ratio but it depends on the design mix and quality of pavement layers.

28. The elastic recovery of deflection is called ___________
a) Rebound deflection
b) Elastic deflection
c) Rigid deflection
d) Semi rigid deflection
Answer: a
Explanation: The elastic recovery of the pavement is considered as a rebound deflection if it doesn’t recover it is a failure.

29. The benkleman beam method was developed by ___________
a) IRC
b) ASTM
c) CGRA
d) NHAI
Answer: c
Explanation: The benkleman beam method was designed by CGRA and followed in India. NHAI still follow this method for overlay.

30. The structural evaluation can’t be evaluated by ___________
a) Dynaflect
b) Road rater
c) FWD
d) Bump integrator
Answer: d
Explanation: Bump integrator is not a pavement evaluation method, it is an instrument used for the measurement of roughness.

31. The slender beam used in benkleman beam method is ___________
a) 3.5 m
b) 3.66 m
c) 3.8 m
d) 3.7 m
Answer: b
Explanation: The slender beam dimension in length is 3.66 m, which is hinged to a datum frame.

32. The least count of the small needle in benkleman beam test is ___________
a) 0.5 mm
b) 1.0 mm
c) 1.5 mm
d) 2.0 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The least count for the large needle of dial gauge is 0.01 mm and small gauge is 2.0 mm.

33. The tyre pressure in benkleman beam method should be inflated to (in kg/cm2).
a) 5.0
b) 5.2
c) 5.4
d) 5.6
Answer: d
Explanation: The plates should be inflated to a pressure of 5.6 kg/cm2, use of tyres with tubes and rib tread is recommended.

34. Wheel load distribution in one side of benkleman beam test is ___________
a) 1080 kg
b) 2880 kg
c) 4085 kg
d) 8170 kg
Answer: c
Explanation: The total load is 8170 kg, and it is taken as 4085 kg on one side because it is considered as a single axle.

35. The clear space between the two tyres of the dual wheels should be ___________
a) 20 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 27.5 mm
d) 30 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The spacing is ideally considered between 30 and 40 mm, it is an ideal requirement for two tyres of the dual wheels, it may even be less or more.

36. The pavement whose rut depth is less than 10 mm is classified as ___________
a) Poor
b) Very poor
c) Fair
d) Good
Answer: d
Explanation: The classification for no cracking or rut depth less than 10 mm is good, if it exceeds 10 mm they are fair, poor and very poor depending on the degree of ruts.

37. The test pits are maximum dug at a distance of ___________
a) 150 m
b) 250 m
c) 300 m
d) 500 m
Answer: d
Explanation: The test pits are dug from a distance of 250 to a maximum distance of 500 mm.

38. The minimum length of a sub stretch is ___________
a) 0.5 km
b) 1.0 km
c) 1.5 km
d) 2.0 km
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum length of a sub stretch is taken as 1.0 km, for longer pavement distances.

39. The depth of the hole dug for measuring of temperature is ___________
a) 45 mm
b) 55 mm
c) 65 mm
d) 75 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum depth of hole is 45 mm and diameter is 10 mm.

40. The quantity of soil collected in benkleman beam method is ___________
a) 10 g
b) 100 g
c) 1000 g
d) 2000 g
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum quantity of soil collected is 100 g for checking the plasticity index of soil.

41. The pavement design in olden days was based on ___________
a) Mix design
b) Proportion of weight
c) Strength
d) Proportion of weight or volume
Answer: d
Explanation: The olden days pavement was designed based on the proportion of weight or volume.

42. The thickness of the pavement in olden days was ___________
a) 60 mm
b) 75 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 200 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The usual thickness of the pavement in olden days were around 100 to 150 mm, due to lack of technology they used such big sizes.

43. The cement production in India increased by the year.
a) 1970
b) 1980
c) 1990
d) 2000
Answer: c
Explanation: During the 1990’s the cement gained a rapid growth in production, before the 1990 period cement was imported.

44. The common types of failure in the cement slabs don’t include ___________
a) Mud pumping
b) Development of structural cracks
c) Spalling of joints
d) Erosion
Answer: d
Explanation: Erosion of the soil takes place only if there is heavy rain and of the soil is not strong enough.

45. The design thickness of the CC slab of important highway with heavy traffic is?
a) 250 mm
b) 125 mm
c) 275 mm
d) 300 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The range of the pavement thickness for the heavy traffic is 280 to 320 mm, of such heavy thickness is not provided then pavement will fail.

46. The process of mud or soil being ejected out through the joints and edges of the CC pavements is called ___________
a) Mud pumping
b) Ravelling
c) Scaling
d) Ejection
Answer: a
Explanation: The mud pumping is a process in which the soil is pumped out of the pavement edges.

47. The factor which doesn’t initiate mud is?
a) Weak CC pavement
b) Strong CC pavement
c) Ineffective drainage
d) CC pavement directly over soil
Answer: b
Explanation: The mud pumping is initiated mainly due to high deflection, ineffective drainage and cc pavement laid on soil.

48. The diameter of the holes in the mud jacking process is?
a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 30 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The diameter of holes used for cement jacking is around 30 mm to 50 mm, it may be a minimum of 30 mm and maximum of 50 mm.

49. If a part of cement mortar gets detached from the surface, exposing the coarse aggregate which results in a rough surface, then it is called ___________
a) Ravelling
b) Mud pumping
c) Mud jacking
d) Scaling
Answer: d
Explanation: The scaling of cement concrete occurs if a part of the cement mortar gets peeled off and exposes the coarse aggregate.

50. The factor not related to scaling of the concrete is ___________
a) Mix deficiency
b) Higher water cement ratio
c) Good quality of aggregate
d) Chemical impurities
Answer: c
Explanation: If the aggregate quality is good, then mix design will not have any defects, so good quality of aggregate can help reduce scaling.

51. The probable causes for loss of surface texture don’t include ___________
a) Poor texturing
b) Abrasion
c) Movement of Traffic
d) Use of durable materials
Answer: d
Explanation: The loss of surface is not caused due to durable materials, it is caused due to non durable materials.

52. The surface texture may be calculated by ___________
a) Abrasion test
b) Impact test
c) British pendulum number
d) Viscosity test
Answer: c
Explanation: British pendulum number is a test which is conducted for the testing of the pavement frictional resistance.

53. The depth of groove in skid resistance test is ___________
a) 0.5 mm
b) 1.0 mm
c) 1.5 mm
d) 2.0 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The depth of the groove in the skid resistance test is 1.5 mm, in which it can handle the apparatus.

54. The structural distress in the CC pavement is not due to ___________
a) Excessive loading
b) Inadequate thickness
c) Long spacing
d) Erosion
Answer: d
Explanation: The erosion is not structural distress, it is a type of functional distress, structural distress are related to design.

55. The method not used in structural evaluation of CC pavement is?
a) Visual inspection
b) Deflection test
c) Non destructive testing
d) Benkleman test
Answer: d
Explanation: Benkleman test is a method used to verify the deflection of flexible pavement and not used in rigid pavement.

56. The methods of crack repairs are classified into how many types?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
Explanation: The methods of crack repairs are crack stitching, partial depth and full depth repairs.

57. The diameter of bars used for insertion in crack stitching method is ___________
a) 8 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 16 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The diameter of the bars used are 16 mm HYSD bars which are bent into U shape and inserted in holes at 600 mm intervals.

58. The partial depth repairs are limited to a slab height of less than ___________
a) 150 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 90 mm
d) 75 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: The partial depth repairs are limited to a height of less than 75 mm, or 1/3rd of the height of slab.

59. In full-depth repairs the diameter of the hole is greater than the diameter of dowel bar by ___________
a) 1 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 2.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: The diameter of the hole dug is 2 mm more than the diameter of the dowel bar, which is useful for inserting tie bars.

60. The pavement condition factor for good condition is?
a) 0.25
b) 0.35
c) 0.45
d) 1.0
Answer: d
Explanation: The factor for the good, sound and slightly cracked pavement is 1.0, if it gives more cracks it decreases from 0.45 to 0.25.