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[MCQ] Software Engineering With Project Management

Module 1

1. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model
Answer: d
Explanation: The Capability Maturity Model for Software describes the principles and practices underlying software process maturity and is intended to help software organizations improve the maturity of their software processes in terms of an evolutionary path from ad hoc, chaotic processes to mature, disciplined software processes.

2. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The ISO 9000 series of standards is a set of documents.

3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be
a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identified
d) eliminated and identified
Answer: d
Explanation: ISO 9001 requires that the causes of nonconforming product to be identified. Potential causes of nonconforming product are eliminated.

4. .CO policy in CMM means
a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform
Answer: c
Explanation: CMM have certain policy practices covered under .CO policy.

5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.
a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning
Answer: c
Explanation: The practices defining the quality records to be maintained in the CMM are distributed throughout the key process areas in the various Activities Performed practices.

6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing
Answer: a
Explanation: The CMM is organized into five maturity levels as namely: Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed and Optimizing.

7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management
Answer: a
Explanation: In CMM planning these activities is described in Software Project Planning, however the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in Software Product Engineering.

8. Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification tests?
a) CMM
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9000-3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier should carry out reviews to ensure the requirements are met and design methods are correctly carried out.

9. The CMM emphasizes
a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: CMM emphasizes the need to record information for later use in the process and for improvement of the process.

10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.

11. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or clients irrespective of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as patents, copyright, etc.

12. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

13. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
Answer: b

14. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

15. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible.Thus options a & c are ruled out.

16. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Answer: c

17. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software company.

18. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them both.

19. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a part of software development process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. Thus option c answers the question.

20. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of the product.

21. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
a) PUBLIC
b) PROFESSION
c) PRODUCT
d) ENVIRONMENT
Answer: d
Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on specific clause nor its of importace related to question.

22. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Software is not just set of program but it is also associated documentation and configuration of data to make program run.

23. Which of these does not account for software failure ?
a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
Answer: c
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.

24. What are attributes of good software ?
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality
Answer: d
Explanation: Good software should deliver the required functinality, maintainability. Software development is not an attribute but a fundamental.

25. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software specification
Answer: a
Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute and not an engineering activity for process.

26. Which of these is incorrect ?
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful software
Answer: c
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub domain which comes under computer science which is main domain.

27. Which of these is true ?
a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products
b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of them are true.

28. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change
d) Security
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them both.

29. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation
Answer: d
Explanation: Software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental for engineering.

30. Which of these is not true ?
a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed service based systems
b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages
c) Web brings concept of software as service
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally
Answer: b
Explanation: Web based systems has led to important advances in programming languages.

Module 2

1. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.

2. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.

3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a different phase of Software Engineering.

4. FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

5. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c

6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another (external) system.

7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have with the software.

8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.

9. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.

10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software
Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or customers, what’s the point of being in business?.

11. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system. Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
Answer: b
Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.

13. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

14. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to efficiency.

15. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The behavior of functional requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or functions the system is required to perform.

16. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to find measurable scales for the quality attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity, usability etc.

17. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: d
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-External considerations [Sommerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–Components of FURPS+ are the five classification schemes for NFRs.

18. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Installability
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .

19. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.

20. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
Answer: c
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.

21. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk out stakeholders first.

22. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
i. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii. Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be using your product, thus making them most important of all.

23. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.
i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a) iii, i, ii, iv
b) iii, iv, ii, i
c) iii, ii, iv, i
d) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures viewpoint from different users followed by evaluation of those view points.Now comes the task of checking the relative importance of the requirements and finally to consolidate or bind together the information collected.

24. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
Answer: d
Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.

25. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)
Answer: b
Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without dealing with system internals.

26. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary
Answer: d
Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance.There is no such thing as ternary actor in Software Engineering.

27. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall system objectives.Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed, have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and they do not understand that the requirements change over time.

28. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceability
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceability
Answer: d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect business requirements while developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.

29. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.

30. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.

31. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a viewpoint based method?
a) FODA
b) QFD
c) CORE
d) IBIS
Answer: c
Explanation: Controlled Requirements Expression(CORE) says that any system can be viewed from a number of view points and that a complete picture of system requirements can only emerge by putting together the various viewpoints.

32. ___________ and ____________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE).
a) Functional, Non-Functional
b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The CORE sessions includes the discussion of functional and non-functional requirements.

33. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
a) Requirements are comprehensive
b) NFRs are not given enough importance
c) Role of analyst is passive
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In CORE the requirement specification are put together by all users, customers and analysts, so a passive analyst will not get the requirements properly.

34. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS).
a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
d) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification
Answer: d
Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive method that provides a framework for resolving issues and gathering requirements.

35. How is CORE different from IBIS ?
a) Iterative in nature
b) Redundancies are removed
c) It is simple and an easier method to use
d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE
Answer: d
Explanation: Preliminary data collection is done in CORE to get some broad level data on each view point to structure the view point and to check consistency from within and outside the viewpoints.

36. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ?
a) FODA
b) CORE
c) IBIS
d) Prototyping
Answer: a
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) is defined as the process of identifying, collecting, organizing and representing relevant information in a domain .

37. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Modeling and Architecture Modeling are the three steps involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA).

38. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured approach as it captures information which is consistent and important.On the other hand CORE gives importance to every view point even if it is obsolete.

39. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ?
a) User
b) Tester
c) Scribe
d) Sponsor
Answer: b
Explanation: A Tester’s role is seen in after coding phase rather than in elicitation phase.

40. What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?
a) Context Diagrams
b) DFDs
c) ER model
d) UML diagrams
Answer: d
Explanation: Unified Modeling Language (UML) diagrams are constructed during the design phase of the SDLC.

41. How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions
a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
c) cover the technology used for the development
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an approved solution ASAP.

42. How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
a) It involves successive steps
b) It involves just one task
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
d) It has a shorter development time
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option b all other options represent the characteristics of an evolutionary prototype.

43. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation
b) Overall operational correctness and reliability
c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
Answer: c
Explanation: Expected requirements are so fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state them.System functions comes under the category of Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory to be defined,hence is not an expected requirement.

44. QFD works best if it has management commitment.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in initial stages, thus bounding the management to provide appropriate funding for the development process .

45. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b) Prototyping
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
Answer: c
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling real-world problematic situations.It is a common misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which involve psychological, social, and cultural elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different way of dealing with situations perceived as problematic.

46. To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ?
a) C – Customer
b) A – Actor
c) T – Transformation
d) E – ER Model
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for Environmental constraints.

47. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique.
a) It incorporates human element into design
b) SSM is in its infant stage
c) SSM is suitable for new systems
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM
Answer: b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is evolving and its industrial usage is low.

48. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a successful brainstorming session.

49. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager
Answer: c
Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an outsider) controls the FAST meeting.His role is to ensure that the meeting is productive.

50. Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
i. Conduct a group discussion
ii. Conduct another group discussion
iii. Present experts with a problem
iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
Answer: d
Explanation: The sequence represents the working steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .

51. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram
Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.

52. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility (hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis.

53. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: c
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, Specification and Review are the five phases.

54. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence requirements must be traceable.

55. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified business needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.

56. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement analysis..

57. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. WhaT is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical
Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and Physical views.All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs and objectives.

58. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy customer requirements.

59. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.

60. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and behavior.

61. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in nature which means each sentence in SRS should have a unique interpretation.

62. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition of all terms and units of measure is defined.

63. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
Answer: d
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one requirement says that all lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.

64. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a customer as well.

65. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that is, only its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.

66. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule
Answer: b
Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software, implementation language, resource limits, operating environment etc.

67. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the solution (“how to do”) aspects.

68. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii
Answer: c
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE.

69. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable.Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.

70. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only one unique interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will have an end of file character ?”.

71. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core requirements & are related to main activity of the organization while volatile requirements are likely to change during software development life cycle or after delivery of the product.

72. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: For library management system issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core activities and are stable for any system.

73. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the advancement of new products being launched in the market and so does the market changes, the technology and in turn customer’s expectation.

74. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without reference to requirements, which means quality-oriented development is requirements-driven development, thus requirements management is a prerequisite for quality-oriented development.

75. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the ability to describe and follow the life of a requirement in both forwards and backwards direction. Requirements can be traced from its origins, through its development and specification, to its subsequent deployment and use, and through periods of ongoing refinement and iteration in any of these phases.

76. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs continued funding throughout a project.Project funding is often limited at the onset of a project, restricted to those aspects of the project which are tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-phase manner.

77. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer: c
Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool for requirement management.

78. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are the activities of requirement management.

79. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.

80. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical report is poor requirements management. Option a and c are its sub parts.

81. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling.How many different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
Answer: d
Explanation: The different notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class, object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case diagrams.

82. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
Answer: b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by the events that stimulate responses from a system.

83. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.

84. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.

85. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.

86. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.

87. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable code.

88. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.
a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause transitions from one state to another.

89. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but still human interface will vary from person to person.

90. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.

91. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component
Answer: b
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.

92. _________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency
Answer: c
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity.This means that common information will be maintained in one place only.

93. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the components that make up that system and their relationships.

94. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.
a) Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and external actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system components, although external agents may also be included.

95. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus option b is correct.

96. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.

97. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards.

98. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object to operations that act on the data.

Module 3

1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
Answer: c

2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
Answer: d

4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
Answer: c
Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.

5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.

6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
Answer: d

8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.

9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.

11. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
Answer: b
Explanation: A modular system consist of well defined manageable units with well defined interfaces among the units.

12. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
Answer: d
Explanation: Modularity cannot bring benefits unless the modules are autonomous or independent.

13. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree to which each program module relies on each one of the other modules.

14. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: c
Explanation: The dependency between module A and B is said to be data coupled if their dependency is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.

15. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: c
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module A changes data of module B or when control is passed from one module to the middle of another.

16. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?
a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion
Answer: d
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in modules that contain instructions that have little or no relationship to one another.

17. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of cohesion in which the tasks performed by a software module all contribute to the performance of a single function.

18. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If the software is not properly modularized, a host of seemingly trivial enhancement or changes will result into death of the project.

19. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: b

20. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
Answer: b
Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by the fact that all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.

21. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Option b defines an Object Oriented Design.

22. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?
a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design
Answer:d

23. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b

24. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of
a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d

25. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect to Function Oriented Software Design.

26. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system
Answer:d
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the system in order to comply with the available system.

27. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?
a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b

28. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.
a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned with developing a model of the design which shows the dynamic structure.

29. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data processing activities.
a) True
b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design which focus on entities.

30. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by
a) Circle
b) Arrow
c) Rectangle
d) Triangle
Answer: a

31. Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In architectural design you design a system organization satisfying the functional and non-functional requirements of a system.

32. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system.
a) physical
b) logical
c) process
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A physical view is implemented by system engineers implementing the system hardware.

33. The UML was designed for describing _________
a) object-oriented systems
b) architectural design
c) SRS
d) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design
Answer: d
Explanation: The UML was designed for describing object-oriented systems and, at the architectural design stage, you often want to describe systems at a higher level of abstraction.

34. Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting processes at run time?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process
Answer: d
Explanation: This view is useful for making judgments about non-functional system characteristics such as performance and availability.

35. Which of the following is an architectural conflict?
a) Using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability
b) Introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult
c) Localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: High availability architecture can be affected by several design factors that are required to be maintained to ensure that no single points of failure exist in such design.

36. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?
a) type of application
b) distribution of the system
c) architectural styles
d) testing the system
Answer: d
Explanation: Architectural design decisions include decisions on the type of application, the distribution of the system, the architectural styles to be used, and the ways in which the architecture should be documented and evaluated.

37. Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Systems in the same domain often have similar architectures that reflect domain concepts.

38. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems?
a) architecture
b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
d) different operating system
Answer: c
Explanation: Model-View-Controller pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems.

39. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern
c) repository pattern
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The majority of systems that use large amounts of data are organized around a shared database or repository.

40. Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process
Answer: c
Explanation: It is possible to relate the system requirements to entities in a logical view.

41. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
a) Place the user in control
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: These golden rules actually form the basis for a set of user interface design principles that guide this important software design activity.

42. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?
a) Provide for flexible interaction
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c) Show technical internals from the casual user
d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Answer: c
Explanation: The user interface should move the user into the virtual world of the application.

43. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?
a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b) Interface design
c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
d) Interface validation
Answer: c
Explanation: These are the end user for whom the product is being built.

44. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant.
a) short-term memory
b) shortcuts
c) objects that appear on the screen
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The interface should be designed to reduce the requirement to remember past actions and results.

45. Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?
a) the design of interfaces between software components
b) the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information
c) the design of the interface between two computers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c

46. A software might allow a user to interact via
a) keyboard commands
b) mouse movement
c) voice recognition commands
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned input mediums are available today.

47. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on predefined design principles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true.

48. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image
Answer: a
Explanation: The requirements specification may establish certain constraints that help to define the user of the system, but the interface design is often only incidental to the design model.

49. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image
Answer: b
Explanation: To build an effective user interface, all design should begin with an understanding of the intended users, including their profiles of their age, physical abilities, education, etc.

50. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?
a) mental image
b) interface design
c) system image
d) interface validation
Answer: c
Explanation: When the system image and the system perception are coincident, users generally feel comfortable with the software and use it effectively.

51. Which of the following is not a construct?
a) sequence
b) condition
c) repetition
d) selection
Answer: d
Explanation: Sequence implements processing steps that are essential in the specification of any algorithm. Condition provides the facility for selected processing based on some logical occurrence, and repetition allows for looping.

52.Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table?
a) List all actions that can be associated with a specific procedure
b) List all conditions during execution of the procedure
c) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A decision table includes action stub and a condition stub with a set of rules.

53. _________ is a pidgin(simplified version of a language that develops as a means of communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common)
a) program design language
b) structured English
c) pseudocode
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between PDL and a real programming language lies in the use of narrative text embedded directly within PDL statements.

54. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The ability to represent local and global data is an essential element of component-level design.”?
a) Data representation
b) Logic verification
c) “Code-to” ability
d) Automatic processing
Answer: a

55. A software component
a) Implements some functionality
b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces
c) Communicates through its interfaces only
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options identify with features of a software component.

56. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that would not allow violation of the structured constructs?
a) State transition diagram
b) Box diagram
c) ER diagram
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the condition fails.
a) repeat until
b) condition
c) do while tests
d) if then-else
Answer: a

58. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box diagram?
a) functional domain
b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
c) recursion is easy to represent
d) providing a notation that translates actions and conditions
Answer: d
Explanation: This functionality is covered by UML diagrams.

59. The________ is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.
a) Repetition
b) Sequence
c) Condition
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

60. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “Notation that can be input directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.”?
a) Machine readability
b) Maintainability
c) Structure enforcement
d) Overall simplicity
Answer: a
Explanation: Readability is processing input.

61. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.

62. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.

63. Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model?
a) Static structural model
b) Dynamic process model
c) Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All these models reflects the basic strategy that is used to structure a system.

Module 4

1. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Software Testing is a set of such activities.

2. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of an independent test group (ITG) is to remove the inherent problems
associated with letting the builder test the thing that has been built.

4. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: It answers questions like: “When are we done with testing?”.

5. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are carried out for the purpose.

6. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Test cases should uncover errors such as all the explained options and much more.

7. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error
Answer: a
Explanation: Actually, error description does not provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error.

8. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
Answer: b
Explanation: After source level code has been developed, reviewed, and verified for correspondence to component level design, unit test case design begins.

9. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
Answer: d
Explanation: Regression testing may be conducted manually, by re-executing a subset of all test cases or using automated capture or playback tools

10. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Smoke testing is designed as a pacing mechanism for time-critical projects, allowing the software team to assess its project on a frequent basis.

11. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences between given input and expected output.

12. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible paths through the module.

13. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior over time. It contains lower and upper limits.

14. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.

15. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component. Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.

16. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Answer: c
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.
testing .

17. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box technique.

18. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.

19. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and checks the output with expected output.

20. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete. Minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.

21. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: White-box testing is a method of testing software that tests internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality .

22. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Adhoc testing is used term for software testing performed without planning and documentation. The tests are intended to be run only once, unless a defect is discovered.

23. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Answer: d
Explanation: Acceptance testing is a test conducted to determine if the requirements of a specification or contract are met and is done by users.

24. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Performance testing is in general testing performed to determine how a system performs in terms of responsiveness and stability under a particular workload.

25. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In beta testing the user evaluates the product and gives his feedback.

26. SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: SPICE stands for Software Process Improvement and Control Determination.

27. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit testing is a method by which individual units of source code, sets of one or more computer program modules together with associated control data, usage procedures, and operating procedures are tested to determine if they are fit for use.

28. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings.

29. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values.

30. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: KLOC and function points both can be used as size measurement for measuring the size of the software.

31. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

32. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.

33. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

34. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.

35. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

36. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: a

37. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.

38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely different domain.

39. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It is defined in all the mentioned options.

40. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: b

41. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?
a) Codeline
b) Configuration control
c) Version
d) Workspace
Answer: b
Explanation: In configuration control changes are managed and all versions of components are identified and stored for the lifetime.

42. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?
a) Change management
b) Version management
c) System building
d) Release management
Answer: a
Explanation: It involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking which components in the system have been changed.

43. Which of the following is not a Version management feature?
a) Version and release identification
b) Build script generation
c) Project support
d) Change history recording
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options are a part of version management.

44. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems?
a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes, continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code changes have been made.

45. Which of the following is not a build system feature?
a) Minimal recompilation
b) Documentation generation
c) Storage management
d) Reporting
Answer: c
Explanation: To reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management facilities.

46. Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system?
a) Version
b) Codeline
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which means that the versions of the components making up the system cannot be changed.

47. Which of the following is a configuration item?
a) Design & Test specification
b) Source code
c) Log information
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through formal procedure.

48. Which of the following is a part of system release?
a) electronic and paper documentation describing the system
b) packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
c) an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Release creation is the process of creating the collection of files and documentation that includes all of the components of the system release.

49. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as
a) System building
b) Mainline
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

50. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new codeline from a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching
b) Merging
c) Codeline
d) Mainline
Answer: a
Explanation: The code may then be developed independently.

51. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

52. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

53. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

54. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects successfully.

55. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

56. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

57. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.

58. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

59. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.

60. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.

61. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha testing is done at developer’s end while beta testing is done at user’s end.

62. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Its verification, while validation refers to a different set of tasks that ensure that the software that has been built is traceable to customer requirements.

Module 5

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.

11.Effective software project management focuses on
a)people, performance, payoff, product
b)people, product, performance, process
c)people, product, process, project
d)people, process, payoff, product
Answer: c

12.Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a higher likelihood of implementing effective software engineering processes
a)True
b)False
Answer: a

13.The first step in project planning is to
a)determine the budget.
b)select a team organizational model.
c)determine the project constraints
d)establish the objectives and scope
Answer: d

14.Process framework activities are populated with
a)milestones
b)work products
c)QA points
d)all of the above
Answer:d

15.Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are successful and completed on time
a)True
b)False
Answer: b

16.Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process?
a)customers
b)end-users
c)project managers
d)sales people
Answer:d

17.The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering practitioner available
a)True
b)False
Answer: b

18.The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the
a)closed paradigm
b)open paradigm
c)random paradigm
d)synchronous paradigm
Answer: b

19.Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software team?
a)degree of communication desired
b)predicted size of the resulting program
c)rigidity of the delivery date
d)size of the project budget
e)a, b, c
Answer: e

20.One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to
a)give team members more control over process and technical decisions
b)give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
c)hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
d)reward programmers based on their productivity.
Answer: a

21.Small agile teams have no place in modern software development.
a)True
b)False
Answer: b

22.Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination difficulties?
a)interoperability
b)performance
c)scaleuncertainty
d)uncertainty
Answer: b

23.Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
a)context, lines of code, function
b)context, function, communication requirements
c)information objectives, function, performance
d)communications requirements, performance, information objectives
Answer: c

24. The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the
a)customer workflow
b)functionality to be delivered
c)process used to deliver functionality
d)software process model
e)b and c
Answer: e

25.Product and process decomposition occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.
a)True
b)False
Answer: a

26.When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?
a)when the project is extremely small in size
b)any time the software is mission critical
c)rapid prototyping does not require their use
d)never the activities are invariant
Answer: d

27.How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?
a)double the project team
b)request a large budget
c)start on the right foot
d)track progress
e)c and d
Answer: e

28.The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?
a)Why is the system being developed?
b)What will be done by whom?
c)Where are they organizationally located?
d)How much of each resource is required?
e)a, c d
Answer: e

29.Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?
a)assessing product usability
b)defect tracking against quality targets
c)empirical cost estimation
d)formal risk management
e)b, c, d
Answer: e

30. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200 lines.

31. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

32.Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

33. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their respective definitions.

34. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

35.Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC

36.RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely:Business modeling,Data modeling,Process modeling,Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

37.What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-develop functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

38.SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: None

39.Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

Module 6

1. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) Defined milestones
c) Defined responsibilities
d) Defined outcomes
Answer: c
Explanation: These responsibilities are domain specific.

4. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria
Answer: b
Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor are: casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction.

7. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality
Answer: b
Explanation: These can vary from client to client.

9. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer: d
Explanation: Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) are two project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development.

10. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as
a) BCWS
b) EVA
c) BAC
d) CBSE

11. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.

12. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

13. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

14. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.

15. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

16. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.

17. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.

18. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

19. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

20. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

21. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

22. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.

23. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

24. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software engineering.

25. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer: a
Explanation: None

26. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.

27. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

28. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.

29. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

30. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

31. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?
a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20
Answer: a
Explanation: A recommended distribution of effort across the software process is 40% (analysis and design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing)‏.

32. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by
a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentione
Answer: a
Explanation: Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an industrial engineer in 1917 .

33.What is PERT analysis based on?
A. Optimistic time
B. Pessimistic time
C. Most likely time
D. All of the above
Answer: D

34.Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay
Answer: B

35.What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract
Answer: C

36.What is the earliest start time rule?
A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
C. It directs when a project can start.
D. It regulates when a project must begin.
Answer: B

37.What is a critical path?
A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
B. It is a mixture of all the paths
C. It is the longest path
D. It is the shortest path
Answer: C

38.What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known as?
A. Connector
B. Event
C. Node
D. All of the above
Answer: D

39.Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: B

40.Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and 10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A

41.Activity in a network diagram is represented by?
A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Squares
D. Circles
Answer: B

42.What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?
A. A project is divided into various activities
B. Required time for each activity is established
C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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