1. The branch of geology which deals with various aspects of rocks is ________________
a) Petrology
b) Mineralogy
c) Lithology
d) Rockology
Answer: a
Explanation: The branch of geology dealing with various aspects of rocks such as their formation, classification and occurrence is called petrology.

2. What are the two conditions believed to be required for the formation of igneous rocks?
a) Low temperature and molten state
b) Molten state and very high temperature
c) Molten state and moderate temperature
d) Crystallized state and moderate temperature
Answer: b
Explanation: A very high temperature and a molten state are, two very important conditions for the original material from which the igneous rocks are believed to have been formed.

3. What is the state of lava or magma?
a) Liquid always
b) Solid
c) Gaseous
d) Mixture of liquid, crystals and gases
Answer: d
Explanation: Magma or lava from which igneous rocks are formed may not be entirely a pure melt: it may have a crystalline or solid fraction and also a gaseous fraction thoroughly mixed with it.

4. Where are the volcanic rocks formed?
a) Under the surface of earth
b) On the surface of earth
c) Inside the core
d) Between mantle
Answer: b
Explanation: Volcanic rocks are the igneous rocks formed on the surface of the Earth by cooling and crystallization of lava erupted from volcanoes.

5. What is the grain size of volcanic rocks?
a) Very coarse
b) Coarse
c) Intermediate
d) Very fine
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the lava cools down at a very fast rate (compared to magma), the grain size of the crystals formed in the volcanic rocks is very fine, often microscope.

6. Magma is hypothetical melt.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Igneous rocks are formed both from magma and lava. It may be mentioned that magma is actually a hypothetical melt. It has not been possible to see it at its place of occurrence.

7. The plutonic rocks are formed at depths below the earth’s surface ranging
a) 10 to 100 km
b) 100 to 200 km
c) 7 to 10 km
d) 1 to 5 km
Answer: c
Explanation: Plutonic rocks are the igneous rocks formed at considerable depths, generally between 7-10 km below the surface of the earth.

8. The rock is coarse grained in __________
a) Volcanic rocks
b) Plutonic rocks
c) Hypabyssal rocks always
d) Not found in igneous rocks
Answer: b
Explanation: Because of a very slow rate of cooling at the depths, the rocks resulting from magma are coarse grained. These rocks get exposed on the surface of the earth as a consequence of erosion of the overlying strata.

9. Pick the plutonic igneous rock.
a) Granite
b) Granite porphyry
c) Syenite porphyry
d) Marble
Answer: a
Explanation: Granites, Syenites and Gabbros are a few examples of Plutonic rocks. They occur in good abundance in both the Peninsular and extra-Peninsular India.

10. The rocks which exhibit mixed characteristics of volcanic and plutonic rocks are __________
a) Intermediate rocks
b) Mixed rocks
c) Hypabyssal rocks
d) Secondary rocks
Answer: c
Explanation: The hypabyssal rocks are the igneous rocks which are formed at intermediate depths, generally up to 2 km below the surface of the earth and exhibit mixed characteristics of volcanic and plutonic rocks.

11. Which of the following is not true about a mineral?
a) Naturally occurring
b) Inorganic substance
c) Organic substance
d) Definite chemical composition
Answer: c
Explanation: A mineral, is defined as, a naturally occurring inorganic solid substance that is characterized with a definite chemical composition and very often with a definite atomic structure.

12. Mineralogy deals with?
a) Individual properties of minerals
b) Formation of minerals
c) More of occurrence
d) Properties, formation and occurrence
Answer: d
Explanation: Mineralogy is the branch of geology dealing with the wide range of aspects related to minerals like their individual properties, mode of occurrence and mode of formation.

13. A colour is produced due to ___________
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Absorption
d) Reflection and absorption
Answer: d
Explanation: A particular colour is produced by reflection of some and absorption of other components of white light.

14. Colour of a mineral depends upon its?
a) Atomic structure
b) Outer surface
c) Composition
d) Atomic structure and composition
Answer: d
Explanation: A mineral shows colour of that wavelength of the white light which is not absorbed by it by virtue of its composition and atomic structure.

15. Metallic minerals belong to which category with respect to colour?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Pseudochromatic
c) Allochromatic
d) Iridescence
Answer: a
Explanation: Idiochromatic having a characteristic, fairly constant colour related primarily to the composition of mineral. Metallic minerals belong to this category.

16. The type of mineral showing variable colour is?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Allochromatic
c) Iridescence
d) Pseudochromatic
Answer: b
Explanation: Allochromatic minerals have a variable colour; the variety in colour is generally due to minute quantities of colouring impurities thoroughly dispersed in the mineral composition.

17. The type of mineral which shows a set of colours in succession is?
a) Idiochromatic
b) Pseudochromatic
c) Allochromatic
d) Iridescence
Answer: b
Explanation: Pseudochromatic minerals show false colour. Such an effect generally happens when a mineral is rotated in hand; it is then seen to show a set colours in succession.

18. Allochromatic minerals may show more than two colours.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Many non-metallic minerals like quartz, calcite, fluorine, tourmaline etc. may occur in more than two colours depending on the nature of impurities.

19. Pseudochromatism occurs due to ___________
a) Reflection
b) Transmittance
c) Refraction
d) Simultaneous reflection and refraction
Answer: d
Explanation: Psuodochromatism is attributed to simultaneous reflection and refraction from the mineral surface due to minute inclusions of impurities in the mineral at different locations.

20. The phenomenon due to which a mineral shows rainbow colours is?
a) Idiochromatism
b) Allochromatism
c) Iridescence
d) Pseudochromatism
Answer: c
Explanation: Some minerals may show rainbow colours either in their interior or on the exterior surface. This is called iridescence.

21. Which mineral group is abundantly found in the earth’s crust?
a) Mica group
b) Felspar group
c) Oxide group
d) Silicate group
Answer: b
Explanation: The felspars (The feldspars in American technology) are the most prominent group of minerals making more than fifty percent, by weight, crust of the Earth up to a depth of 30 km.

22. Felspar is found abundantly or in majority in which kind of rock?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Fossil rocks
Answer: a
Explanation: Felspars occur chiefly, in the igneous rocks (more than 60 percent) but also occur in good proportion in the metamorphic rocks. Felspars are also found in some sedimentary rocks like arkose and greywacks.

23. The chemical composition of the feldspar group is __________
a) Oxide
b) Aluminates
c) Silicates
d) Aluminosilicates
Answer: d
Explanation: In chemical composition, felspars are chiefly aluminosilicates (also referred as alumosilicates) of Na, K and Ca with the following general formula, WZ4O8, in which W=Na, K, Ca and Ba and Z= Si and Al.

24. In the atomic structure, each oxygen atom is shared by how many tetrahedra?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: At atomic level, the felspars show a continuous three-dimensional network type of structure in which the SiO4 tetrahedra are linked at all the corners, each oxygen ion begin shared by two adjacent tetrahedral.

25. The crystallographic system shown by felspar group is __________
a) Monoclinic
b) Triclinic
c) Rhomboclinic
d) Monoclinic and triclinic
Answer: d
Explanation: The felspar group of minerals crystallise only in two crystallographic systems: Monoclinic and triclinic. Infact, the plagioclase division of felspars crystallizes only in triclinic system.

26. How many groups are the felspar minerals classified into, on the basis of chemical composition?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Felspars are classified both on the basis of their chemical composition and also on their mode of crystallization, Chemically, felspars fall into two main groups: the potash felspars and the soda lime felspars.

27. The felspar minerals are free from __________
a) Iron
b) Iron and manganese
c) Magnesium
d) Iron and magnesium
Answer: d
Explanation: The felspar group minerals are generally light in colour, because of the absence of Fe and Mg. The minerals have lower specific gravity (generally around 2.6), have doubly cleavage and a hardness varying between 6-6.5.

28. What is the distinguishing characteristic of microcline and orthoclase?
a) Colour
b) Streak
c) Chemical composition
d) Hardness
Answer: b
Explanation: Both orthoclase and microcline have same colour but microcline gives white streak whereas, orthoclase does not give any streak. Chemical composition and hardness are almost same for both the minerals.

29. Which of the following is not true about plagioclase?
a) It is composed of K mainly
b) It is composed of either Na, Ca, or Al
c) It is of massive or crystalline structure
d) It gives 2 sets of cleavages
Answer: a
Explanation: Plagioclase is usually composed of either Na or Ca or Al or combination of them. K is present in orthoclase and not in plagioclase.

30. Microcline can be easily distinguished from orthoclase.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The microcline mineral is not easily distinguished in hand specimens from orthoclase except when perfectly crystallized.

31. Granite belongs to which mode of occurrence of igneous rock?
a) Volcanic rocks
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Volcanic and hypabyssal
Answer: b
Explanation: Granites may be defined as plutonic light coloured igneous rocks. These are among the most common igneous rocks.

32. The two most common mineral found in granites are ___________
a) Diamond and mica
b) Mica and orthoclase
c) Quartz and felspar
d) Felspar and corundum
Answer: c
Explanation: Two most common and essential mineral constituents of granite are: Quartz and Felspar.

33. Which is the most important accessory mineral in granite?
a) Felspar
b) Quartz
c) Topaz
d) Mica
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the accessory minerals in granites, micas deserve the first mention. Both varieties are present in small proportions in most granites.

34. The texture of granite is ___________
a) Equigranular
b) Directive
c) Inequigranular
d) Intergrowth
Answer: a
Explanation: Granites are generally coarse to medium grained, holocrystalline and equigranular rocks.

35. Syenites belong to which mode of occurrence?
a) Volcanic rocks
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Concordant
Answer: b
Explanation: Syenites are defined as igneous, plutonic, even-grained rocks in which alkali-felspars are the chief constituent minerals.

36. Syenites show similar textures of granites.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Syenites show textures broadly similar to those of granites, that is, they are coarse to medium-grained, holocrystalline in nature and exhibiting graphic, inter-growth or porphyiritic relationship among its constituents.

37. What is the usual colour of gabbro?
a) White
b) Yellow
c) Black
d) Blue
Answer: c
Explanation: Gabbros are usually found in black colour. Sometimes they are also found in other shades of dark grey and dark brown.

38. What is the mode of formation of gabbro?
a) Volcanic
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Dykes
Answer: b
Explanation: Gabbros are coarse-grained plutonic rocks of basic character. Plagioclase felspars of lime-soda composition are the chief constituents of gabbros.

39. Pick the igneous rock whose mode of occurrence is volcanic.
a) Basalt
b) Granite
c) Gabbro
d) Syenite
Answer: a
Explanation: Basalts are volcanic igneous rocks formed by rapid cooling from lava flows from volcanoes either over the surface or under water on oceanic floors.

40. What can be said about the grain size of pegmatite?
a) Fine grained
b) Medium grained
c) Fine to medium grained
d) Coarse grained
Answer: d
Explanation: Pegmatites are exceptionally coarse-grained igneous rocks formed from hydrothermal solutions emanating from magmas that get cooled and crystallized in cavities and cracks around magmatic intrusions.

41. The process not contributing to clastic rocks is _____________
a) Weathering
b) Oxidation
c) Erosion
d) Deposition
Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanically formed sedimentary rocks undergo processes like- weathering, erosion, transport, deposition and diagenesis. Oxidation is considered under to be a non-clastic cause.

42. What is the size required for a particle to be called gravel?
a) Greater than 1 mm
b) Lesser 1 mm
c) Greater than 2 mm
d) Lesser than 1 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: All sediments and clastic fragments of rocks above the size of 2 mm irrespective of their composition and shape are broadly termed as gravels.

43. What is not true about silts?
a) They are coarser than sand
b) They are finer than sand
c) They are further divided into fine, medium and fine silts
d) They are major constituents of shale
Answer: a
Explanation: Silts are very fine-sized particles of varying composition lying in the range 1/16 mm and 1/256 mm. they are further divided into three categories, fine, medium and coarse. The silts are the major constituents of rocks known as shales.

44. What is the average grain size of rudaceous rocks?
a) Greater than 1 mm
b) Lesser 1 mm
c) Greater than 2 mm
d) Lesser than 1 mm
Answer: c
Explanation: Rudites or rudaceous rocks include all coarse-grained rocks of heterogeneous composition. The average grain size of the constituents in rudites is greater than 2 mm.

45. Give an example for rudaceous rock.
a) Breccia
b) Shale
c) Limestone
d) Sandstone
Answer: a
Explanation: In rudaceous rocks gravels are held together in the form of a rock by natural cementing material. Breccias and conglomerates are important examples of rudites.

46. Rudites are also called as ____________
a) Arenites
b) Psamites
c) Lutites
d) Psephites
Answer: d
Explanation: Rudites or rudaceous rocks are also called as psephites. Rudites are made up of boulders, cobbles and pebbles collectively known as gravels.

47. The arenaceous rocks have the grain size equal to ____________
a) Gravel
b) Sand
c) Silt
d) Clay
Answer: b
Explanation: The arenites are also called as arenaceous rocks. These are made up of sediments of sand grade (2mm-1/16 mm).

48. An example for arenite would be ____________
a) Breccia
b) Shale
c) Limestone
d) Sandstone
Answer: d
Explanation: In a particular rock, the sand grains of a particular size range may be predominating giving rise to coarse, medium and fine arenites. Sandstones, greywackes and arkoses are common types of arenites.

49. Which of the following are finest grain sized?
a) Rudaceous rocks
b) Arenaceous rocks
c) Argillaceous rocks
d) Psephites
Answer: c
Explanation: Argillaceous rocks are also called as lutites. Lutites may be defined as sedimentary rocks of the finest grain-size. They are made up of silt and clay grades.

50. A clastic rock might not have more than one grade.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Many times a clastic rock may be made of sediments of more than one grade. It is the dominant grade that is taken into consideration while classifying the rock.

51. The type of metamorphism in which heat factor has played an important role is ____________
a) Dynamic metamorphism
b) Thermal metamorphism
c) Thermodynamic metamorphism
d) Barometric metamorphism
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal metamorphism is a general term including a variety of metamorphic processes in which the heat factor has played an important role.

52. Which type of metamorphism is common in rocks close to magmatic intrusions?
a) Contact metamorphism
b) Pyrometamorphism
c) Plutonic metamorphism
d) Dyke metamorphism
Answer: a
Explanation: Contact metamorphism is a common type of thermal observed in rocks existing close to the magmatic intrusions, injections and lava flows.

53. Type of metamorphism where part of country rock may get entrapped within magmatic body is ____________
a) Contact metamorphism
b) Pyrometamorphism
c) Plutonic metamorphism
d) Dyke metamorphism
Answer: b
Explanation: Pyrometamorphism is a type of thermal metamorphism in which case a part of country rock may actually get entrapped within a magmatic body. The effects result due to intense localized heating.

54. Metamorphism involving both temperature and load is ____________
a) Contact metamorphism
b) Pyrometamorphism
c) Plutonic metamorphism
d) Dyke metamorphism
Answer: c
Explanation: Plutonic metamorphism is a process of metamorphism that takes place due to equally important role of imposed loads and very high temperatures that become natural at those great depths.

55. Which kind of metamorphism is also called dislocation metamorphism?
a) Dynamic metamorphism
b) Thermal metamorphism
c) Thermodynamic metamorphism
d) Barometric metamorphism
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic metamorphism is also called clastic metamorphism, mechanical metamorphism or dislocation metamorphism and is brought about by conditions in which pressure factor plays a dominant role.

56. In which metamorphism there is almost no or little new mineral is formed?
a) Dynamic metamorphism
b) Thermal metamorphism
c) Thermodynamic metamorphism
d) Barometric metamorphism
Answer: a
Explanation: In the dynamic metamorphism, there is no or very little formation of new minerals. These are the original textures and structures of the rocks that are partially or totally obliterated.

57. Most prevalent kind of metamorphism is ____________
a) Dynamic metamorphism
b) Thermal metamorphism
c) Thermodynamic metamorphism
d) Barometric metamorphism
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermodynamic is also referred as regional metamorphism and may be considered as the most important as well as prevalent type of metamorphic processes.

58. Dynamothermal or thermodynamic metamorphism involves action of ____________
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Fluids
d) Temperature, pressure and fluids
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermodynamic metamorphism involves the development of large-scale changes in the structural and chemical constitution of the pre-existing rocks under the combined action of pressure, temperature and fluids.

59. When the pressure acting on rock is of hydrostatic type then it is called ____________
a) Pressure metamorphism
b) Load metamorphism
c) Secondary metamorphism
d) Clastic metamorphism
Answer: b
Explanation: Sometimes the pressure is of the type of hydrostatic type such as load of the overlying rocks. The process is then called load metamorphism.

60. The kind metamorphism which occurs in the direction of mineralogical reconstitution is ____________
a) Dynamic metamorphism
b) Thermal metamorphism
c) Thermodynamic metamorphism
d) Barometric metamorphism
Answer: b
Explanation: In all types of thermal metamorphism the change is generally in the direction of mineralogical reconstitution. These processes may induce changes varying from simple baking effect to complete or nearly complete recrystallization of almost all original minerals

61. Slate is originated from which rock?
a) Sandstone
b) Granite
c) Shale
d) Basalt
Answer: c
Explanation: Slate is a product of low-grade regional metamorphism of argillaceous rocks like clays and shales.

62. Low grade schist is formed under what conditions?
a) Low temperature and local metamorphism
b) High temperature and local metamorphism
c) Low temperature and regional metamorphism
d) Low temperature and regional metamorphism
Answer: c
Explanation: Low grade schists are formed under conditions of regional metamorphism at low temperature. These are rich in minerals like albite, muscovite and chlorite that are unstable at high temperature.

63. What is the grain size of slate rock?
a) Fine
b) Medium
c) Coarse
d) Very coarse
Answer: a
Explanation: Slate is an extremely fine-grained metamorphic rock characterized by a slaty cleavage by virtue of which it can be readily split into thin sheets having parallel smooth surfaces.

64. High grade schist is formed under what conditions?
a) Local metamorphism
b) Regional metamorphism
c) Displacement metamorphism
d) Chain metamorphism
Answer: b
Explanation: High grade schists are formed under conditions of regional metamorphism and atoms rich in minerals that are stable at high temperatures such as garnet.

65. Examples of high grade schist is ___________
a) Talc- schist
b) Garnet-schist
c) Chlorite-schist
d) Mica-schist
Answer: b
Explanation: Garnet-schists, cordierite-schists and staurolite-schists are common examples of some high grade schists.

66. Special property of talc schist is __________
a) Colour
b) Its structure
c) Soapy feel
d) Good odour
Answer: c
Explanation: Talc schist is a low grade schist and its special property is that it gives a soapy feel when touched with bare hands.

67. Gneiss formed from sedimentary rock is called __________
a) Orthogneiss
b) Paragneiss
c) Banded gneiss
d) Augen gneiss
Answer: b
Explanation: Paragneiss are formed from the metamorphism of sedimentary rocks like sandstone. Orthogneiss formed as a result of metamorphism of granites and other igneous rocks.

68. The similar type of rock to quartzite which is sedimentary is __________
a) Compound quartzite
b) Orthoquartzite
c) Holo-quartzite
d) Accu-quartzite
Answer: b
Explanation: The name orthoquartzite is used for a sedimentary rock of similar composition but having different origin, in which quartz grains are cemented together by siliceous cement.

1. What are the undulations or bends developed in rocks called?
a) Faults
b) Joints
c) Folds
d) Uncomformity
Answer: c
Explanation: Folds may be defined as undulations or bends or curvatures developed in the rocks of the crust as a result of stresses to which these rocks have been subjected from time to time in the past history of the Earth.

2. Folds develop in which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Any type of rock
Answer: d
Explanation: The folds may develop in any type of rock and may be of any shape and flexures.

3. Which type of deformation is folding?
a) Brittle
b) Ductile
c) Tensile
d) Malleable
Answer: b
Explanation: In general, folding is a ductile type of deformation experienced by the rocks compared to the brittle deformation where the rocks actually get broken and displaced when stressed.

4. Folding is ________ process.
a) Very slow
b) Rapid
c) Quick
d) Moderate rate
Answer: a
Explanation: Folding is a very slow geological process and indicates an effort of the rocks in a particular environment to adjust themselves to the changing force fields operating on, within or around them.

5. Which among the following is not a part of fold?
a) Limbs
b) Hinge
c) Axis of fold
d) Height of fold
Answer: d
Explanation: Parts of a fold include, limbs, hinge, axis of a fold, plunge of a fold and crest & trough. Height of fold is not referred as its part.

6. The minimum number of limbs for a fold are _____________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: An individual fold will have a minimum of two limbs but when the folds occur in groups, as this is common, a middle limb will be common to two adjacent folds.

7. The point where the curvature is maximum is ________
a) Hinge
b) Axial surface
c) Nucleus
d) Fold point
Answer: a
Explanation: In a folded layer, a point can be found where curvature is maximum and one limb ends and the other limb starts from that point. This is the hinge point.

8. When the plunge said to be zero, then the axis of the fold is said to be ____________
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined at 60° to the horizontal
d) Inclined at 60° to its normal.
Answer: b
Explanation: Axis is a line and plunge is the angle which the line makes with a horizontal. A fold having a horizontal axis will obviously have a zero plunge.

9. The crest and trough may or may not coincide with the axis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The line running through the highest points in an uparched fold defines the crest and similarly the line running through the lowest point in a downarched fold makes its trough. The crest and trough may or may not coincide with the axis of the fold.

10. What is the axis of a fold?
a) Line drawn normal to the hinge line
b) Line drawn at 60° to hinge line
c) Line drawn parallel to hinge line
d) Line which doesn’t pass through hinge line.
Answer: c
Explanation: Axis of fold is defined as a line drawn parallel to the hinge line of a fold. In other words, line representing the intersection of the axial plane of a fold with any bed of the fold.

11. Pick the option which is not the cause of folding.
a) Folding due to tangential tension
b) Folding due to tangential compression
c) Folding due to intrusions
d) Folding due to differential compression
Answer: a
Explanation: The various causes of folding that are studied are, folding due to- tangential compression, intrusions and differential compression. Hence first option is not correct.

12. Bending or warping is studied under ___________
a) Tectonic folding
b) Non-tectonic folding
c) Volcanic folding
d) Intrusional folding
Answer: b
Explanation: Folding may be either due to tectonic causes or due to non-tectonic causes. The tectonic folding of the rocks is bending or warping of rocks due very conspicuously to superficial processes.

13. The cause of folding which does not occur due to the tangential stresses is ___________
a) Flexural folding
b) Flexural creeping
c) Flowage folding
d) Shear folding
Answer: b
Explanation: Under the influence of tangential stresses, folding may develop in either of the three ways: flexural folding, flowage folding and shear folding.

14. How does the thickness of the layer affect flexural folding?
a) Thinner the layers, greater is the slip
b) Thicker the layers, lesser is the slip
c) Thicker the layers, greater is the slip
d) Has no effect
Answer: c
Explanation: Thickness of the layers and nature of the contact are important factors on which the amount of slip depends. Thicker the layer, greater is the slip.

15. Which are the rocks more prone to flexural slip?
a) Shale
b) Basalt
c) Soft clay
d) Limestone
Answer: d
Explanation: Types of the rocks involved: siltstones, sandstones and limestones are more prone to flexure slip folding compared to soft clays and shales.

16. In which cause of folding, the thickness of fold does not remain uniform?
a) Flexural folding
b) Shear folding
c) Flowage folding
d) Flexural tension
Answer: c
Explanation: During the compression due to flowage folding, the material of the involved layers behaves almost as a viscous or plastic mass and gets buckled up and deformed at varying rates suffering unequal distortion. In such cases the thickness of the resulting fold does not remain uniform.

17. Flowage folding occurs in which type of rocks?
a) Competent rocks
b) Incompetent rocks
c) Any rock
d) Sedimentary rock
Answer: b
Explanation: Flowage folding is the principal process of folding in incompetent or weaker, plastic type of rocks such as clays, shales, gypsum and rock salt etc.

18. How does the distance from hinge point affect displacement due to folding?
a) Greater the distance, larger is the displacement
b) Lesser the distance, larger is the displacement
c) Doesn’t depend on the distance from hinge point
d) Greater the distance, smaller is the displacement
Answer: a
Explanation: Distance from hinge point is also an important factor on which displacement of folding depends. Greater the distance from the hinge points, larger is the displacement.

19. Flexural folding is also called as “flexural-slip-folding”.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: Flexural folding is also distinguished as flexural-slip-folding in which the slip or movement of the strata involved takes place parallel to the bedding planes of the layers.

20. The process of folding which causes fracture in rocks initially is ___________
a) Flexural folding
b) Flowage folding
c) Shear folding
d) Intrusion folding
Answer: c
Explanation: In many cases, folding is attributed to shearing stresses rather than simple compression. It is assumed that in such a process, numerous closely spaced fractures develop in the rock at the first stage of the process.

21. The type of fold in which the limbs dip away from each other at the crest is ______________
a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) Countercline
d) Doesn’t exist
Answer: a
Explanation: Anticlines are defined as those folds in which the limbs dip away from each other at the crest in the simplest forms.

22. The fold which is convex downwards is ___________
a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) U-cline
d) Crestcline
Answer: b
Explanation: Synclines are the reverse of anticlines in all details and the strata are downarched, that is, these become convex downwards.

23. Which of the following is not true about Anticline?
a) The strata are uparched
b) Geologically older rocks occupy a position in the interior of the fold
c) The limbs dip away from each other at the crest
d) They are convex downwards
Answer: d
Explanation: Anticlines are said to convex upwards and not downwards. Synclines are convex downwards.

24. What is the other name for upright fold?
a) Symmetrical fold
b) Asymmetrical fold
c) Overturned fold
d) Isoclinal fold
Answer: a
Explanation: Symmetrical folds are also called normal folds or upright folds. In such a fold, the axial plane is essentially vertical.

25. Fold in which the limbs lie exactly one over another?
a) Isoclinal
b) Symmetrical
c) Recumbent
d) Asymmetrical
Answer: c
Explanation: In recumbent folds, one limb comes to lie exactly under the other limb so that a drill hole dug at the surface in the upper limb passes through the lower limb also.

26. Which of the following is also an overturned fold?
a) Isoclinal fold
b) Symmetrical fold
c) Asymmetrical fold
d) Recumbent fold
Answer: d
Explanation: Recumbent folds are described as extreme types of overturned folds in which the axial plane acquires an almost horizontal attitude.

27. Fold with flattened top is ___________
a) Square fold
b) Plateau fold
c) Box fold
d) Conjugate fold
Answer: c
Explanation: Box fold may be described as a special type of fold with exceptionally flattened top and steep inclined limbs almost forming three sides of a rectangle.

28. The type of fold in which fold angle is between 10° to 90°?
a) Tight fold
b) Loose fold
c) Gentle fold
d) Acute fold
Answer: a
Explanation: When it comes to fold angle as the basis of classification, the fold with a fold angle between 10° and 90° is called tight fold.

29. Which of the following is not a type of fold based on behaviour with depth?
a) Concentric fold
b) Similar fold
c) Supratenuous fold
d) Asymmetrical fold
Answer: d
Explanation: The first three options are the types based on behaviour with depth where asymmetric fold is based on position of axial plane.

30. Isogans converge inwards in class 1 folds.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In class 1 folds, isogans converge inwards whereas in class 3, these converge upwards.

31. What are the fractures along which there has been relative movement of blocks called?
a) Folds
b) Joints
c) Faults
d) Intrusions
Answer: c
Explanation: The definition of faults is “Those fractures along which there has been relative movement of the blocks past each other”. The entire process of development of fractures and displacement of the blocks against each other is termed as faulting.

32. What is the key word in the definition of fault?
a) Fracture
b) Movement
c) Both fracture and movement
d) Dip
Answer: c
Explanation: The key words in the definition are fracture and movement. The exact significance of these key words must be clearly understood.

33. For a rock structure to be called fault, fracture has to happen but movement is not necessary.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There can be no fault if there is no fracture surface or zone and also evidence of some relative movement of the blocks against each other is a must for qualifying that fracture as a fault.

34. Faulting is a _________ process.
a) Tectonic
b) Non-tectonic
c) Both tectonic and non-tectonic
d) Precipitation
Answer: a
Explanation: Faulting is a major tectonic process of great geological importance. The geological history of the Earth bears innumerable events recording in the script of folding, faulting and jointing.

35. In which direction does the displacement of blocks happen?
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Any direction
Answer: d
Explanation: The displacement of blocks created in the rock due to faulting may take place in any direction: parallel to the fault surface; in an inclined manner or even rotational.

36. What is the angle that can be made by fault plane with the horizontal?
a) Acute angle only
b) Obtuse angle only
c) Right angle
d) Any angle
Answer: d
Explanation: Fault planes may be vertical, horizontal or inclined at any angle with the horizontal.

37. What is the planar surface of fracture along which relative displacement of bodies has taken place called?
a) Fault plane
b) Fold plane
c) Stress plane
d) Strain plane
Answer: a
Explanation: Fault plane is the planar surface of fracture along which relative displacement of the blocks takes place during the process of faulting. When it is not planar, the same surface is simply described as fault surface.

38. What is the angle of fault plane with the horizontal called?
a) Hade
b) Strike
c) Dip
d) Inclination
Answer: c
Explanation: The dip of the fault is its inclination with the horizontal as measured in a vertical plane at right angles to the strike of the fault.

39. Parameter(s) considered for dip is ___________
a) Direction
b) Angle
c) Direction and angle
d) Neither direction nor angle
Answer: c
Explanation: The dip is measured both in terms of the direction of dip as well as angle of dip just as in the bedding plane of strata.

40. What is hade?
a) Inclination of fault with horizontal
b) Inclination of fault with vertical
c) Inclination of fault with any strata
d) Bearing of the fault with ground
Answer: b
Explanation: The hade of the fault is the angle which the fault makes with the vertical. In other words, it is the complimentary to the dip angle.

41. Which type of classification emphasises on appearance?
a) Based on direction of slip
b) Based on apparent movement
c) Based on mode of occurrence
d) Based on amount of dip of the fault
Answer: b
Explanation: The emphasis in the case of faults based on apparent movement as basis is only on appearance because actually it may require to be established which of the two parts, hanging wall and the foot wall, has moved during faulting and by how much.

42. Type of fault not considered under apparent movement as basis is ___________
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Hinge fault
d) Strike fault
Answer: d
Explanation: The various faults under apparent movement as basis are, normal faults, reverse faults, hinge faults and strike-slip faults. Strike faults is not studied under this basis.

43. Fault in which hanging wall has apparently moved down with respect to foot wall is ___________
a) Normal fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Hinge fault
Answer: a
Explanation: Normal fault is a fault in which hanging wall has apparently moved down with respect to foot wall.

44. What do the normal faults cause to the crust of the Earth?
a) Shortening of crest
b) Cracking of crest
c) Extension in the crust
d) Strengthening of crust
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to the inclines nature of the fault plane and downward displacement of a part of the strata, normal faults cause an extension in the crust wherever they occur.

45. It can be with certainty whether it was the hanging wall which moved down or the foot wall which moved up.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Nothing can be said with certainty whether it was the hanging wall which moved down or the foot wall which moved up or both the walls moved down, the hanging wall moving more than the foot wall and hence the appearance.

46. Most common angle of normal faults is ___________
a) 30° to 45°
b) 45° to vertical
c) 60° to horizontal
d) 0° to 180°
Answer: b
Explanation: In normal faults, the fault plane may be inclines at any angle between horizontal and vertical, but most commonly, the fault angles are between 45° and vertical.

47. What is the other name for normal faults?
a) Uniform faults
b) Hade faults
c) Similar faults
d) Gravity faults
Answer: d
Explanation: Normal faults are also often termed as gravity faults especially when it is established that the hanging wall has actually moved down with respect to the foot wall.

48. Alps in an example of which type of fault?
a) Graben
b) Horst
c) Hinge fault
d) Vertical fault
Answer: b
Explanation: Numerous small and big examples of horsts are found in major mountain systems such as Alps, Central Europe and East Africa.

49. Horst and graben are physiographic features of which type of faults?
a) Normal faults
b) Reverse faults
c) Thrust faults
d) Strike-slip faults
Answer: a
Explanation: Horst and graben are the physiographic features caused by normal faults occurring in pairs.

50. The type of fault which appears in such a way that the central wedge appears raised high up with respect to the sides is ___________
a) Graben
b) Horst
c) Nappe
d) Thrust
Answer: b
Explanation: When two normal faults appear on either side of a central wedge shaped elongated block in such a way that the central wedge appears raised high up with respect to the sides, the outstanding structure is called a horst.

51. The classification which is not considered under study is ___________
a) Spatial relationship
b) Number of joints
c) Geometry
d) Genesis
Answer: b
Explanation: Joints have been classified on the basis of spatial relationships, geometry and genesis.

52. The type of joint which can be measured and mapped easily is ___________
a) Systematic joints
b) Non-systematic joints
c) Irregular joints
d) Homogenous joints
Answer: a
Explanation: Systematic joints show a distinct regularity in their occurrence which can be measured and mapped easily.

53. Example of systematic joints are ___________
a) Columnar joints
b) Mural joints
c) Sheet joints
d) Columnar and mural joints
Answer: d
Explanation: Systematic joints occur in parallel or sub-parallel joint sets that are represented in the rocks at regular intervals. The columnar joints and the mural joints are examples of regular or systematic jointing.

54. How many groups are classified based on the presence of regularities?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: All joints are divided into two main groups on the basis of presence or otherwise of some regularity in their occurrence.

55. Which type of rocks are classified based on geometry?
a) Pseudo-stratified
b) Stratified
c) Non-stratified
d) Anisotropic
Answer: b
Explanation: In stratified rocks, joints are generally classified on the basis of the relationship of their attitude with that of the rocks in which they occur.

56. How many types are further classified based on geometry?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: Under the classification based on geometry, three types are recognized: Strike joints, dip joints, oblique joints.

57. The type of joint not studied under the geometry as basis is ___________
a) Strike joints
b) Dip joints
c) Hade joints
d) Oblique joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Only three types of joints are studied under the classification of joints on the basis of geometry; strike joints, dip joints and oblique joints. Hade joint is not a type of joint.

58. What is the other name for diagonal joints?
a) Dip joints
b) Strike joints
c) Sheet joints
d) Oblique joints
Answer: d
Explanation: Oblique joints are those joints where the strike of the joints is at any angle between the dip and the strike of the layers. These layers are also called diagonal joints when they occur midway between the dip and strike of the layers.

59. Joints parallel to bedding planes are called ___________
a) Strike joints
b) Bedding joints
c) Dip joints
d) Oblique joints
Answer: b
Explanation: In stratified rocks, some joints ma develop essentially parallel to the bedding planes. These are simply referred as bedding planes.

60. Non-systematic joints occur at random in the rocks.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-systematic or irregular joints appear at random in the rocks and may have incompletely defined surfaces. In many cases, these are related to the systematic joints in that these occur between them.

61. What is responsible for jointing of rocks?
a) Genesis
b) Forces acting on the rock
c) Genesis and various forces acting on the rock
d) Precipitation
Answer: c
Explanation: We may find quite a large proportion of outcrop of any of these rocks practically free from joints at some places, but at other places the same type of rock may be heavily jointed, showing cracks of greater variety. Hence it is not only genesis of the rocks which responsible for these structures but also the forces acting on them.

62. Fractures along which there has been no relative displacement is called?
a) Faults
b) Joints
c) Folds
d) Intrusions
Answer: b
Explanation: Joints are defined as divisional planes or fractures along which there has been no relative displacement.

63. Joint is always accompanied by opening.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Joints may be open or closed. Open joints are those in which the blocks have been separated or opened up for small distances. In closed joints, there is no such separation.

64. The open joints are gradually enlarged due to ___________
a) Rains
b) Winds
c) Weathering
d) Sunlight
Answer: c
Explanation: Open joints are those in which the blocks have been separated or opened up for small distances in a direction at right angles to the fracture surface. These may be gradually enlarged by weathering processes and develop fissures in the rocks.

65. The type of joint usually found is ___________
a) Open joints
b) Close joints
c) Open and close joints
d) Faulted joints
Answer: c
Explanation: There may be or may not be an opening up of blocks perpendicular to the joint planes. Hence the joints may be of open or close nature.

66. When the joints are prominent and extending for considerable depth they are called ___________
a) Continuous joints
b) Discontinuous joints
c) Deep joints
d) Prominent joints
Answers: a
Explanation: The joints which are quite prominent and extending for considerable depth and thickness are called as continuous joints.

67. What are the continuous joints also called?
a) Uniform joints
b) Normal joints
c) Prime joints
d) Master joints
Answer: d
Explanation: The continuous joints are also called often as master joints. Almost all joints are discontinuous in the strict sense because these disappear with depth in the crust of the earth.

68. The streaks or bands filling material in the rocks are called ___________
a) Colour pigments
b) Resins
c) Veins
d) Pores
Answer: c
Explanation: In many cases, open joints get filled up by solutions of secondary materials that crystallize or precipitate there forming thin or thick streaks or bands of the filling material. These are simply called veins.

69. When the thickness is greater than 20 cm, the veins area called ___________
a) Thick veins
b) Fissure veins
c) Joint veins
d) Broad veins
Answer: b
Explanation: The thin or thick filling material in the joints of the rocks are called as veins when thin and when their thickness exceeds 20 cm they are called fissure veins.

70. Joints do not have dip and strike.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: Joints have dip and strike, the dip being their inclination with the horizontal and the strike being the direction of intersection of a joint plane with a horizontal plane.

71. Tensile stresses in igneous rocks are developed during ___________
a) Cooling
b) Crystallisation
c) Cooling and crystallisation
d) Molten state
Answer: c
Explanation: The igneous rocks are formed by cooling and crystallisation of hot molten material called magma or lava. As such, in most cases they show joint systems related to the tensile stresses developing during the process of cooling and crystallisation.

72. The type of regular joint not belonging to igneous rocks is?
a) Sheet jointing
b) Box jointing
c) Mural jointing
d) Columnar jointing
Answer: b
Explanation: The three regular or systematic types of joints observed in igneous rocks are: sheet joints, mural joints and columnar joints.

73. Which jointing gives layered sedimentary structure appearance?
a) Sheet jointing
b) Mural jointing
c) Box jointing
d) Columnar jointing
Answer: a
Explanation: In granites and other related igneous rocks, a horizontal set of joints often divides the rock mass in such a way as to give it an appearance of a layered sedimentary structure, called in this case as a sheeting structure.

74. Sheet joints are caused not due to ___________
a) Consequence of loading
b) Weathering
c) Removal of overlying rock mass
d) Consequence of unloading
Answer: a
Explanation: Sheet joints are sometimes caused due to weathering and removal of overlying rock masses, which cause expansion of the underlying igneous and other rocks as a consequence of unloading.

75. The geometrical distribution where rock mass is divided into cubes is ___________
a) Sheet jointing
b) Mural jointing
c) Columnar jointing
d) Radial jointing
Answer: b
Explanation: Mural jointing is a sort of geometrical distribution of joints dividing the rock mass into cubical blocks or murals and hence the name.

76. Types of joint found in volcanic igneous rocks are?
a) Sheet joints
b) Mural joints
c) Columnar joints
d) Radial joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Columnar joints are typical of volcanic igneous rocks although they may also be observed in other rocks.

77. Columnar joints are also called ___________
a) Radial joints
b) Pyramid joints
c) Prismatic joints
d) Box joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Columnar joints are also called as prismatic joints. The joints divide the rock mass into polygonal blocks each block being bounded by three to eight sides.

78. How are the main joints aligned to the cooling surface?
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) At 45°
d) At 30°
Answer: a
Explanation: Normally, the main joints are vertical or perpendicular to the cooling surface and may extend to varying depths ranging a few centimetres to many metres.

79. How and what are the polygonal cracks related to?
a) Directly related to compressive forces
b) Directly related to tensile forces
c) Inversely related to tensile forces
d) Directly related to shearing forces
Answer: b
Explanation: The polygonal cracks are thought to be directly related to the tensile forces developed during cooling (accompanied by contraction) of hot molten material (lava).

80. The contraction is equally developed in all directions in which kind of mass?
a) Non-homogenous
b) Isotropic
c) Anisotropic
d) Homogenous
Answer: d
Explanation: In a homogenous mass undergoing uniform cooling throughout the surface, contraction is equally developed in all directions.

1. Tensile stresses in igneous rocks are developed during ___________
a) Cooling
b) Crystallisation
c) Cooling and crystallisation
d) Molten state
Answer: c
Explanation: The igneous rocks are formed by cooling and crystallisation of hot molten material called magma or lava. As such, in most cases they show joint systems related to the tensile stresses developing during the process of cooling and crystallisation.

2. The type of regular joint not belonging to igneous rocks is?
a) Sheet jointing
b) Box jointing
c) Mural jointing
d) Columnar jointing
Answer: b
Explanation: The three regular or systematic types of joints observed in igneous rocks are: sheet joints, mural joints and columnar joints.

3. Which jointing gives layered sedimentary structure appearance?
a) Sheet jointing
b) Mural jointing
c) Box jointing
d) Columnar jointing
Answer: a
Explanation: In granites and other related igneous rocks, a horizontal set of joints often divides the rock mass in such a way as to give it an appearance of a layered sedimentary structure, called in this case as a sheeting structure.

4. Sheet joints are caused not due to ___________
a) Consequence of loading
b) Weathering
c) Removal of overlying rock mass
d) Consequence of unloading
Answer: a
Explanation: Sheet joints are sometimes caused due to weathering and removal of overlying rock masses, which cause expansion of the underlying igneous and other rocks as a consequence of unloading.

5. The geometrical distribution where rock mass is divided into cubes is ___________
a) Sheet jointing
b) Mural jointing
c) Columnar jointing
d) Radial jointing
Answer: b
Explanation: Mural jointing is a sort of geometrical distribution of joints dividing the rock mass into cubical blocks or murals and hence the name.

6. Types of joint found in volcanic igneous rocks are?
a) Sheet joints
b) Mural joints
c) Columnar joints
d) Radial joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Columnar joints are typical of volcanic igneous rocks although they may also be observed in other rocks.

7. Columnar joints are also called ___________
a) Radial joints
b) Pyramid joints
c) Prismatic joints
d) Box joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Columnar joints are also called as prismatic joints. The joints divide the rock mass into polygonal blocks each block being bounded by three to eight sides.

8. How are the main joints aligned to the cooling surface?
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) At 45°
d) At 30°
Answer: a
Explanation: Normally, the main joints are vertical or perpendicular to the cooling surface and may extend to varying depths ranging a few centimetres to many metres.

9. How and what are the polygonal cracks related to?
a) Directly related to compressive forces
b) Directly related to tensile forces
c) Inversely related to tensile forces
d) Directly related to shearing forces
Answer: b
Explanation: The polygonal cracks are thought to be directly related to the tensile forces developed during cooling (accompanied by contraction) of hot molten material (lava).

10. The contraction is equally developed in all directions in which kind of mass?
a) Non-homogenous
b) Isotropic
c) Anisotropic
d) Homogenous
Answer: d
Explanation: In a homogenous mass undergoing uniform cooling throughout the surface, contraction is equally developed in all directions.

11. When a site is said to be sound, which of the following character is not desirable?
a) Strong
b) Impermeable
c) Stable
d) Permeable
Answer: d
Explanation: Technically, the site should be as sound as possible: strong, impermeable and stable strong rocks at the site make the job of the designer much easy: he can evolve best designs.

12. Rocks are inherently which type of materials?
a) Isotropic
b) Anisotropic
c) Homogeneous
d) Non-homogeneous
Answer: b
Explanation: Rocks are inherently anisotropic materials, showing variation in properties in different directions.

13. When is the strength of sound rock always greater?
a) When stresses are normal to bedding planes
b) When stresses are parallel to bedding planes
c) When stresses are inclined at 45° to bedding planes
d) When stresses are inclined at 60° to bedding planes
Answer: a
Explanation: The strength of sound, unfractured stratified rock is always greater when the stresses are acting normal to the bedding planes than if applied in other directions.

14. The most unfavourable strike direction is when the beds?
a) Strike parallel to axis of dam and the dip is upstream
b) Strike parallel to axis of dam and the dip is downstream
c) Strike normal to axis of dam and the dip is downstream
d) Strike normal to axis of dam and the dip is upstream
Answer: b
Explanation: The most unfavourable strike direction is the one in which the beds strike parallel to the axis of the dam and the dip is downstream. It must be avoided as far as possible.

15. Which of the following is not a method for dam construction when a shear zone is encountered?
a) Construct on shear zone
b) Grouting the shear zones
c) Try and avoid the site as much as possible
d) Excavation and back filling
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally small scale fault zones and shear zones can be treated by grouting. But in the case of major shear zones, weak material would be excavated and the space backfilled with hard material like concrete up to the required depth.

16. In synclinal bends, dams placed on which part would run risk of leaking?
a) Upstream limb
b) Downstream limb
c) Core
d) Sloping side
Answer: a
Explanation: In synclinal bends, dams placed on the upstream limbs would run the risk of leakage from beneath the dam.

17. What aspect of the joint has to be thoroughly studied before construction of a dam?
a) Geometry of the joint
b) The depth of the joint
c) Nature of the joint
d) The texture of the rocks
Answer: d
Explanation: The geometry of joints, their intensity, nature and continuity with depth, all must be thoroughly established and their effects on the site rocks evaluated and remedial measures taken in advance.

18. Which joints have to be established with greater care?
a) Sheet joints
b) Mural joints
c) Micro joints
d) Columnar joints
Answer: c
Explanation: Occurrence of micro-joints has to be established with still greater care as such joint systems, if left untreated, could be source of many risks.

19. The fish culture in the stream is not affected by the construction of a dam.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Environmentally speaking, the fish culture in the stream is the first sector to suffer a major shock due to the construction of a dam.

20. Knowing the lithology of the site is very important in terms of its safety and feasibility.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The single most important feature that must be known thoroughly at the site and all around and below the valley up to a reasonable depth is the Lithology, i.e., the types of the rocks that make the area.

21. Artificially created water storage basins with storage capacity that may range from a few thousand cubic meters to thousands of millions cubic meters are called __________
a) Lakes
b) Ponds
c) Pools
d) Reservoirs
Answer: d
Explanation: Reservoirs may broadly be defined as artificially created water storage basins with storage capacity that may range from a few thousand cubic meters to thousands of millions cubic meters.

22. Depending on the purpose of storage, reservoirs are classified into how many types?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: Depending on the purpose of storage, reservoirs are classified into three main categories: Storage and conservation reservoirs; Flood control reservoirs; Distribution reservoirs.

23. Which reservoirs are used to feed the canal systems for irrigation and power generation?
a) Storage and conservation reservoirs
b) Flood control reservoirs
c) Distribution reservoirs
d) Drought control reservoirs
Answer: a
Explanation: Storage and conservation reservoirs, are the ones where river water is stored by creating barriers or dams in its path and is then released from gated or ungated outlets. These feed the canal systems for irrigation and power generation.

24. The reservoirs for small storage and short period of time are __________
a) Storage and conservation reservoirs
b) Flood control reservoirs
c) Distribution reservoirs
d) Drought control reservoirs
Answer: c
Explanation: Distribution reservoirs are actually small storage reservoirs that hold water supplies in a water supply system for short spells of time.

25. Reservoirs involving large sluice gates are __________
a) Storage and conservation reservoirs
b) Flood control reservoirs
c) Distribution reservoirs
d) Drought control reservoirs
Answer: b
Explanation: Flood control reservoirs are provided with large sluice ways to discharge the inflow received by the reservoir during a flood up to a volume that could be safely accommodated in the channel downstream.

26. The level up to which the reservoir shall be full of water is called __________
a) High level
b) Maximum level
c) Pool level
d) Surface level
Answer: c
Explanation: Pool level, indicated the designed level up to which the reservoir shall be ‘full of water’ at a particular point of time. There is, thus, the maximum pool level, the minimum pool level and the normal pool level.

27. The measure of the volume of water that can be drawn from a given reservoir in a certain interval of time is called __________
a) Surface yield
b) Drawable yield
c) Reservoir yield
d) Pool yield
Answer: c
Explanation: Reservoir yield is a measure for the volume of water that can be drawn from a given reservoir in a certain interval of time and is also expressed in terms of safe or guarantee yield, secondary yield and design yield etc.

28. Volume of water in cubic meters available between minimum pool level and normal pool level is __________
a) Useful storage
b) Dead storage
c) Surcharge storage
d) Specific storage
Answer: a
Explanation: Useful storage is defined as, volume of water in cubic meters available between minimum pool level and normal pool level.

29. What is the volume of water which is available between maximum reservoir level and normal pool level called?
a) Useful storage
b) Dead storage
c) Surcharge storage
d) Specific storage
Answer: c
Explanation: Surcharge storage is defined as, the volume of water which is available between the maximum reservoir level and normal pool level.

30. Some amount of water can be stored beyond the maximum pool level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: No water can be stored beyond the maximum pool level and no water shall be available when the storage is below the minimum pool level.

31. A solid barrier constructed at a suitable location across a river valley to impound water is called __________
a) Reservoir
b) Dam
c) Bridge
d) Retaining wall
Answer: b
Explanation: A dam may be defined as a solid barrier constructed at a suitable location across a river valley with a view of impounding water flowing through that river.

32. Which among the following is not an objective for the construction of the dam?
a) To make sure rains occur periodically
b) Generation of hydropower energy
c) Providing water supply for domestic and industrial purposes
d) Providing irrigational facilities
Answer: a
Explanation: Dams are constructed for achieving any one or more of the following objectives: generation of hydropower energy; providing water for irrigation facilities; providing water supply for domestic and industrial purposes; fighting droughts and controlling of floods; providing navigational facilities.

33. The criteria to classify a dam as a large dam is __________
a) Length of the crest of the dam lesser than 500 m
b) Capacity of the reservoir less than 1 million cubic meters
c) Maximum flood discharge less than 2000 cubic meters/second
d) Capacity of the reservoir not less than 1 million cubic meters
Answer: d
Explanation: Following conditions are necessary to classify a dam as large dams: length of the crest of the dam not lesser than 500 m; capacity of the reservoir not less than 1 million cubic meters; maximum flood discharge not less than 2000 cubic meters/second.

34. Which state in India has the most number of large dams?
a) Karnataka
b) Orissa
c) Maharashtra
d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: c
Explanation: The greatest number of large dams are in Maharashtra (1508), followed by Madhya Pradesh (752); Gujarat (365), Karnataka (213), Orissa (149), Rajasthan (128) and Uttar Pradesh have a single large dam till the twentieth century.

35. Which is the longest dam in India?
a) Hirakud dam
b) Bhakra dam
c) Krishnarajasagar dam
d) Nagarjun sagar dam
Answer: a
Explanation: The longest dam is the Hirakud dam having a height of 59 m and length of about 5 km and built across Mahanadi in Orissa.

36. Which is the tallest dam in India?
a) Hirakud dam
b) Bhakra dam
c) Krishnarajasagar dam
d) Nagarjun sagar dam
Answer: b
Explanation: The tallest in India is the Bhakra dam with a height of 226 m and length at the crest of 518 m, located in Himachal Pradesh.

37. Which type of dam usually has a triangular profile and can resist the forces by its own weight?
a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Geotechnical dam
d) Embankment dam
Answer: a
Explanation: A gravity dam is a solid masonry or concrete structure, generally of a triangular profile, which is so designed that it can safely stand against a pre-calculated volume of water by virtue of its own weight.

38. What is very critical about gravity dams?
a) Strength of the concrete used
b) Strength of the masonry used
c) Strength of the rock foundation
d) The type of water stored in the reservoir
Answer: c
Explanation: All the forces arising in a gravity dam as due to the thrust of the impounded water and the massive weight of the dam material- are assumed to be directly transmitted to the foundation rocks. Hence the strength of the foundation rocks is the most critical factor.

39. The upstream face of a gravity dam is always vertical.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The upstream face in a gravity dam may be vertical or inclined. Similarly, the axis of the dam may be straight or curvature may be induced in the design of the dam.

40. Type of dam where the forces acting on the dam are transmitted onto the abutment rocks is __________
a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Geotechnical dam
d) Embankment dam
Answer: b
Explanation: An arch dam, as the name implies, is an arch-shaped solid structure mostly of concrete, which is designed in such a way that a major part of the thrust forces acting on the dam are transmitted mainly by the arc action, on to the abutment rocks.

41. What is the shape of valley usually preferred for a reservoir?
a) U-shaped
b) V-shaped
c) Flat lands or plains
d) U or V-shaped
Answer: d
Explanation: The valley could be a U-shaped glacial valley, or a V-shaped river valley or a broader synclinal valley. Flatlands and plains cannot make convenient places for reservoirs.

42. During which condition, permeability of rocks have to be given more importance?
a) When general water is much above the top reservoir level
b) When general water table is much below the minimum water level
c) When general water table and top water level of the proposed reservoir are almost same
d) When general water table is slightly above the top reservoir level
Answer: b
Explanation: When the general water table is much below the minimum water level in the reservoir, permeability of the rocks along the base and the flanks is taken into consideration.

43. Which is the ideal condition for a reservoir?
a) When general water is much above the top reservoir level
b) When general water table is much below the minimum water level
c) When general water table and top water level of the proposed reservoir are almost same
d) When general water table is slightly above the top reservoir level
Answer: c
Explanation: The general water table of the area and the top water level of the proposed reservoir are almost the same. This is an ideal situation ensuring a no loss no gain condition but generally not available on a large scale.

44. Heavy load of sediments to reservoirs would reduce __________
a) Flow of water in that area
b) Effective storage
c) Total life of reservoir
d) Total life and effective storage of reservoir
Answer: d
Explanation: The run off and slope wash would contribute heavy load of sediments to the reservoir after every rain. This would obviously decrease the effective storage capacity of the reservoir on one hand and its total life on the other hand.

45. Which among the following need not be given prime importance during geological investigation?
a) Groundwater conditions
b) Wind conditions
c) Structural constitution
d) Trend and rate of weathering
Answer: b
Explanation: Since reservoirs are essentially water storage basins, the area should possess such geological characteristics that favour holding of water in the basin so created. Such characters are: topographic suitability, ground water conditions, permeability and structural stability and also trend and rate of weathering.

46. Removal of silt is usually __________
a) Time consuming
b) Energy consuming
c) Money consuming
d) Time, energy and money consuming
Answer: d
Explanation: Removal of silt or methods of sedimentation control may be so much time and energy and money consuming that the economy of the project is sometimes threatened. These facts prove the complicated nature of the problem.

47. The major problem in a reservoir over time which may affect the storage capacity is __________
a) Leakage
b) Silting
c) Reduction in rainfall
d) Weathering of side slopes
Answer: b
Explanation: Sedimentation of reservoirs with the passage of time is the most important problem to solve in reservoir design. Uncontrolled sedimentation will lead to the indirect failure of the project by gradually reducing the storage capacity.

48. Pick a method to control silting.
a) By grouting
b) By reducing water level
c) Construction of check dams
d) By constructing lining on the rock foundation
Answer: c
Explanation: Important methods of treatment include better reservoir designs, installation of check dams at the inlet points and water-shed improvement by forestation on an extensive and intensive scale.

49. De-silting methods are very expensive.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Removal of silt after fixed intervals by dredging and similar methods are also practised in many cases. All these are, however, very costly methods and any one or more of them are adopted in combination after careful analysis of cost benefit ratio.

50. Flatlands and planes can make convenient places for reservoirs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The valley could be a U-shaped glacial valley, or V-shaped river valley or a broad synclinal valley. Flatlands and plains cannot make convenient places for reservoirs.

1. The underground routes or passages driven through the ground without disturbing overlying soil cover are called __________
a) Bridges
b) Passages
c) Tunnels
d) Sub-routes
Answer: c
Explanation: Tunnels may be defined as underground routes or passages driven through the ground without disturbing the overlying soil or rock cover. Tunnels are driven for a variety of purposes.

2. Type of tunnels which are excavated to divert the traffic load of whatsoever type from surface to subsurface routes.
a) Traffic tunnels
b) Hydropower tunnels
c) Public utility tunnels
d) Delivery tunnels
Answer: a
Explanation: The traffic tunnels include all tunnels which are excavated to divert the traffic load of whatsoever type from surface to subsurface routes for a short length with a view of facilitating the flow of traffic at a desired speed, maximum convenience and at minimum cost.

3. Pick the tunnel which is not a sub-group of traffic tunnels.
a) Railway tunnels
b) Sewage tunnels
c) Highway tunnels
d) Pedestrian tunnels
Answer: b
Explanation: The railway tunnels, the highway tunnels and the pedestrian tunnels are the main sub-groups of traffic tunnels. A few navigational tunnels also fall under this category.

4. Tunnels associated with hydropower generation are called __________
a) Energy tunnels
b) Power tunnels
c) Generation tunnels
d) Hydropower tunnels
Answer: d
Explanation: During twentieth century most of the tunnelling has been in connection with hydropower generation. Such tunnels are aptly called “hydropower” tunnels.

5. Type of hydropower tunnel where water is conveyed under gravity is __________
a) Discharge tunnel
b) Pressure tunnel
c) Supply tunnel
d) Delivery tunnel
Answer: a
Explanation: In most cases hydropower tunnels are driven through rocks for the purpose of conveying water under gravity from one point to another. In such cases, they are called discharge tunnels.

6. Type of hydropower tunnel where water is conveyed under high pressure to turbines is __________
a) Discharge tunnel
b) Pressure tunnel
c) Supply tunnel
d) Delivery tunnel
Answer: b
Explanation: The other type of hydropower tunnels are those which feed water under great pressure to turbines and are distinguished as pressure tunnels.

7. Underground excavations for carrying pipes, sewage etc. fall under which type?
a) Traffic tunnels
b) Hydropower tunnels
c) Public utility tunnels
d) Delivery tunnels
Answer: c
Explanation: Public utility tunnels include a variety of underground excavations made for specific purposes such as for disposal of urban waste (sewage tunnels), for carrying pipes, cables and supplies of oil, water etc.

8. Subway and tube railways are studied under which type of tunnels?
a) Traffic tunnels
b) Hydropower tunnels
c) Public utility tunnels
d) Delivery tunnels
Answer: c
Explanation: Subways and tube railways also fall in the category of excavations but they are, in most cases, not tunnels in the strict sense because they are excavations made in the ground and then covered from the top.

9. Method of placing tubes in public utility tunnels is called __________
a) Covering method
b) Digging method
c) Slash and cover method
d) Cut and cover method
Answer: d
Explanation: The method of placing the tubes or tracks is called cut and cover method and not tunnelling in which, top cover remains undisturbed and intact during the excavation.

10. Geologically, how many classes of tunnels are recognized?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Geologically speaking, only two classes of tunnels are recognized: tunnels driven through rocks (rock tunnelling) and tunnels driven through soil, loose sediments or saturated ground (soft-ground tunnelling).

11. Selection of excavation method depends on __________
a) Type of rocks
b) Nature of rocks and ground
c) Texture of rocks and ground
d) Weather conditions of the place
Answer: b
Explanation: Choice of the right method will, therefore, be possible only when the nature of the rocks and the ground all along the alignment is fully known. This is one of the most important aim and objects of geological investigations.

12. Which outline is preferred for weak rocks with unequal lateral pressure?
a) D-shaped
b) Horse-shoe shaped
c) Circular
d) Rectangular shaped
Answer: c
Explanation: In self-supporting and strong rocks, either, D-shape or horse-shoe shape may be conveniently adopted but these shapes would be practically unsuitable in soft ground or even in weak rocks with unequal lateral pressure. In those cases, circular outline may be the first choice.

13. Lithology does not affect which parameter?
a) Type of tunnel
b) Method of tunnelling
c) Strength and extent of lining
d) Cost of the project
Answer: a
Explanation: Information regarding mineralogical composition, textures and structures of the rocks through which the proposed tunnel is to pass is of great importance in deciding: the method of tunnelling, the strength and extent of lining and, thus the cost of the project.

14. What occurs due to falling of big rock blocks or sides due to release of stresses during tunnelling?
a) Rock fall
b) Rock bursts
c) Blockage
d) Water rush
Answer: b
Explanation: Rock bursts that occur due to falling of big rock blocks from roofs or sides due to the release of stresses or falling of rock block along fractures already existing in these rocks often cause many accidents.

15. Pick the rock considered as soft rocks for tunnelling.
a) Granite
b) Gabbro
c) Basalt
d) Shale
Answer: d
Explanation: Rocks considered as hard and crystalline are granites, syenites, gabbros, basalts and all the related igneous rocks, sandstones, limestones, dolomites, quartzites etc. However the soft rocks include shales, friable and poorly compacted sandstones, chalk and porous varieties of limestones and dolomites, slates and phyllites with high degree of cleavage.

16. Which type of rocks requires double lining, i.e., temporary and permanent lining?
a) Hard rocks
b) Crystalline rocks
c) Soft rocks
d) Non-crystalline rocks
Answer: c
Explanation: In most cases, the soft rocks are not self-supporting. Hence, temporary and permanent lining becomes necessary that would involve extra cost and additional time.

17. Which type of strata is rare in occurrence?
a) Vertical strata
b) Horizontal strata
c) Inclined strata
d) Jointed strata
Answer: b
Explanation: Horizontal strata are rare in occurrence for longer tunnels. If they are countered for small tunnels or short lengths of long tunnels, horizontally layered rocks might be considered quite favourable.

18. Layers dipping at angles up to 45° may be called __________
a) Moderately inclined strata
b) Steeply inclined strata
c) Half inclined strata
d) Semi-inclined strata
Answer: a
Explanation: The layers that dipping at angles up to 45° may be said as moderately inclined strata. The tunnel axis may be running parallel to the dip direction, at right angles to the dip direction or inclined to both dip and strike direction.

19. When can the rocks act as a natural arch?
a) Tunnel axis parallel to dip direction
b) Tunnel axis normal to dip direction
c) Tunnel axis inclined to dip direction
d) Tunnel axis parallel to strike direction
Answer: a
Explanation: When the tunnel axis may be running parallel to the dip direction, the layers offer uniformly distributed load on the excavation. The arch action is said to happen, where the rocks at roof act as natural arches transferring the load onto sides.

20. In synclinal condition, low pressure areas are found at __________
a) Core
b) Crust
c) Mantle
d) Outline
Answer: b
Explanation: In anticlinal folds, loads of rocks at the crust are transferred by arch action to a great extent to the limbs which may be highly strained. These conditions are reversed in synclinal folds. In such cases, rocks of core regions are greatly strained.

21. The water which in a state of downward movement under gravity is __________
a) Groundwater
b) Vadose water
c) Connate water
d) Juvenile water
Answer: b
Explanation: Vadose water, which occurs from surface downwards up to a variable depth and is in a state of downward movement under the influence of gravity.

22. What is the process of movement downwards of vadose water called?
a) Infiltration
b) Filtration
c) Deposition
d) Down-flow
Answer: a
Explanation: The movement of vadose water is commonly described as infiltration. The thickness of soil and rock through which the vadose water infiltrates is called the zone of aeration.

23. What is the upper surface of the zone saturation called?
a) Aquifer
b) Aquiclude
c) Water table
d) Aquifuge
Answer: c
Explanation: Water table is the name given to the upper surface of the zone of saturation and is of fundamental importance in the study of groundwater reservoirs.

24. Pick the wrong statement about groundwater.
a) It is turbid
b) It is odourless
c) It is free from pathogens
d) It is coloured
Answer: d
Explanation: Groundwater has a suitable composition in most cases and is free from turbidity, objectionable colours and pathogenic organisms requiring not much treatment.

25. Groundwater is not safer than other sources of water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The groundwater is relatively much safe from hazards of chemical, radiogenic and biological pollution to which surface water bodies are badly exposed.

26. What is the water obtained from precipitation called?
a) Meteoric water
b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water
d) Secondary water
Answer: a
Explanation: Meteoric water is the water derived from precipitation (rain and snow). Although bulk of rainwater or meltwater from snow and ice reaches the sea through surface flows or run off, a considerable part of precipitation gradually infiltrates into the ground.

27. Water present in rocks from the time of their deposition is __________
a) Meteoric water
b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water
d) Secondary water
Answer: b
Explanation: Connate water is the water present in the rocks right from the time of their deposition in an aqueous environment.

28. What is usually the nature of connate water?
a) Sweet
b) Odour
c) Salty
d) Odourless
Answer: c
Explanation: This connate water may be encountered in sedimentary rocks like limestones, sandstones and gravels. It is commonly saline in nature and is of no importance as a source for exploitable groundwater.

29. Juvenile water is also called __________
a) Meteoric water
b) Connate water
c) Magmatic water
d) Secondary water
Answer: c
Explanation: Juvenile water is also called magmatic water and is of only theoretical importance as far as water-supply schemes are concerned.

30. Some hot springs are derived from which water?
a) Meteoric water
b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water
d) Secondary water
Answer: c
Explanation: Juvenile water is the water formed in the cracks or crevices or pores of rocks due to condensation of steam given out from hot molten masses or magmas existing below the Earth’s surface. Some hot springs and geysers are clearly derived from juvenile water.

31. Aquifers are distinguished into how many types on the basis of physical conditions under which water can exist in them?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Two basic types of aquifers are distinguished on the basis of physical conditions under which water can exist in them: the unconfined aquifer and the confined aquifer.

32. Which aquifer is called water table aquifer?
a) Unconfined aquifer
b) Confined aquifer
c) Ground aquifer
d) Connate aquifer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unconfined aquifer is also called a water-table aquifer, and is the most common type encountered in the fields.

33. What is the pressure of upper surface of unconfined aquifer?
a) Very high pressure
b) Lower than atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
d) Greater than atmospheric pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: In unconfined aquifer, the upper surface of water or the water-table is under atmospheric pressure which may be acting through the interstices in the overlying rocks.

34. What is the isolated water table held by a small extension of impervious rock called?
a) Underlying water
b) Secret water
c) Perched water
d) Underwater
Answer: c
Explanation: Perched water table is the term used for isolated water table in an aquifer held by a small extension of impervious rock within a large pervious tract.

35. Supplies from perched water-table are reliable as source of water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Supplies from perched water-table which are isolated reservoirs are often not reliable as source of water.

36. What is the upper surface of water in a confined aquifer called?
a) Primary layer
b) Secondary layer
c) First layer
d) Peizometric layer
Answer: d
Explanation: Naturally water held in confined type of aquifer is not under atmospheric pressure but under a greater pressure due to the confining medium. The upper surface of water in a confined aquifer is called piezometric surface.

37. At many places where is the piezometric surface with respect to the ground level?
a) Below
b) Same level
c) Above
d) Inclined to ground level
Answer: c
Explanation: Artesian aquifer is, in fact, confined aquifer of such a geometry developed in suitable geological situations so that the mezometric surface is always above the ground level at many places when projected in elevation.

38. What is the speciality of the Artesian Water?
a) Has a characteristic colour
b) Has a characteristic odour
c) Requires no pumping
d) Requires special type of pumping
Answer: c
Explanation: When water is tapped from Artesian aquifers, it rushes up to and to great heights. Such wells are called Artesian wells, or flowing wells and the type of groundwater obtained from them, which often needs no pumping, as Artesian Water.

39. Storage capacity of a reservoir depends on __________
a) Porosity of rocks
b) Inter-connections
c) Quality of solidity of rocks
d) Porosity and inter-connections
Answer: d
Explanation: The storage capacity of a reservoir depends on the porosity of the rock on the one hand and the nature and inter-connections of the pores.

40. What is the volume of voids in a rock mass expressed in percentage of total volume of rock called?
a) Porosity
b) Voids ratio
c) Permeability
d) Specific yield
Answer: a
Explanation: Porosity is defined as volume of voids in a rock mass expressed in percentage terms of the total volume of the rock.

41. Which sedimentary rock is told to be the best kind of formation for groundwater?
a) Sandstone
b) Shale
c) Gravel
d) Limestone
Answer: c
Explanation: Gravels are classed among the best kind of formations to yield groundwater. But these too show a great variation in their water bearing properties depending on the degree of assortment, packing and cementing of the grains.

42. The rock which shows great variation in water yielding capacity is __________
a) Sandstone
b) Granite
c) Coal
d) Marble
Answer: a
Explanation: Sandstones are the sedimentary rocks that show great variation in their water yielding capacity which is chiefly controlled by their texture and nature of the cementing material.

43. What is rated next to the gravels as water yielding materials?
a) Sandstone
b) Sands
c) Granite
d) Limestone
Answer: b
Explanation: Sand beds or loosely packed sandstones are rated next to gravels as water yielding materials.

44. The porosity range of limestone is __________
a) 50 to 75%
b) 20 to 50%
c) 10 to 40%
d) 1 to 20%
Answer: d
Explanation: The porosity of limestones varies from 1 to 20%. Hydraulic conductivity in highly karsted limestones may be as high as 100 m/day or even more, to be classed among the extremely permeable rocks.

45. What are the qualities required for glacial deposits to make good aquifers?
a) Uniform size and rounded nature
b) Non-uniform and angular nature
c) Uniform size and angular nature
d) Non-uniform and rounded nature
Answer: a
Explanation: When the glacial deposits are made up of sediments of uniform size and rounded nature, they present with best quality. When sufficiently thick and extensive, these may be depended as reliable groundwater reservoirs.

46. Igneous rocks are intrusive in nature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Igneous rocks are either intrusive or extrusive in nature. The intrusive igneous rocks are dense in texture with all the component minerals very closely crystallized. The extrusive rocks exhibit great variation in their water bearing properties.

47. The igneous rock rich in cavities is __________
a) Granite
b) Basalt
c) Gabbro
d) Dolomite
Answer: b
Explanation: Basic volcanic rocks like basalts, are characterized by greater gas content and high mobility at the time of eruption.

48. When can a surface become porous and permeable or water bearing?
a) Weathered
b) Weathered and wet
c) Weathered and disintegrated
d) Disintegrated and wet
Answer: c
Explanation: In all igneous rocks, the surface zone when highly weathered and disintegrated may become quite porous and permeable and hence water-bearing.

49. The fractured and fissured metamorphic rock is similar in character to which igneous rock?
a) Volcanic
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) Dykes
Answer: b
Explanation: The profusely fractured and fissured metamorphic rocks exhibit similar characters of that of the igneous rocks of plutonic nature. Groundwater will be found in the fractured zones without lateral and vertical continuity.

50. Metamorphic rocks that are inherently fractured and foliated may prove to be good aquifers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Metamorphic rocks that are inherently fractured and foliated such as slates, schists, phyllites and often gneisses, may prove exceptionally good aquifers, in a broader sense.

1. The study of earthquakes is called __________
a) Eathquakology
b) Tremology
c) Seismology
d) Quakegraphy
Answer: c
Explanation: The science dealing with the study of earthquake in all their aspects is called seismology. It is interdisciplinary science, which is partly geology and partly physics.

2. The point of origin of an earthquake below the earth’s surface is called __________
a) Isocentre
b) Isopoint
c) Focus
d) Epicentre
Answer: c
Explanation: The place or point of origin of an earthquake below the surface of the earth is termed as its focus or hypocenter. It may lie from a few hundred meters to hundreds of kilometres below the surface.

3. The point vertically above the focus is __________
a) Epicenter
b) Isocenter
c) Epivector
d) Isovector
Answer: a
Explanation: The point or place on the surface vertically above the focus of a particular earthquake is termed as its epicentre.

4. What is the location of maximum damage caused due to an earthquake?
a) Focus
b) Epicenter
c) 100 km from epicenter
d) Same everywhere
Answer: b
Explanation: The epicenter is that place on the surface of the earth where the vibrations from a particular earthquake reach first of all. It is often the location of maximum damage in that event.

5. What is the maximum depth of focus observed till date?
a) 100 km
b) 500 km
c) 700 km
d) 1000 km
Answer: c
Explanation: As regards the distance from epicenter to focus, or depth of focus, it has been observed from the study of seismic records that no earthquake with a focus deeper than 700 km has been recorded so far.

6. The seismic waves which are longitudinal __________
a) Primary waves
b) Secondary waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Love waves
Answer: a
Explanation: The P-waves are also called the primary waves, push and pull waves, longitudinal waves and compressional waves. These are the fastest of the seismic waves and are longitudinal in character.

7. The seismic waves which are also called transverse waves are __________
a) S-waves
b) P-waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Love waves
Answer: a
Explanation: The S-waves are also called secondary waves, the shear waves, the transverse waves or the distortional waves. These waves are transverse in character, like the light waves.

8. Which waves have helped geologists understand the nature of the earth’s core?
a) P-waves
b) S-waves
c) Rayleigh waves
d) Love waves
Answer: b
Explanation: The S-waves would not propagate through a liquid medium at all. This is a proven fact with S-waves and has helped geologists a lot in understanding the nature of the core of the earth.

9. What are the P and S waves collectively called?
a) Group waves
b) Combined waves
c) Body waves
d) Duel waves
Answer: c
Explanation: The P and S-waves are sometimes collectively referred to as body waves because they travel deep into the body of the Earth before re-emerging on the surface.

10. What is the depth of focus in the shallow earthquakes?
a) Up to 100 km
b) Up to 200 km
c) Up to 60 km
d) Up to 150 km
Answer: c
Explanation: In the shallow earthquakes, depth of focus lies anywhere up to 60 km below the surface. A great majority of the earthquakes in the past had been of this type.

11. How many types on the basis of depth of focus are present?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Three classes of earthquakes are recognized on the basis of depth of focus: shallow, intermediate and deep seated.

12. 60 – 300 km focus distance is seen in which type of earthquake?
a) Shallow earthquake
b) Intermediate earthquake
c) Deep seated earthquake
d) Tertiary earthquake
Answer: b
Explanation: The intermediate earthquakes originate between 60 and 300 km below the surface. These are rare in occurrence but their effects are felt over large areas.

13. The type of earthquake very rare in occurrence is __________
a) Shallow earthquake
b) Intermediate earthquake
c) Deep seated earthquake
d) Tertiary earthquake
Answer: c
Explanation: The deep seated earthquakes originate between 300 and 700 km, and are very rare phenomena.

14. Which class of earthquakes are most destructive?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class D
d) Class E
Answer: a
Explanation: Earthquakes of class A are highly destructive whereas those of class E are not of any significance in relation to engineering structures.

15. How many types of earthquakes are classified based on the cause of origin?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: Two broad classes of earthquakes distinguished on the basis of the cause of origin. They are- tectonic earthquakes and non-tectonic earthquakes.

16. Which earthquake is caused due to faulting or relative displacements of blocks of the crust of the earth along rupture planes?
a) Tectonic earthquakes
b) Shallow earthquakes
c) Class-A earthquakes
d) Non-tectonic earthquakes
Answer: a
Explanation: Tectonic earthquakes are caused due to faulting or relative displacements of blocks of the crust of the earth along rupture planes. Most commonly, the major earthquakes are of tectonic origin.

17. Earthquakes originating due to volcanic eruptions or landslides are called __________
a) Tectonic earthquakes
b) Shallow earthquakes
c) Class-A earthquakes
d) Non-tectonic earthquakes
Answer: d
Explanation: Non-tectonic earthquakes owe their origin to causes distinctly different from faulting such as volcanic eruptions, atomic explosions or due to landslides and subsidence.

18. The number of classes of earthquakes based on magnitude of Ritcher scale are __________
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: It is customary to mention earthquakes by its magnitude on the Ritcher scale. Sometimes earthquakes are grouped into five classes on the basis of magnitude.

19. The shallow earthquakes occur very rare.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The shallow earthquakes are the most commonly observed earthquakes till now whereas the deep seated earthquakes are very rare phenomena.

20. What is the downgrade movement of mass along no definite surface called?
a) Flowage
b) Sliding
c) Subsidence
d) Earthquake
Answer: a
Explanation: By flowage is understood a downgrade movement of mass along no definite surface of failure. Mass involved in this type of failure is primarily unconsolidated or loosely packed or rendered so by natural processes.

21. In which type of flowage, failure is not easily perceptible?
a) Rapid failure
b) Quick failure
c) Slow failure
d) Moderate failure
Answer: c
Explanation: Flowage is further distinguished into slow and rapid flowage. In the slow flowage, failure is not easily perceptible. The ground may be moving downslope at such low rates as few centimeters a year or even less.

22. In which type of flowage, failure is easily visible?
a) Rapid failure
b) Quick failure
c) Slow failure
d) Moderate failure
Answer: a
Explanation: In rapid flowage, however, the movement of failing mass may be easily visible and the mass may travel a few metres or more a day. The conditions causing flowage in the two classes may be closely related or entirely different.

23. What is a type of mass failure in which a superficial mass fails by moving as a whole along a definite surface of failure called?
a) Flowage
b) Sliding
c) Subsidence
d) Earthquake
Answer: b
Explanation: A true landslide is a type of mass failure in which a superficial mass fails by moving as a whole along a definite surface of failure. The surface of failure may be planar or semi-circular in outline.

24. What is the characteristic of the mass above and below a landslide respectively?
a) Both stable
b) Both unstable
c) Unstable and stable
d) Stable and unstable
Answer: c
Explanation: It is often characteristic of a landslide that the mass above the failure surface is unstable whereas the material lying below this surface is generally stable.

25. What type of landslide may undergo landslide?
a) Rock fragments
b) Loose soil
c) Whole blocks
d) Any type of mass
Answer: d
Explanation: Sliding may involve material of any composition, shape and of varying degree of consolidation: Loose soil, rock fragments and whole blocks or slabs of rock.

26. What is the character of the surface of shear in hard, brittle and coherent mass?
a) Curved
b) Planar
c) Circular
d) Undulated
Answer: b
Explanation: When the mass involved is hard, brittle and coherent, such as massive igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks, shear surfaces are broadly planar in character.

27. What is the character of the surface of shear in loose, inherently weak rocks?
a) Curved
b) Planar
c) Circular
d) Undulated
Answer: a
Explanation: In unconsolidated deposits, loose, inherently weak rock masses and weathered top surface, sliding commonly takes place along curved shear surfaces.

28. Type of landslide where surface of failure is planar is __________
a) Translational
b) Rotational
c) Rock toppling
d) Longitudinal
Answer: a
Explanation: The surface of failure is generally planar in character, speed of failure is quite rapid and the nature of mass involved in failing may be rock mass, rock slabs, debris and soil cover or even a mixture of all of them.

29. What is the characteristic sloping surface in rotational slides?
a) Curved
b) Planar
c) Circular
d) Undulated
Answer: a
Explanation: In rotational slides, the failing surface is generally curved in character and the speed of failure is also quite rapid. Because of the nature of the failing surface, the movement of the mass takes the form of a sort of rotation, rather than translation.

30. The factors that cause the failure are generally grouped into how many?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: All the factors that facilitate mass failure in one way or another are generally grouped in two headings: Internal factors and External factors.

31. The causes which tend to reduce the shearing strength of the soil are __________
a) Internal factors
b) External factors
c) Extensive factors
d) Weather factors
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal factors include such cases, which tend to reduce the shearing strength of the soil or rock mass by virtue of which it had remained stable at a given position on the ground.

32. Nature of slope includes __________
a) Type of material and angle of mass
b) Mass of material and type of material
c) Type of material and shape of mass
d) Mass of material and angle of mass
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of slope includes two important characters of the slope. By nature of slope is meant here the type of material of which the land mass is made up and the angle at which this particular mass is inclined with the horizontal.

33. The force which helps to retain the position of mass in space is __________
a) Compressive resistance
b) Tensile resistance
c) Shearing resistance
d) Bending resistance
Answer: c
Explanation: The most important force among the forces by virtue of which it can retain its position in space is undoubtedly the shearing resistance of the mass.

34. The force which tends to induce failure is __________
a) Shearing resistance
b) Force due to gravity
c) Force due to compression
d) Force due to loading
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the forces that tend to induce failure in a mass, the most important is the pull due to gravity which acts through the weight of the material.

35. When the forces tending to induce failure dominate over those tending to resist failure, the mass becomes stable.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As, when and where the forces tending to induce failure dominate over those tending to resist failure, the mass becomes unstable.

36. The angle of slope up to which the materials are stable in a slope is called __________
a) Shear angle
b) Angle of failure
c) Critical angle
d) Sub-angle
Answer: c
Explanation: It has been observed that most materials are stable up to a certain angle of slope. This is called the critical angle of slope or also called as angle of repose and varies from 35° for unconsolidated sediments to 90° for perfectly crystalline unjointed rocks.

37. In the recent times what other aspect of the slope is considered for its stability?
a) The type of rocks in the slope
b) The type of land mass below the slope
c) Height of the slope
d) Length of the slope
Answer: c
Explanation: In fact much importance has been attached in recent times to the height of the slope in addition to the angle of slope for determining the factor of safety.

38. Solvent action can been seen in rocks which are made of _______ minerals.
a) Active
b) Inactive
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
Answer: c
Explanation: The solvent action of water should also not be underestimated. In rocks like gypsum and limestone, or in those rocks which have soluble minerals as their constituents, water may gradually remove the soluble components reducing the shearing strength of the mass.

39. Which of the following is not a method of control of mass movement?
a) Afforestation
b) Retaining wall
c) Chemical treatment of rocks
d) Deforestation
Answer: d
Explanation: The widely adopted methods for control of mass movements include, construction of retaining walls, chemical treatment of rocks, rock bolting and to some extent afforestation can avoid mass movements, but, deforestation promotes mass movements.

40. While devising a monitoring system, what has to be kept in mind?
a) Factor of safety
b) Cost-benefit ratio
c) Stress factor
d) Dip factor
Answer: b
Explanation: In devising a monitoring system, the cost-benefit ratio has to be kept in mind in all the cases because such systems are invariably expensive.

41. Which of the following might not reduce the chances of infiltration?
a) Cooling the slope material
b) Oiling the surface of slopes
c) Electro-osmosis of the slope material
d) Heating of the slope material
Answer: a
Explanation: Oiling of the slope surfaces, electro-osmosis and heating of the slope material have been also used in different countries to stabilize slopes by reducing chances of infiltration during heavy rains.

42. Retraining structures may prove exceptionally successful when?
a) The ground is too fine
b) The sliding mass is likely to remain wet
c) The movement is of deep nature
d) The sliding mass is likely to remain dry
Answer: d
Explanation: Retaining structures may prove exceptionally successful where- the ground is neither too fine nor too plastic; the sliding mass is likely to remain dry and the movement is of a shallow nature and limited extent.

43. When might the retaining walls prove to be not costly?
a) When the movement is of deep nature
b) When the movement is of unlimited nature
c) When the movement is shallow in nature
d) When the rocks are too heavy
Answer: c
Explanation: Retaining walls may prove costly failures when they are designed to resist slides of great volume and thickness or long rising slopes.

44. Pneumatically applied mortar or concrete is called __________
a) Grout
b) Gunite
c) Geo-polymer concrete
d) Geniter
Answer: b
Explanation: Gunite, is pneumatically applied mortar or concrete. The mixture of cement and sand (1:3) with little water is applied on the face under pressure and is known to develop sufficient strength on settling and hardening.

45. Which of the following is not a method of slope treatment?
a) Providing drainage systems
b) Flattening the slope
c) Decreasing the load
d) Digging rock traps
Answer: a
Explanation: Usually the slope treatment methods include, flattening the slope to ensure stable limits, decreasing the load and also digging rock traps in the form of ditches at the foot of a slope and providing benches at proper intervals. Providing a drainage system is a drainage method.

46. Which type of trees and plants are more effective in reducing infiltration?
a) Tropical
b) Deciduous
c) Temperate
d) Plantation
Answer: b
Explanation: Afforestation of potentially unstable slopes reduces the risk of their failure considerably. Vegetation cover, especially of deciduous trees and plants reduces the quantity of infiltration.

47. More often a combination of methods may have to be used for stabilising the slopes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: While devising a slide-control program for an unstable area, it is always useful to weigh relative merits of methods available. More often, it may be a combination of methods rather than a single method that may have to be used for stabilising the slope.

48. Removal of water is done only by subsurface drainage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Drainage involves the removal of water from within the mass as well as preventing any further water reach the material susceptible to failure. This may be achieved either by surface drainage or by subsurface drainage or by both methods.