1. What is solar radiation?
a) Energy radiated from the sun in all directions
b) Energy radiated from earth in all directions
c) Radiation travelling in space
d) Energy radiated from sun that travels in ether

Answer: a

2. What are three relevant bands of solar radiation?
a) UV, infrared and far infrared
b) UV, visible and infrared
c) Ultrasonic, infrared and visible
d) UV, ultrasonic and near infrared

Answer: b

3. Which two bands of solar radiation are majority in the total solar radiation reaching earth?
a) UV and visible
b) Visible and ultrasonic
c) Visible and infrared
d) Infrared and UV

Answer: c

4. Which of the following affects the amount of solar radiation received by a location or water body?
a) Shape of the water body
b) Time at night
c) Rotational speed of earth
d) Altitude and latitude

Answer: d

5. What is direct solar radiation?
a) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface from sun
b) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
c) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection
d) Cosmic radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection

Answer: a

6. What is indirect solar radiation?
a) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface from sun
b) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering
c) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
d) Cosmic radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection

Answer: b

7. What type of radiation does earth emit?
a) UV
b) Visible
c) Infrared
d) Longitudinal

Answer: c

8. What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
a) Radiation spectrum consisting only of UV and visible rays
b) All rays falling in the category of infrared and UV rays
c) All rays falling in the category of gamma and x-rays
d) Radiation spectrum encompassing all types of radiation

Answer: d

9. Which of the following type of UV radiation inhibits photosynthetic reaction in phytoplankton?
a) UV-A
b) UV-C
c) Infrared
d) Gamma rays

Answer: a

10. Which of the following is responsible for thermal energy?
a) UV
b) Infrared
c) Gamma
d) UV-A

Answer: b

11. How do infrared radiation cause heat?
a) By exciting neutrons of the substance that absorb them
b) By de-exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
c) By exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
d) By exciting protons of the substance that absorb them

Answer: c

12. Why are surfaces of water bodies warmer than the depths?
a) Because water does not absorb UV radiation
b) Because water does not absorb thermal radiation
c) Because water absorbs visible radiation
d) Because water absorbs thermal radiation

Answer: d

13. What is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?
a) Radiation best suited for photosynthesis
b) All radiation in which photosynthesis occurs
c) Radiation in which photosynthesis does not occur
d) Radiation which deactivates the ongoing photosynthesis

Answer: a

14. UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet radiation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

15. Energy of the wavelength increases with frequency and decreases with the size of wavelength.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

16. What would happen if the sun’s radiation reaches the earth’s surface without depletion?
a) Life would cease to exist
b) Life would be more vibrant
c) The earth’s average global temperature would become stable
d) The average global temperature of earth would decrease

Answer: a

17. Which of the following plays a role in depletion of incoming solar radiation?
a) Irradiance of the incoming solar radiation
b) Dispersion
c) Solar flares
d) Nuclear fusion in sun

Answer: b

18. What is the inclination of earth’s axis in degrees?
a) 37
b) 53
c) 23.5
d) 10

Answer: c

19. How does the inclination of earth’s axis affect the incoming solar radiation?
a) All the solar radiation is concentrated around the equator
b) The radiation is distributed along the entire equator
c) All radiation is concentrated at the poles
d) Solar radiation is non-uniformly distributed throughout the earth’s surface

Answer: d

20. What happens to those sun rays which are not perpendicular to earth’s surface?
a) Energy of the solar radiation is spread over a greater area
b) Energy of the solar radiation is concentrated on a single spot at the poles
c) Energy of the solar radiation is uniformly distributed along the Tropic of Cancer
d) Energy of the solar radiation depends on the position of prime meridian

Answer: a

21. When solar radiation is dispersed over a greater area, what happens to the net temperature?
a) The net temperature increases
b) The net temperature decreases
c) The net temperature is not affected
d) The net temperature monotonically increases forever

Answer: b

22. Which of the following latitudes is significantly affected due to dispersion of insolation with seasons?
a) All latitudes are equally affected
b) Temperate zones are significantly affected
c) Polar areas
d) Tropical areas are significantly affected

Answer: c

23. What is scattering?
a) Spreading of solar radiation over large areas
b) Absorption of solar radiation by gaseous molecules
c) Absorption of outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emitting it back to the earth
d) Deflection of some wavelengths in all directions when passed through air

Answer: d

24. When the solar radiation is scatted by suspended particles in air, they act ______ and produce different colours.
a) like a prism
b) like a rock
c) like a mirror
d) like a solar concentrator

Answer: a

25. Red sun during sunrise and sunset is an example of ________
a) diffraction
b) scattering
c) interference
d) absorption

Answer: b

26. What is reflection?
a) Bouncing back some portion of the incident radiation into another medium
b) Slowing down of light on entering another medium
c) Bouncing back some portion of the incident radiation into the same medium from which it came
d) Absorption by particles and re-emission of radiation of different frequencies

Answer: c

27. Which among the following is the best reflector?
a) Rock
b) Aluminum
c) Iron
d) Snow

Answer: d

28. Which of the following types of clouds has the highest albedo?
a) Stratocumulus
b) Altocumulus
c) Cirrus
d) Cirrocumulus

Answer: a

29. Earth reflects about 36% of the incoming radiation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

30. About quarter of the incoming solar radiation is scattered.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

31. What are the two basic ways to measure solar radiation?
a) Ground-based instrumentation and satellite measurement
b) Telephonic measurement and mobile tower measurement
c) Anemometer and voltmeter
d) Ammeter and voltmeter

Answer: a

32. What is does an actinometer measure?
a) Wind speed
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Wind direction
d) Direction of radiation

Answer: b

33. Actinometer is primarily used to measure ______ and ______
a) infrared and ultraviolet
b) visible and infrared
c) visible and ultraviolet
d) infrared and UV-A

Answer: c

34. How does actinometer work?
a) By determining the number of electrons in a beam integrally
b) By determining the number of protons in a beam differentially
c) By determining the direction of photons
d) By determining the number of photons integrally

Answer: d

35. As a system, actinometer is a _____ or _______
a) chemical system or physical device
b) chemical system or thermal device
c) thermal device or mechanical device
d) thermo-mechanical system or physical device

Answer: a

36. Which of the following categories does a pyranometer belong to?
a) Voltmeters
b) Actinometers
c) Hall sensors
d) Amplifiers

Answer: b

37. Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by ________
a) thermal actinometer
b) heat pumps
c) thermoelectric pyranometers
d) oscilloscopes

Answer: c

38. To perform irradiance measurement, which of the following is necessary?
a) Beam response varies with sine of the angle of incidence
b) Beam response varies linearly with angle of incidence
c) Beam response is constant with varying angle of incidence
d) Beam response varies with cosine of the angle of incidence

Answer: d

39. Why should the beam response vary with cosine of the angle of incidence?
a) To account for perpendicular and parallel rays
b) Because cosine is the simplest mathematical function
c) To account for inclination of earth’s axis
d) Because of non-uniform dispersion of solar radiation

Answer: a

40. Which of the following best describes the working of thermoelectric pyranometer?
a) Solar radiation → thermal e.m.f measured → thin black surface → rise in temperature until equilibrium
b) Solar radiation → thin black surface → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thermal e.m.f measured
c) Thin black surface → solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thermal e.m.f measured
d) Solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thin black surface → thermal e.m.f measured

Answer: b

41. Which of the following is generally used to measure direct solar radiation?
a) Pyranometer
b) Actinometer
c) Pyrheliometer
d) IC tester

Answer: c

42. What technologies are used in pyranometers?
a) Silicon semiconductor technology and routing technology
b) Thermopile technology and doping
c) Doping and routing technology
d) Silicon semiconductor technology and thermopile technology

Answer: d

43. __________ is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of photons detected.
a) Photodiode
b) LEDs
c) CFLs
d) CFCs

Answer: a

44. Light sensitivity is known as spectral response.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

45. Pyranometer has a non-directional response.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

46. What is solar time?
a) Calculation of passage of time based on sun’s position in sky
b) Calculation of passage of time based on moon’s position in sky
c) A unit that measures astronomical time
d) A reference unit for time

Answer: a

47. What is the fundamental unit of solar time?
a) Seconds
b) Day
c) Hour
d) Meter

Answer: b

48. What are the two types of solar time?
a) Fundamental solar and multi-solar time
b) Apparent and diurnal solar time
c) Apparent solar time and mean solar time
d) Mean solar time and single-solar time

Answer: c

49. What is apparent time also known as?
a) Clock time
b) Revolution time
c) Lunar time
d) Sundial time

Answer: d

50. Which of the following is the simplest sundial?
a) A tall pole casting a shadow whose length and position varies with sun’s position
b) A tall pole
c) A tall pole casting a shadow that varies with moon’s position
d) A stone slab

Answer: a

51. What is mean solar time also known as?
a) Rotation time
b) Clock time
c) Lunar time
d) Sundial time

Answer: b

52. Solar time is _____ clock time in December and ____ clock time in September.
a) same as, same as
b) less, more
c) more, less
d) more, same as

Answer: c

53. Why is does the solar time vary in September and December?
a) Because of earth-moon distance
b) Because of earth-moon gravitational force
c) Because of eccentricity of sun-moon orbit
d) Because of eccentricity of earth-sun orbit

Answer: d

54. The clock running at a constant (say, a pendulum clock) rate _____
a) cannot follow the sun
b) always follows the sun
c) follows the sun randomly
d) follows the moon

Answer: a

55. What does a clock running at a constant rate follow?
a) Moon
b) Imaginary mean sun
c) Actual sun
d) Real mean sun

Answer: b

56. What is apparent solar day?
a) Interval between sunrise and sunset of a normal day
b) Interval between two successive returns of sun on equator
c) Interval between two successive returns of sun on local meridian
d) Imaginary solar day

Answer: c

57. Which of the following describes the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit?
a) Apparent solar time
b) Sundial
c) Maxwell’s laws
d) Kepler’s laws

Answer: d

58. The hour angle of the mean sun plus 12 hours is _______
a) mean solar time
b) angled solar time
c) offset solar time
d) apparent solar time

Answer: a

59. Solar time is 21 seconds less than clock time in September and 29 seconds more than clock time in December.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

60. The inclination of earth’s axis also contributes towards variation in solar time.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

61. What is the relationship between insolation and cloud cover in sky?
a) Inverse
b) Directly proportional
c) Square
d) Exponential

Answer: a

62. Which of the following is a reason for inverse relationship between insolation and cloud cover in sky?
a) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by transparent cloud cover
b) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by opaque cloud cover
c) Sunshine duration records are caused by sunshine being transmitted through opaque cloud cover
d) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by cloud cover

Answer: b

63. Which does Angstrom-Savinov formula tell?
a) Relationship between local solar radiation and global cloudiness
b) Relationship between local solar radiation and local cloudiness
c) Relationship between global solar radiation and mean cloudiness
d) Relationship between global solar radiation and global cloudiness

Answer: c

64. What does the constant “k” signify in the Angstrom-Savinov formula?
a) Global solar radiation
b) Mean cloudiness
c) Reflection of solar radiation within clouds
d) Transmission of solar radiation within clouds

Answer: d

65. The constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov formula depends on ________
a) latitude of the location
b) longitude of the location
c) solar radiation
d) cloud opacity

Answer: a

66. How does the constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov vary in high and low latitudes?
a) Between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.22 in low latitudes
b) Between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.33 in low latitudes
c) Between 0.33 in high latitudes and 0.55 in low latitudes
d) Between 0 in high latitudes and 0.9 in low latitudes

Answer: b

67. Which of the following models uses linear regression to estimate solar radiation from sunshine duration?
a) Angstrom-Savinov
b) Ertekin and Yladtz
c) Anstrom-Prescott
d) Sen

Answer: c

68. Akinoglu and Fcevit uses a _______ to estimate solar radiation.
a) linear model
b) power model
c) exponential model
d) quadratic model

Answer: d

69. How is an empirical model developed?
a) From data acquired via sensors or measuring instruments
b) From theoretical analysis
c) From deep learning
d) From trial and error

Answer: a

70. What does the ratio of global solar radiation (H) and estimated daily global radiation for cloudless sky (H0) indicate?
a) Solar radiation transmission ratio
b) Clearness index
c) Solar radiation reflection percentage
d) Turbidity

Answer: b

71. Which of the following is important during data acquisition from measuring instruments? Assume that details about data to be collected is known.
a) Type of data
b) Materials used to manufacture measuring instruments
c) Location, environment and characteristics of measuring instrument
d) Brand of measuring instruments

Answer: c

72. Which of the following statistical indicator is used to evaluate any type of model?
a) mean
b) median
c) error
d) root mean square error

Answer: d

73. Why do ground-based observers overestimate overcast cloud cover?
a) Clouds appear to fill large area of sky when near horizon
b) Clouds appear to fill large area of sky when far from horizon
c) Clouds appear to fill small area of sky when near horizon
d) Clouds appear to fill small area of sky when far from horizon

Answer: a

74. Reduction of error between simulated values and the true values increases accuracy of the empirical model.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

75. Cloud cover estimation is free from error.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

76. Hourly radiation values can be used to evaluate the performance of ________
a) flat plate collectors
b) curved collectors
c) parabolic collectors
d) metallic collectors

Answer: a

77. Why are global and diffuse radiation values not measured?
a) Because of sophisticated measuring instruments
b) Because measuring instruments are not available everywhere
c) Because of unavailability of skilled labour to operate measuring instruments
d) Because measuring instruments are not available everywhere

Answer: b

78. Which of the following is generally used to compute global and diffuse radiation values?
a) Parabolic dish
b) Flat plate collector
c) Theoretical models
d) Pyranometer

Answer: c

79. Which of the following can be used to estimate beam radiation?
a) Photoelectric effect
b) Solar insolation constant
c) Time taken by sun’s rays to reach earth
d) Zenith angle and altitude

80. What is zenith angle?
a) Angle between sun and vertical
b) Angle between the line joining the location on earth’s surface and the equatorial plane
c) Angle between extended sun’s rays to earth’s center and equatorial plane
d) Angle between projection of sun’s rays on horizontal surface and equatorial plane

Answer: a

81. Which of the following is not used to calculate hourly radiation?
a) Sun’s declination angle
b) Material of parabolic dish
c) Solar constant
d) Hour angle

Answer: b

82. Solar radiation on a horizontal surface is the summation of _______
a) direct and active solar radiation
b) active and diffuse solar radiation
c) diffuse and direct solar radiation
d) electrons and photons

Answer: c

83. What are the two models used to determine diffuse radiation?
a) Rayleigh scattering and Hybrid pi model
b) Parametric model and Rayleigh scattering
c) Decomposition model and Hybrid pi model
d) Parametric and decomposition models

Answer: d

84. Which of the following is required as a parameter in a parametric model?
a) Cloud cover
b) Solar insolation constant
c) Material of measuring instrument
d) Type of measuring instrument

Answer: a

85. Which of the following is an example of parametric model used to compute diffuse radiation?
a) Chandrasekaran and Kumar’s model
b) ASHRAE model
c) Erb’s model
d) T-model

Answer: b

86. How do decomposition models compute diffuse solar radiation?
a) From specific information of environmental conditions
b) From measuring instruments
c) From global solar radiation data
d) From ASHRAE model

Answer: c

87. Decomposition models are based on correlation between ____________
a) global solar radiation and active radiation
b) diffuse and UV radiation on vertical surface
c) diffuse and total radiation on inclined surface
d) diffuse and total radiation on horizontal surface

Answer: d

88. Which of the following does the correlation of decomposition models (between diffuse and total radiation on horizontal surface) depend on?
a) Hourly clearness index ratio
b) Daily clearness index ratio
c) Hourly global horizontal radiation
d) Yearly extraterrestrial radiation

Answer: a

89. The clearness index is a measure of atmospheric effects in an isolated place.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

90. Nijegorodov’s model revised the constants of ASHRAE’s model.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

91. What is a solar collector?
a) A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
b) A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
c) A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
d) A device to reflect sunlight back

Answer: a

92. What is aperture area in a solar collector?
a) Area of the system
b) Area in the receiver that receives the solar radiation
c) Area occupied by the system after installation
d) Cross-sectional area of the receiver

Answer: b

93. Aperture area of a solar collector is roughly equal to _______
a) Coolant area
b) Generator area
c) Absorber area
d) System area

Answer: c

94. What are the components of a flat plate collector?
a) Flat box, a plate with reflective coating and fluid circulation passageways, an opaque cover, a circulating fluid
b) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, an opaque, a circulating fluid
c) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover
d) Flat box, a dark coloured plate fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover, a circulating fluid

Answer: d

95. Why is a transparent cover used in a flat plate collector?
a) To maximize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
b) To minimize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
c) To entirely reflect the incident sunlight back
d) To ensure partial transmission of the incident sunlight into the box

Answer: a

96. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates?
a) A mixture of ethylene glycol and water
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Glycerol

Answer: b

97. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in freezing climates?
a) Liquid carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Liquid nitrogen

Answer: c

98. Why are antifreeze solutions (antifreeze agents with water) used as coolants in freezing climates?
a) To increase boiling point of water
b) To decrease boiling point of water
c) To increase freezing point of water
d) To decrease freezing point water

Answer: d

99. Adding antifreeze agents to water _________
a) increases its durability as coolant
b) decreases its durability as coolant
c) turns water into a coolant
d) prevents water from acting as a coolant

Answer: a

100. Which of the following is a circulating fluid in evacuated flat-plate solar collectors?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

Answer: b

101. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of _______
a) concentrating collectors
b) photovoltaic technology
c) non-concentrating collectors
d) solar stills

Answer: c

102. Which of the following are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors?
a) Carbon tubes
b) Wooden or metallic tubes
c) Plastic or glass tubes
d) Metallic or glass tubes

Answer: d

103. What is a heat pipe?
a) A heat-transfer device
b) A pipe made of heat
c) A pipe that consists of heat
d) A heat pumping device

Answer: a

104. For better efficiency, solar collectors do not coat their transparent cover with an anti-reflective coating.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

105. Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high vacuum.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

1. Which of the following provides energy for winds to blow naturally?
a) Sun
b) Water
c) Man
d) Food

Answer: a

2. Wind flows from _______ pressure area to ________ pressure area.
a) high, high
b) high, low
c) low, high
d) low, low

Answer: b

3. What is a gust?
a) No change in wind speed
b) A brief decrease in wind speed for a very long period of time
c) A brief increase in wind speed for a very short period of time
d) A brief increase in wind speed for a very long period of time

Answer: c

4. What is a squall?
a) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few hours
b) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few minutes
c) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few hours
d) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few minutes

Answer: d

5. A windstorm _______
a) is strong enough to cause property damage
b) is not stronger than gust
c) does not exist
d) is not strong enough to cause property damage

Answer: a

6. What are planetary or prevailing winds?
a) Winds not blowing from one latitude to another
b) Winds blowing from one latitude to another
c) Gusts
d) Winds that do not cover large areas of earth

Answer: b

7. Which of the following are the two most important planetary winds?
a) Hosting
b) Trades and economics
c) Trade winds and westerly winds
d) Deployment

Answer: c

8. What are trade winds?
a) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure areas
b) Winds that trade with each other
c) Winds blowing from equatorial high pressure areas to sub-tropical low pressure areas
d) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to equatorial low pressure areas

Answer: d

9. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Northern Hemisphere?
a) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the right
b) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the left
c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere

Answer: a

10. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Southern Hemisphere?
a) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the right
b) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the left
c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere

Answer: b

11. Trade winds ______
a) do not maintain a constant direction but blow steadily
b) maintain a constant direction but do not blow steadily
c) maintain a constant direction and blow steadily
d) shrinking technique

Answer: c

12. What are westerly winds?
a) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to sub-polar low pressure areas
b) Winds that trade with each other
c) Winds blowing from equatorial high pressure areas to sub-tropical low pressure areas
d) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure areas

Answer: a

13. Westerly winds of Southern Hemisphere ______
a) weaker and maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern Hemisphere
b) are stronger and maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern Hemisphere are
c) are stronger but do not maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern Hemisphere
d) blow from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure areas

Answer: b

14. What are periodic winds?
a) Westerly winds
b) Winds that do not change their direction periodically with the change in season
c) Winds that change their direction periodically with the change in season
d) Trade winds

Answer: c

15. Which of the following are examples of periodic winds?
a) Gusts
b) Windstorm
c) Westerly winds
d) Monsoons, land and sea breeze, mountain and valley breeze

Answer: d

16. A downburst is created by an area of rain-cooled air that _____
a) after hitting the ground generates strong winds which spread in all directions
b) don’t hit the ground
c) after hitting the ground generates extremely weak winds which spreads in all directions
d) are short gusts

Answer: a

17. What is sea breeze?
a) Winds that don’t strike the ground level
b) Winds from sea that flow during day towards the land and replace the lighter and rising hot air
c) Winds that hit the land to generate extremely weak winds which spreads in all directions
d) Short gusts originating from sea

Answer: b

18. What is land breeze?
a) Winds that hit the sea to generate extremely weak winds which spreads in all directions
b) Winds from land that flow during night towards the sea and replace the lighter and rising hot air
c) Winds from sea that flow towards the land and replace the lighter and rising hot air
d) Short gusts originating from land

Answer: c

19. Which of the following equations best explains the phenomenon of winds flowing from high pressure to low pressure?
a) Pressure = Force/Area
b) Roult’s law
c) Force = mass*acceleration
d) Ideal gas equation

Answer: d

20. How do thunderstorms form?
a) Thunderstorms originate from a pleasant breeze
b) Thunderstorms are produced by mid-level clouds
c) Thunderstorms are produced by cumulonimbus cloud which generated gusty winds and heavy rains
d) Thunderstorms originate from low-level clouds and do not carry rain with them

Answer: c

21. Which of the following are types of winds?
a) Planetary winds, periodic winds, local winds
b) Trade winds, westerly winds, plate tectonics
c) Apples, monsoon
d) Clouds, rains, storms

Answer: a

22. What is considered as a strong breeze on a Beaufort Wind Scale?
a) 0
b) 6
c) 1
d) 4

Answer: b

23. Which of the following is not an application of wind energy?
a) Electricity
b) Steam engine
c) Agriculture
d) Energy storage for emergencies

Answer: b

24. Which of the following sports use wind energy?
a) Wind surfing
b) Chess
c) Carroms
d) Kho-Kho

Answer: a

25. Does the team sport cricket, use wind?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

26. How is wind energy used in flourmills?
a) To beat corn grains into paste
b) To beat wheat grains into paste
c) To grind wheat and corn grains into flour
d) Wind energy is not used in flourmills

Answer: c

27. Which of the following wind turbine is mostly used to extract wind energy?
a) DC generator
b) Vertical-axis wind turbines
c) Sailing boat
d) Horizontal-axis wind turbines

Answer: d

28. Wind energy is not used to pump water to a higher level.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

29. _______ light is used to denote dangers of birds, bats or/and airplanes.
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Green

Answer: a

30. Which of the following is a mechanical application of wind energy?
a) Lighting
b) Electricity
c) Pumping water
d) Wind surfing

Answer: c

31. Which of the following is a potential application of wind energy?
a) Converting heat to wind energy
b) Converting electrical energy to wind energy
c) Transportation of electrical energy
d) Converting the wind flow due to speeding cars into electricity on highways

Answer: d

32. Does flying a kite use wind energy?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

33. How is drag force experienced by the blade reduced in various modern blade designs?
a) Bending and tapering the blade
b) Using heavy metals
c) Twirling the blade
d) Increasing the length of the blade

Answer: a

34. What is angle of attack?
a) Angle between downwind side and upwind side
b) Angle between the blade and the rotor
c) Angle between the direction of wind and pitch of the blade
d) Angle between the blade and the wind tower

Answer: c

35. When plotting lift vs angle of attack, which of following best describes the shape of the curve?
a) Exponential
b) Cubic
c) Linear
d) Parabolic

Answer: d

36. There is no ideal angle of attack for best rotation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

37. The speed at the tip of the blade is faster than its center.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

38. What is the angle by which the rotor blades are twisted?
a) 5-10 degrees
b) 15-45 degrees
c) 100-120 degrees
d) 10-20 degrees

Answer: d

39. Which of the following blade designs further increases the efficiency of airfoil blades?
a) Twisting and tapering the blades
b) Reducing wind tower height
c) Increasing wind tower height
d) Increasing rotor speed

Answer: a

40. Why is a blade twisted along its length rather than its width?
a) Drag reduction
b) Weight reduction
c) Drag reduction and improvement in angle of attack
d) Aesthetic reasons

Answer: c

41. Which of the following blade designs further increases the efficiency of airfoil blades?
a) Reducing wind tower height
b) Twisting and tapering the blades
c) Increasing wind tower height
d) Increasing rotor speed

Answer: b

42. Why does wind speed increase with height above ground?
a) More slip boundary conditions
b) Less obstructions and no slip boundary conditions
c) More obstructions and slip boundary conditions
d) Gas molecules have less mass

Answer: b

43. Increased wind tower height and longer blades do not result in an increase in power.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

44. Why should longer turbine blades be made of stronger materials?
a) Longer turbine blades experience greater forces
b) Longer turbine blades experience lesser forces
c) Stronger materials are cheaper
d) Stronger materials are available in abundance

Answer: a

45. Which of the following is best reason for not using longer blades even though they produce greater output power?
a) Longer turbine blades experience greater forces
b) Longer turbine blades experience lesser forces
c) Safety concerns due to greater momentum of longer blades
d) Stronger materials are available in abundance

Answer: c

46. Which theory is used to model the wind turbine?
a) Blade element momentum theory
b) Kinetic gas theory
c) Archimedes principle
d) Einstein’s theory of photoelectric effect

Answer: a

47. What is blade element momentum theory?
a) It is same as blade element theory
b) It is same as momentum theory
c) It talks about the motion of a body in a given frame of reference
d) It is used to calculate the local forces on the propeller or blade

Answer: d

48. What is the main disadvantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?
a) Easy operation at near ground winds
b) Does not self-start
c) Difficult operation at near ground winds
d) High starting torque

Answer: c

49. Which of the following materials are used to make a rotor blade of a wind turbine?
a) Glass fibre reinforced polyester
b) Salt
c) Sugar
d) Plastic

Answer: a

50. Which of the following materials can be used to make a rotor blade of a wind turbine apart from glass fibre reinforced polyester (GRP)?
a) Silicon, germanium
b) Epoxy, carbon fibre
c) Plastic
d) Salt

Answer: b

51. Fatigue testing of rotor blades subject the blades to an oscillation in _______ direction.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) flapwise
d) diagonal

Answer: c

52. Which of the following are the major parts of a wind turbine system?
a) Tower, rotor, water storage tank, air compressor
b) Tower, rotor and blades, air compressor, vacuum pump, electricity generator
c) Electricity generator, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, building
d) Tower, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, electricity generator

Answer: d

53. What is the main function of tower in a wind turbine system?
a) Acts a support to all other components used in wind turbine system
b) Acts as an antenna for wireless radio communications
c) Acts as an electric pole for power transportation
d) Destabilizes the wind turbine system

Answer: a

54. Which of the following towers is used for small wind turbines?
a) Hybrid tower
b) Guyed pole tower
c) Electric pole
d) Wooden pole

Answer: b

55. What is a hybrid type tower?
a) Guyed tower
b) Guyed tower and wooden tower
c) Thin and tall lattice type guyed tower
d) Guyed tower and electric pole

Answer: c

56. Nacelle is a kiosk that houses ______
a) a MOSFET
b) a diode
c) a wifi router
d) a yaw drive

Answer: d

57. What is the main function of gearbox in a wind turbine system?
a) Multiples rotation speed to generate electricity
b) Divides rotation speed to generate electricity
c) Multiples rotation speed to consume wind energy
d) Divides rotation speed to consume wind energy

Answer: a

58. What is a pitch drive motor?
a) A motor that senses wind direction
b) A motor to control the angle of blades
c) A motor to ensure nacelle faces in the direction of the wind
d) A motor to rotate the blades

Answer: b

59. What is a yaw drive?
a) A device used to support and stabilize other components
b) A device used to house various energy conversion components
c) A motor to ensure that nacelle faces the wind
d) A device used to track wind direction

Answer: c

60. What is the cost of a wind turbine per megawatt?
a) $10000
b) $1000
c) $100
d) $1 million

Answer: d

61. Wind turbines require regular maintenance.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b

62. Offshore wind turbines are not erected in water bodies.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a

63. What happens to wind speed when many turbines operate collectively?
a) Wind speed reduces
b) Wind speed increases
c) Wind speed does not change
d) Wind speed increases exponentially and then decreases linearly

Answer: a

64. Which of the following is true?
a) More than 50% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
b) Less than 5% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
c) 60 – 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
d) More than 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter

Answer: b

65. Lower wind speeds result in ________
a) higher wind energy obtained
b) no wind energy obtained
c) lower wind energy obtained
d) 100% energy conversion for half the operation time and less than 10% energy conversion for the remaining half of the operation time

Answer: c

66. What happens to the output power when the wind turbine blades rotate faster for the entire operation time?
a) The output power first increases then decreases
b) The output power first decreases then monotonically increases
c) The output power decreases
d) The output power increases

Answer: d

67. Higher wind speeds _________ the speed of rotation of the wind blades.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) monotonically decrease
d) first increase and then decrease

Answer: a

68. What is cut-in wind speed?
a) Wind turbine stops generating output power
b) Wind turbine starts generating output power
c) Wind turbine stops functioning
d) Wind turbine starts functioning

Answer: b

69. What is rated speed?
a) Wind turbines generate least output power
b) Wind turbines do not generate any output power
c) Wind turbines generate maximum output power
d) Wind turbines have no rated speed as the output power always increases

Answer: c

70. Which of the following are the limits of the range of wind speeds for which the turbines are designed?
a) Elasticity
b) Threshold voltage
c) Networking
d) Cut-in speed and cut-out speed

Answer: d

71. How does the output power vary between cut-in speed and the rated speed?
a) cubically
b) linearly
c) square
d) exponential

Answer: a

72. What is the cut-out speed?
a) Wind turbine starts generating output power
b) Wind turbine must be shut down
c) Wind turbine stops functioning
d) Wind turbine starts functioning but does not generate output power

Answer: b

73. Power output is not related to the local air density.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a

74. Which of the following does the local air density depend upon?
a) Soil
b) Lightning
c) Altitude and pressure
d) Nitrogen and oxygen

Answer: c

75. Higher air density leads to higher power output.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

76. What is feather of wind turbine blades?
a) Adding feathers to the blades
b) Reducing the weight of wind turbine blades
c) Reducing the angle of pitch
d) Increasing the angle of pitch

Answer: d

77. Why is feathering of wind turbine blades required?
a) To increase drag
b) To reduce drag
c) To prevent the blades from being destroyed by strong winds
d) To extract power from strong winds originating from storms

Answer: c

78. What is depth of discharge?
a) Percentage of the battery that is discharged during a cycle
b) Percentage of the battery that is discharged
c) Amount of charge discharged from a battery during a cycle
d) Amount of charge discharged from a battery

Answer: a

79. What is charge-to-discharge ratio?
a) Time taken to charge the device
b) Ratio of time taken to charge the device relative to the time taken to discharge the device
c) Ratio of the amount of charge during charging cycle to the amount of charge during discharge cycle
d) Time taken to discharge the device

Answer: b

80. What is memory effect?
a) Electro-hydrogen generation
b) Pumped storage
c) Remembering a charging level
d) Electric grid

Answer: c

81. Which of the following have large power (>50MW) and storage capacities (>100MWh)?
a) Memory effect
b) Battery energy storage (BES) and flow battery energy storage
c) Super capacitor energy storage and flywheel energy storage
d) Pumped hydro-electric storage and underground pumped hydro-electric storage

Answer: d

82. Efficiency of pumped hydro-electric storage is in the range of _________
a) 50% — 80%
b) 80% — 120%
c) 10% — 20%
d) 45% — 50%

Answer: a

83. How does pumped hydro-electric storage work?
a) Pumps water from higher level to a lower level
b) Pumps water from lower level to higher level
c) Uses electrical energy present in the water
d) Uses nuclear energy present in the water molecules

Answer: b

84. Which of the following is an application of pumped hydro-electric storage?
a) Energy source
b) Frequency regulation only in pumping mode
c) Frequency regulation in both pumping and generation modes
d) Absorbs power to increase the net expenses

Answer: c

85. What is a major disadvantage with pumped hydro-electric system?
a) No dependence on geographical locations
b) Small scale construction for effective functioning
c) Low initial costs of construction
d) Depends on specific geographical locations for the construction of the two reservoirs

Answer: d

86. Which of the following best indicates the flow diagram of storage mode in compressed air energy storage?
a) Power from grid → motor → compressor → storage
b) Power from grid → motor → storage → compressor
c) Power from grid → compressor → motor → storage
d) Motor → power from grid → compressor → storage

Answer: a

87. Which of the following best indicates the flow diagram of power generation mode in compressed air energy storage?
a) Storage → LPT → HPT → generator
b) Storage → HPT → LPT → generator
c) Storage → LPT → generator → HPT
d) HPT → Storage →LPT → generator

Answer: b

88. Which of the following are used for large scale battery energy storage?
a) Li-ion batteries
b) Capacitors
c) Lead acid
d) Reservoirs

Answer: c

89. How does a flow battery energy storage work?
a) Electrolyte tanks → pumps → electrodes → current
b) Electrolyte tanks → pumps → current → electrodes
c) Electrolyte tanks → current → electrodes → pumps
d) Electrolyte tanks → electrodes → current → pumps

Answer: a

90. The central shaft in a flywheel energy storage device rotates on two magnetic bearings.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b

91. Flywheels are used in uninterrupted power supply (UPS).
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

92. Capacitors do not suffer from ________
a) dielectric breakdown
b) material dependence
c) excess electric potential
d) memory effect

Answer: d

1. When is the power density of the absorbing surface equal to the incident sunlight?
a) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are perpendicular to each other
b) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are parallel to each other
c) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an acute angle to each other
d) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an obtuse angle to each other

Answer: d

2. For a fixed receiver, incident power density and received power density are always equal.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

3. What is direct solar radiation?
a) Radiation scattered by molecules
b) Radiation reflected from an obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Sum of diffused and reflected radiation energies

Answer: c

4. What is diffused solar radiation?
a) Sum of direct and reflected radiation energies
b) Radiation reflected from an obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Radiation scattered by molecules

Answer: d

5. Which of the following is tried to maximized in tilted receivers (panels)?
a) Direct radiation
b) Diffused radiation
c) Reflected radiation
d) Diffracted radiation

Answer: a

6. When receivers (panels) are laid horizontally, they usually collect _______
a) Direct radiation
b) Diffused radiation
c) Deflected radiation
d) Heat

Answer: b

7. More the tilt in receivers (panels), larger amounts of diffused radiation is collected.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a

8. What is reflected solar radiation?
a) Sum of direct and reflected radiation energies
b) Radiation reflected from an atmospheric obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Radiation reflected from a non-atmospheric obstacle

Answer: d

9. Reflected solar radiation is used in _______
a) Snowy regions
b) Temperate region
c) Equatorial region
d) Tropical region

Answer: a

10. What is global insolation?
a) Direct radiation + diffused radiation
b) Diffused radiation – direct radiation
c) Direct radiation + diffused radiation + reflected radiation
d) Reflected radiation * direct radiation

Answer: c

11. What is normal radiation?
a) Direct radiation
b) Sun’s radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
c) Incident solar radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
d) Global insolation – direct radiation

Answer: b

12. What is hour angle of the sun?
a) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
b) Angle between the hands of sun dial
c) Angle made by the sun’s rays with moon’s surface
d) Orientation of earth with respect to sun

Answer: d

13. What is solar intensity?
a) Amount of outgoing solar energy
b) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface
c) Amount of outgoing solar energy on a plane surface per unit time
d) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface per unit time per unit area

Answer: d

14. What is solar azimuth angle?
a) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
b) Orientation of moon with respect to sun
c) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
d) Angular distance between zero azimuth and sun’s projection on ground

Answer: d

15. Diffuse radiation models can be classified into ________ and __________
a) direct and reflective
b) adiabatic and isotropic
c) isotropic and anisotropic
d) anisotropic and adiabatic

Answer: c

16. What is biomass?
a) Organic materials from living organisms
b) Inorganic materials from living organisms
c) Inorganic materials from non-living organisms
d) Organic materials from non-living organisms

Answer: a

17. Which of the following can be classified under biomass?
a) Steel
b) Organic molecules containing hydrogen
c) NaOH
d) Iron

Answer: b

18. Which of the following is not used as food for humans?
a) Sugars
b) Glucose
c) Cellulosic matter
d) Fats

Answer: c

19. __________ is an example of cellulosic biomass.
a) Glucose
b) Fats
c) Lipids
d) Agricultural residue

Answer: d

20. Value of any biomass depends on ___________ properties.
a) chemical and physical
b) chemical and photo sensitive
c) physical and photo sensitive
d) the number of carbon molecules and on the number of tin molecules

Answer: a

21. Which of the following are characterizes an ideal energy crop?
a) High yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
b) High yield, low energy input to produce, low cost and low nutrient requirements
c) High yield, high energy input to produce, low cost and high nutrient requirements
d) Low yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements

Answer: b

22. Which energy forms can biomass be converted to?
a) Electrical and light
b) Light and chemical
c) Electrical and heat
d) Heat and light

Answer: c

23. The heating value is expressed in BTU/kg.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

24. What does heat value indicate?
a) Amount of energy consumed by biomass to produce energy
b) Amount of energy required to process biomass to produce energy
c) Amount of energy required as heat by the organisms
d) Amount of energy that is available in the fuel

Answer: d

25. What is higher heating value?
a) Amount of energy available in the fuel + energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
b) Total amount of energy available in the fuel – energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel * energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel

Answer: a

26. What is lower heating value?
a) Amount of energy available in the fuel + energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
b) Total amount of energy available in the fuel – energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel / energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel which cannot be used

Answer: b

27. High moisture fuels burn readily and provide more useful heat per unit mass.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

28. Moisture content can be calculated on two bases, namely _______
a) light and heavy
b) weighted and even
c) wet and dry
d) light and dry

Answer: c

29. What are the main components of cellulosic biomass?
a) Hemicellulose and lignin
b) Hemicellulose and sugars
c) Cellulose, sugars and fats
d) Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin

Answer: d

30. Biomass is seasonal.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

31. Which of the following can be classified under solid biomass?
a) Agricultural residues
b) Waste water
c) Industrial effluents into rivers
d) Plastic

Answer: a

32. What are energy crops?
a) Crops grown to remove insects
b) Crops grown to be used in generating energy
c) Crops grown to feed people
d) Crops that produce energy

Answer: b

33. Which of the following are examples of energy crops?
a) Banyan
b) Mango
c) Herbaceous and woody
d) Apple and herbaceous

Answer: c

34. What are herbaceous crops?
a) Insecticides
b) Rice
c) Agricultural fertilizers
d) Agricultural byproducts

Answer: d

35. Which of the following are examples of woody biomass?
a) Fallen trees due to natural disasters
b) Mint
c) Columbine
d) Agricultural byproducts

Answer: a

36. Which of the following are examples of lipids?
a) Sugar
b) Palm oil
c) Glucose
d) Cellulose

Answer: b

37. Which of the following can be used to replenish nutrients in soil?
a) Steel
b) Soda
c) Biomass ash
d) Coal ash

Answer: c

38. Which of the following is an example of short rotation coppice?
a) Maize
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Willow

Answer: d

39. Algae are used as feedstocks for bioenergy.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

40. Which of the following found in municipal waste can be used as biomass?
a) Agricultural residue
b) Kitchen waste
c) Residential garbage
d) Plastic covers

Answer: b

41. Land fill is an example of wet waste.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b

42. __________ wastes are used as methane boosters.
a) Agricultural
b) Forestry
c) Industrial
d) Municipal

Answer: c

43. __________ biomass is used for waste water treatment.
a) Agricultural
b) Industrial
c) Municipal
d) Aquatic

Answer: d

44. Which of the following parameters is used to define sustainability of biogas feedstock?
a) Heating value
b) Calorific value
c) C:N ratio
d) Thermal voltage

Answer: c

45. Which of the following is not a biomass resource?
a) Animal wastes
b) Forestry residue
c) Agricultural residue
d) Sunlight

Answer: d

46. Which of the following technologies are used to convert biomass into useful energy forms?
a) Bio-chemical process
b) Galvanization
c) Doping
d) Photoelectric effect

Answer: a

47. What are the four main types of thermo-chemical processes?
a) Galvanization, photovoltaic effect, chemo-mechanical effect, pyrolysis
b) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
c) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, doping
d) Photovoltaic effect, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing

Answer: b

48. What are the two primary processes under bio-chemical conversion?
a) Photosynthesis and respiration
b) Photosynthesis and photovoltaic
c) Anaerobic digestion and fermentation
d) Anaerobic digestion and photosynthesis

Answer: c

49. Which of the following is an example of physio-chemical conversion technique to convert biomass into usable forms of energy?
a) Pyrolysis
b) Gasification
c) Anaerobic Digestion
d) Extraction with esterification

Answer: d

50. Which of the following is a product of pyrolysis of biomass?
a) Producer gas
b) Steel
c) Agricultural residue
d) Sodium

Answer: a

51. Pyrolysis occurs in the presence of _______ oxygen.
a) large amounts of
b) absence of
c) extremely large amount of
d) low amounts of

Answer: b

52. Which of the following best indicates the process of gasification?
a) Biomass → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal → carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Biomass → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal
c) Biomass → producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and hydrogen
d) Producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → biomass

Answer: c

53. Which of the following is best suited for hydrothermal processing?
a) Forestry byproducts
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sewage sludge

Answer: d

54. What is hydrothermal processing?
a) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high pressures to produce products of greater energy density
b) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high temperatures to produce products of lower energy density
c) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low pressures to produce products of greater energy density
d) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low temperatures to produce products of lower energy density

Answer: a

55. What is anaerobic digestion?
a) Produces biogas by heating the biomass
b) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in anaerobic conditions
c) Produces biogas by subjecting the biomass to high pressures
d) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in aerobic conditions

Answer: b

56. Catalytic liquefaction occurs at _________
a) low temperature, low pressure
b) high temperature, high pressure
c) low temperature, high pressure
d) high temperature, low pressure

Answer: c

57. Sugarcane is used to produce ethanol.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

58. Which of the following are used to produce ethanol when water is not available in plenty?
a) Sugarcane
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sorghum

Answer: d

59. Which of the following are commonly used in fermentation process?
a) Yeast
b) Bacteria
c) Mushrooms
d) Virus

Answer: a

60. Fermentation is aerobic process.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

61. Which of the following is a product of biomass gasification?
a) Hydrogen
b) Steel
c) Carbon (solid)
d) Iron

Answer: a

62. What is water-gas shift reaction?
a) Carbon dioxide + water → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen + small heat
b) Carbon monoxide + water → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen + small heat
c) Carbon dioxide + water + heat → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen
d) Carbon monoxide + water + heat → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen

Answer: b

63. Which of the following temperature ranges are suitable for biomass gasification?
a) Above 1000 degree Celsius
b) Between 500 and 600 degree Celsius
c) Between 700 and 1000 degree Celsius
d) Less than 500 degree Celsius

Answer: c

64. What are the three main types of gasifiers?
a) Fixed bed, hydrothermal liquefaction and carbonisation
b) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and carbonisation
c) Carbonisation, liquefaction and entrained flow gasifiers
d) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and entrained flow gasifiers

Answer: d

65. Biomass is moved at a very slow rate in fixed bed gasifier.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

66. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into an updraft gasifier?
a) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from top
b) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from bottom
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from top
d) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from bottom

Answer: b

67. What is the contaminant in the product gas that is withdrawn from a low temperature zone in a fixed bed gasifier?
a) Gold
b) Platinum
c) Tar
d) Nickel

Answer: c

68. The product gas removed from the low temperature zone undergoes _______ before being used as fuel in combustion for electricity generator.
a) liquefaction
b) condensation
c) evaporation
d) cleaning

Answer: d

69. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into a downdraft gasifier?
a) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from top
b) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from bottom
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from left side
d) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from right side

Answer: a

70. The tar content of the product gas in downdraft gasifier is _______ updraft gasifier.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) cleaner than

Answer: b

71. Which of the following applications is the product gas from downdraft gasifier suitable for?
a) Fuel for combustion engine
b) Fuel for burning wood
c) Fuel for internal combustion engine
d) Fuel for household purposes

Answer: c

72. Which of the following applications can the producer gas be used for?
a) Producing nickel
b) Producing copper
c) Producing glucose
d) Producing methanol

Answer: d

73. Which of the following are keys to design a gasifier?
a) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen
d) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen

Answer: a

74. How does air enter and exit in a cross-draft gasifier?
a) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the top
b) Air enters from one side and exits from the other
c) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the bottom
d) Air enters from the bottom and exits from the top

Answer: b

75. Ash sticks to the side in a cross-draft gasifier.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

76. Which of the following is a substrate for biogas production?
a) Municipal and residential waste
b) E-waste
c) Metallic waste
d) Gaseous effluents

Answer: a

77. Which of the following is a preferred substrate for biogas production? Note that TS stands for total solids.
a) Less than 1% TS
b) 20-40% TS
c) 1-5% TS
d) 5-10% TS

Answer: b

78. What are the categories for organic dry matter on the basis of total solids (TS)?
a) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and fixed bed
b) Low grade, medium grade, fluidized bed and fixed bed
c) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and solids
d) Downdraft, circulation fluidized bed, high grade and fixed bed

Answer: c

79. Which among the following is the best source for methane production?
a) Metallic scrap
b) E-waste
c) Plastic waste
d) Water hyacinth

Answer: d

80. Which of the following is used to produce biogas from biomass?
a) Anaerobic treatment
b) Aerobic treatment
c) Fermentation
d) Pyrolysis

Answer: a

81. Which of the following best indicates the steps of anaerobic digestion?
a) Waste water feed → biogas storage → generator → biogas
b) Waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage → generator
c) Generator → waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage
d) Waste water feed → biogas → digester → biogas storage → generator

Answer: b

82. Which of the following best indicates the steps inside an anaerobic digester?
a) Hydrolysis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis → acidogenesis
b) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis
c) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → methanogenesis
d) Methanogenesis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → hydrolysis

Answer: c

83. What occurs in the hydrolysis step of anaerobic digestion?
a) Large polymers combine with water molecules
b) Large polymers break down to form water molecules
c) Small polymers combine to form large polymers with the help of water molecules
d) Large polymers break down into amino acids, fatty acids and simple sugars

Answer: d

84. Acidogenesis further break down the molecules received from hydrolysis in anaerobic digestion.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

85. Which of the following is produced in acetogenesis?
a) Ethanol
b) Acetate
c) Acetone
d) Ketone

Answer: b

86. Which of the following is produced apart from acetates in acetogenesis step in anaerobic digestion?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Charcoal
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Acetone

Answer: c

87. What are the two ways to produce methane in methanogenesis step?
a) Converting carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide into methane
b) Converting carbon monoxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
c) Converting methane into carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
d) Converting carbon dioxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane

Answer: d

88. Methanogens can directly use the products of hydrolysis to produce methane.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a

89. What are the two main products of anaerobic digestion?
a) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Methane and carbon dioxide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide
d) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide

Answer: b

90. Gases emitted from the digester indicates the amount of biomass left to be broken down.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

1. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
a) Fossil fuels
b) Sun
c) Biomass
d) Wind

Answer: a

2. Which of the following is a thermal application of solar energy?
a) Photovoltaic
b) Concentrating collectors
c) Solar cell
d) Electricity

Answer: b

3. What is a solar collector?
a) A device that generates current
b) A device that collects and stores sunlight
c) A device that collects and concentrates sunlight
d) A device that filters sunlight

Answer: c

4. What is a non-concentrating solar collector?
a) Collects and stores sunlight
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight
c) Reflects sunlight
d) Directly uses the incoming global radiation

Answer: d

5. What is a concentrating solar collector?
a) Collects and concentrates sunlight on an absorber
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight on a reflector
c) Reflects sunlight
d) Directly uses the incoming global radiation

Answer: a

6. What are the applications of concentrating solar collectors?
a) Domestic water heating
b) Desalination plants
c) Linear focusing
d) Point focusing

Answer: b

7. How does geothermal energy work?
a) Uses water from the earth
b) Uses potential energy
c) Uses heat from the core of earth
d) Uses heat from atmosphere

Answer: c

8. Which of the following do heat pumps use in geothermal energy?
a) Earth’s variable temperature
b) Variable electricity
c) Constant electricity
d) Earth’s constant temperature

Answer: d

9. Which of the following is an application of hydro energy?
a) Flood risk management
b) Generating wind
c) Manufacturing
d) Environment damage

Answer: a

10. Hydro energy provide water for irrigation
a) False
b) True

Answer: b

11. Why are renewable resources preferred?
a) Cheap
b) Profitable
c) Release little greenhouse gases
d) Are freely available

Answer: c

12. Which of the following is a thermal application of biomass?
a) Freezing
b) Anaerobic Digestion
c) Fermentation
d) Combustion

Answer: d

13. Why is biomass gasification useful?
a) To get gases which can be used as fuel
b) To reduce solid waste
c) To increase solid waste
d) Biomass gasifiers are economical

Answer: a

14. Which of the following use producer gas from biomass?
a) Hydrothermal plant
b) Paper and textile industry
c) Wind plants
d) Fuel cells

Answer: b

15. Biomass is used to produce electricity.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

16. How is the heat inside earth restored?
a) Radioactive decay of elements
b) Sun restores the heat
c) Hot steam is pumped into earth
d) Cosmic rays

Answer: a

17. What is the increase in temperature per kilometer starting from the crust?
a) 15 degree Celsius
b) 17 – 30 degree Celsius
c) 100 degree Celsius
d) 50 – 87 degree Celsius

Answer: b

18. What is the earth’s core made up of?
a) Gamma rays
b) Nitrogen
c) Iron
d) Gold

Answer: c

19. Which of the following surrounds the earth’s core?
a) Mt. Everest
b) Crust
c) Hydrogen
d) Mantle

Answer: d

20. What is continental drift?
a) Tectonic plates pushing against each other
b) Continents being pulled due to gravitational force
c) Continents being pulled due to nuclear force
d) Tectonic plates expanding

Answer: a

21. Who initiated electricity generation from geothermal energy?
a) Indians
b) Italians
c) Americans
d) Africans

Answer: b

22. Why did the first Geysers project in California fail?
a) Did not find geothermal site
b) Insufficient steam
c) Corrosion of equipment
d) Availability of pure steam

Answer: c

23. Which of the following countries hosts the largest geothermal field?
a) Iran
b) Italy
c) Australia
d) United States

Answer: d

24. Which of the following is used to locate a geothermal site?
a) Drilling wells
b) Reflection
c) Seismograph
d) SONAR

Answer: a

25. Which of the following is the most probably location of geothermal site?
a) Grasslands
b) Volcanoes
c) Coasts
d) River beds

Answer: b

26. Most of the geothermal activity occurs at ______
a) Ring of water
b) Mt. Everest
c) Ring of fire
d) Amsterdam

Answer: c

27. Which of the following is the major drawback of geothermal energy?
a) Low initial cost
b) Low carbon dioxide production
c) High carbon dioxide production
d) Extremely location specific

Answer: d

28. Geothermal energy has high initial cost.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

29. Which of the following gases is released by a geothermal site and power plant?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Sulphur
c) Iron
d) Steel

Answer: b

30. Lord Kelvin invented the heat pump.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

31. What are the types of geothermal energy resources?
a) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, magma
b) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, sun
c) Biomass, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks
d) Wind, magma, geopressurised brines, hydrothermal

Answer: a

32. What are the forms of geothermal energy?
a) Liquid and solid
b) Liquid and vapour
c) Solid and Bose-Einstein condensate
d) Plasma and liquid

Answer: b

33. What is/are the ingredient in hydrothermal plants?
a) Water
b) Hot water
c) Hot water and steam
d) Steam and water

Answer: c

34. Which of the following naturally occurring heater is best responsible for the hot water in a geothermal site?
a) Solar heater
b) Induction stove
c) Sunlight
d) Magma

Answer: d

35. Which of the following affect the usage of hydrothermal resources?
a) Temperature and depth of the source
b) Temperature and location of the site
c) Location of the site and depth of the source
d) Type of water and steam

Answer: a

36. Which temperature range is most suitable for directly using the hydrothermal resource? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
b) 50 – 60 degree F
c) -100 – -90 degree F
d) -100 – 0 degree F

Answer: b

37. _________ directly use low temperature hydrothermal source.
a) Electricity generation
b) Waste treatment
c) Spas
d) Gas stove

Answer: c

38. Which of the following temperature ranges is most suitable to generate electricity from hydrothermal resources? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
b) 55 – 60 degree F
c) -200 – -90 degree F
d) 300 – 700 degree F

Answer: d

39. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from dry steam?
a) Drilling well → steam → pipes → generator
b) Steam → drilling well → pipes → generator
c) Steam → pipes → drilling well → generator
d) Generator → steam → pipes → drilling well

Answer: a

40. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from hot water geothermal source?
a) Drilling well → hot water → generator → steam
b) Drilling well → hot water → steam → generator
c) Generator → hot water → steam → drilling well
d) Hot water → steam → drilling well → generator

Answer: b

41. What is a binary cycle power plant?
a) Lower temperature hot water is used to cool a fluid which compresses
b) Higher temperature hot water is used to cool a fluid which compresses
c) Lower temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which expands
d) Higher temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which compresses

Answer: c

42. Which of the following is used to run the turbine in a binary cycle power plant?
a) Fluid compressed due to hot water from the geothermal site
b) Hot water
c) Steam
d) Fluid expanded due to hot water from the geothermal site

Answer: d

43. What are geopressurised resources?
a) Increased pressure in the geothermal reservoir
b) Increased temperature in the geothermal reservoir
c) Decreased temperature in the geothermal reservoir
d) Decreased pressure in the geothermal reservoir

Answer: a

44. The pressure inside a geothermal reservoir increases due to the weight of the sediment layer.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

45. Why are geopressurized sites desirably?
a) Because they increase the energy required to pump the resource
b) Because they increase the temperature of the resource
c) Because they decrease the energy required to pump the resource
d) Because they decrease the temperature of the resource

Answer: c

46. Which of the following is a problem with a geothermal resource?
a) Noise pollution
b) Low greenhouse gas emission
c) Polluting water
d) Reversing damage to wildlife habitat

Answer: a

47. Which of the following gases are released by a geothermal power plant?
a) Carbon
b) Sulphur
c) Sulphate
d) Argon

Answer: b

48. Why do binary power plants emit less amounts of pollutants?
a) Because they release steam into the atmosphere
b) Because they release steam into a local water body
c) Because they inject water back into the ground without any atmospheric exposition
d) Because they inject water back into the ground after atmospheric exposition

Answer: c

49. Which of the following best describes the cause for noise pollution due to a geothermal power plant?
a) Emission of gases
b) Ecological destruction
c) Damaging wildlife habitat
d) Drilling wells

Answer: d

50. Geothermal plants use about 20L of fresh water per MWh.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

51. ________ water is used by The Geysers facility in California.
a) Fresh
b) Waste
c) Hot
d) Cold

Answer: b

52. What are the two main land use problems due to a geothermal power plant?
a) Minor earthquakes
b) Minor earthquakes and greenhouse gas emissions
c) Minor earthquakes and subsidence
d) Removal of magma and subsidence

Answer: c

53. How are subsidence and induced seismicity mitigated?
a) By removing the fluid
b) By removing the gas
c) By drilling deeper wells
d) By injecting spent fluid back into the reservoir

Answer: d

54. Geothermal plants are located near the reservoir.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a

55. Which of the following geothermal power plants have no significant impact on natural features.
a) Binary cycle
b) Direct use
c) High temperature
d) Coal

Answer: b

56. Utilizing geothermal resources eliminates _________
a) sulphur emissions
b) usage of power grid
c) mining
d) earthquakes

Answer: c

57. If a geothermal power plant is located near a reservoir, fluid from _______ reservoir is used.
a) the same
b) another neighbouring
c) coal
d) another far away

Answer: d

58. Which of the following is most responsible for increasing usage of geothermal power plants?
a) Efficient heat pumps
b) More sites
c) Less sites
d) Poor heat pumps

Answer: a

59. Which of the following countries mainly use “direct-use” geothermal.
a) United States
b) Iceland
c) Iran
d) Greenland

Answer: b

60. Impacts on land, impacts on surrounding environment and gaseous emissions are the three main problems due to geothermal power plants.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

61. What is tidal power?
a) Energy from tides
b) Energy from water
c) Energy from moon
d) Energy from sun

Answer: a

62. Which of the following categories does tidal power fall into?
a) Hydrothermal
b) Hydropower
c) Solar
d) Wind

Answer: b

63. What is/are the cause(s) of tides?
a) Gravitational pull of moon
b) Gravitational pull of moon and sun
c) Gravitational pull of sun and moon and rotation of earth
d) Gravitational pull of sun

Answer: c

64. What is the minimum height of tides required for harnessing tidal energy economically?
a) 1 foot
b) 5 feet
c) 8 feet
d) 10 feet

Answer: d

65. In terms of predictability, tidal energy _____ solar and wind.
a) is more predictable than
b) is less predictable than
c) has similar predictability like
d) cannot be predicted unlike

Answer: a

66. Tidal barrage is similar to ______
a) wind plant
b) dam
c) wind turbines
d) coal plant

Answer: b

67. Which of the following best describes the working of a tidal barrage for an incoming tide?
a) Incoming tides → generator → barrage → basin
b) Incoming tides → basin → generator → barrage
c) Incoming tides → barrage → basin → generator
d) Generator → barrage → basin → incoming tides

Answer: c

68. Which of the following best describes the working of tidal barrage for outgoing tides?
a) Generator → basin → ocean → outgoing tide
b) Generator → ocean → basin → outgoing tide
c) Ocean → generator → basin → outgoing tide
d) Outgoing tide → generator → basin → ocean

Answer: d

69. Tidal barrages are a two-way tidal power system.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

70. Which of the following is a potential problem of a tidal barrage?
a) Impacts on deep sea/ocean marine life
b) Impacts on estuaries of the tidal basin
c) A two-way tidal power system
d) Decrease in turbidity

Answer: b

71. Which of the following tidal barrages has the largest capacity to generate electricity?
a) La Rance
b) Annapolis Royal
c) The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station
d) Russian tidal plants

Answer: c

72. What are the three ways to harness tidal energy?
a) Tidal streams, tidal barrages and wind
b) Tidal barrages, wind and sun
c) Tidal lagoons, river streams and geothermal reservoirs
d) Tidal lagoons, tidal streams and tidal barrages

Answer: d

73. The United States has an economical tidal power plant.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

74. What is a tidal stream?
a) A river streams
b) A fast-flowing body of water due to tides
c) A fast-flowing body of water deposited into ocean
d) A fast-flowing body of water due to winds

Answer: b

75. Tidal generators produce steady and reliable stream of electricity.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

76. What is ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean waters
b) Harnessing the temperature differences between the coastal waters and deep ocean waters
c) Harnessing the heat energy from the underwater volcanoes
d) Harnessing the heat energy between surface water vapour and atmospheric gases

Answer: a

77. What is the temperature difference used in ocean thermal energy conversion? Note that F denotes Fahrenheit
a) 10 degree F
b) A minimum of 77 degree F
c) Between 50 and 60 degree F
d) A minimum of 100 degree F

Answer: b

78. What is thermohaline circulation?
a) Circulation of halogens throughout the ocean
b) Circulation of halogens due to temperature differences throughout the ocean
c) Large scale ocean circulation driven by global density gradients
d) Large scale halogens circulation due to global density gradients

Answer: c

79. What is the maximum estimated potential of ocean thermal energy conversion per year?
a) 80 GWh
b) 900 MWh
c) 10000 TWh
d) 88000 TWh

Answer: d

80. How does the cold and denser water masses sink to the depths of ocean?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Density gradient
d) Freshwater fluxes

Answer: a

81. Why is ocean thermal energy conversion a renewable resource?
a) Because the temperature gradient lasts for a short period of time
b) Because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters
c) Because ocean water is available in plenty
d) Because of sun’s heat

Answer: b

82. Which of the following are types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Horizontal and vertical
b) Vertical and open cycle
c) Open cycle and closed cycle
d) Horizontal and closed cycle

Answer: c

83. Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion systems?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Refrigerants

Answer: d

84. Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

85. _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) Horizontal
b) Low-pressure
c) High-pressure
d) Vertical

Answer: b

86. Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use _____ as the working fluid.
a) vapour from rivers
b) water from rivers
c) vapour from seawater
d) seawater

Answer: c

87. What is the byproduct of an ocean thermal energy conversion system?
a) Electricity
b) Clean water
c) Water vapour
d) Cold water

Answer: d

88. Where is the world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant located?
a) Japan
b) United States
c) China
d) Korea

Answer: a

89. Which of the following best describes the working of an ocean thermal energy conversion plant?
a) Oceanic water → evaporator → turbine/generator → electricity
b) Warm surface oceanic water → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator → electricity
c) Cold surface oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator
d) Cold deep oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator

Answer: b

90. The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted back into working liquid.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

91. What type of working fluids do closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) systems use?
a) Low boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
b) High boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
c) Low boiling point fluids at 100 bar
d) High boiling point fluids at 100 bar

Answer: a

92. What is the warm surface seawater pumped through in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) system?
a) Heat compressor
b) Heat exchanger
c) Fluid compressor
d) Turbine

Answer: b

93. How is the vapourised working fluid condensed in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system?
a) Warm surface seawater
b) Fresh warm water
c) Cold water from deep ocean
d) Fresh cold water

Answer: c

94. Which of the following organisations developed the “mini OTEC”?
a) CERN
b) NASA
c) ISRO
d) Natural Energy Laboratory

Answer: d

95. The open-cycle OTEC uses working fluid.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a

96. Which of the following best describes the open-cycle OTEC?
a) Warm surface seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
b) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
c) Deep seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
d) Deep seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator

Answer: b

97. Why does an open-cycle OTEC use low-pressure container?
a) To solidify the warm surface seawater
b) To evaporate the deep seawater
c) To boil and evaporate the warm surface seawater
d) To solidify the warm surface seawater

Answer: c

98. Which of the following produces desalinized fresh water?
a) Closed-cycle OTEC
b) Fracking
c) Ammonia
d) Open-cycle OTEC

Answer: d

99. Why does open-cycle OTEC produce desalinized fresh water?
a) Because the vapourised surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in the low-pressure container
b) Because of the working fluid
c) Because the warm surface seawater is mixed with deep ocean water
d) Because of thermohaline circulation

Answer: a

100. Where is the desalinized fresh water used?
a) Sent back into ocean
b) Used for irrigation and aquaculture
c) Used to generate electricity
d) Used to generate tides

Answer: b

101. Which of the following best describes hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
b) Deep seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam vapourises ammonia → turbine
c) Warm surface seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam vapourises ammonia → turbine
d) Deep seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator

Answer: c

102. How does hybrid OTEC provide desalinized water?
a) By evaporating the warm surface seawater
b) By solidifying the warm surface seawater
c) By condensing the steam generated from deep seawater
d) By condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater

Answer: d

103. Which of the following is a good choice for working fluid?
a) CFCs
b) Steam
c) Surface seawater
d) Deep seawater

Answer: a

104. As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine ________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) first increases then decreases

Answer: b

105. The wall thickness of pipes used to transport the vapour increases as the vapour pressure of working fluid increases.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

1. Which of the following supplies maximum amount of hydrogen gas?
a) Natural gas
b) Anaerobic Digestion
c) Wastewater treatment
d) Electrolysis

Answer: a

2. In terms of green house gas emissions, how good or bad is hydrogen fuel?
a) Major contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
b) Zero-emission fuel
c) Lowest contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
d) Hydrogen cannot be used as fuel

Answer: b

3. Which of the following use hydrogen as fuel?
a) Fossil fuels
b) Anerobic digestion
c) Fuel cells
d) Cooking

Answer: c

4. Which of the following is the most popular application of hydrogen fuel cell?
a) Fuel cell vehicles
b) Fuel cell energy power plants
c) Fuel cells stand-alone power supplies
d) Fuel cells spacecraft

Answer: d

5. How is hydrogen gas produced from fossil fuels?
a) Partial oxidation of methane
b) Electrolysis
c) Evaporation
d) Biomass gasification

Answer: a

6. What is the major drawback of steam-methane reforming technique to produce hydrogen?
a) Capital intensive
b) Releases greenhouse gases into atmosphere
c) A niche technology
d) Poor efficiency

Answer: b

7. How does electrolysis produce hydrogen?
a) By running electricity to combine hydrogen and water
b) By separating water into hydrogen and oxygen and generating electricity
c) By passing electricity into water to separate it into hydrogen and oxygen
d) By passing electricity into water to evaporate it into hydrogen

Answer: c

8. Why is hydrogen hazardous as fuel?
a) Because of high ignition and low combustion energy
b) Because of high ignition and high combustion energy
c) Because low ignition and low combustion energy
d) Because of low ignition and high combustion energy

Answer: d

9. Traditionally, why is steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis?
a) Because electrolysis requires electricity
b) Because electrolysis has lower production efficiency
c) Because steam methane reforming produces greenhouse gases
d) Because electrolysis produces greenhouse gases

Answer: a

10. What is the main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles?
a) Capital intensive
b) Storage
c) Fuel cell technology is not well established
d) Cars will become heavy

Answer: b

11. What is a fuel cell?
a) Converts heat energy to chemical energy
b) Converts heat energy to electrical energy
c) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy
d) Converts kinetic energy to heat energy

Answer: c

12. How does hydrogen fuel cell work?
a) Membrane → hydrogen ions → electric current and recombination with oxygen
b) Electric current and recombination with oxygen → hydrogen ions → membrane
c) Hydrogen ions → membrane → electric current and recombination with oxygen
d) Recombination with oxygen → electric current → membrane → hydrogen ions

Answer: d

13. What does hydrogen fuel cell emit?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Greenhouse gas
d) Methane

Answer: a

14. Fuel cell vehicle is sourced by a battery.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

15. High pressure containers are used to store hydrogen.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

16. By what means can hydrogen be stored?
a) Physically and chemically
b) As atoms
c) As ions
d) As fuel cells

Answer: a

17. How is hydrogen stored physically?
a) As atoms
b) By compressing hydrogen gas
c) In the form of hydrides
d) In the form of water

Answer: b

18. How is hydrogen stored chemically?
a) As ions
b) By compressing hydrogen gas
c) In the form of hydrides
d) In the form of ice

Answer: c

19. Hydrogen molecules are dissociated either _________ or _________ to form hydrides.
a) under sunlight or cold temperatures
b) by substitution or electrolysis
c) by electrolysis or heterolytically
d) homolytically or heterolytically

Answer: d

20. Cryogenic adsorption is a physical means to store hydrogen.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

21. What are the main components of a fuel cell?
a) Anode, cathode, electrolyte
b) Anode, cathode, membrane and electrolyte (including fuel)
c) Anode, cathode
d) Anode, cathode, electrolyte and connecting wires

Answer: b

22. What is hydrogen compressor do to hydrogen?
a) Increases both pressure and volume
b) Decreases both pressure and volume
c) Increases pressure and decreases volume
d) Decreases pressure and increases volume

Answer: c

23. What is photocatalytic water splitting?
a) Splitting of water using catalyst and electricity
b) Splitting of water using electricity
c) Combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water
d) Splitting of water using light as catalyst

Answer: d

24. Which of the following uses hydrogen as fuel?
a) Vehicles
b) AA battery
c) AAA battery
d) Power plants

Answer: a

25. Efficiency of water electrolysis is greater than the efficiency of steam reforming.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a