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[MCQs] Mobile Computing & Communications

Module 1

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular telephone system?

a) Accommodate a large number of users

b) Large geographic area

c) Limited frequency spectrum

d) Large frequency spectrum

Answer: d

Explanation: Cellular systems accommodate a large number of users within a limited frequency spectrum over a large geographic area.

 

2. What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system?

a) Connection of mobile to base stations

b) Connection of mobile to PSTN

c) Connection of base station to PSTN

d) Connection of base station to MSC

Answer: b

Explanation: Mobile Switching Center (MSC) is responsible for connecting all mobiles to the PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) in a cellular system.

 

3. Who has the responsibility of billing and system maintenance function in cellular system?

a) Base Station

b) PSTN

c) MSC

d) Mobile system

Answer: c

Explanation: Mobile switching center (MSC) accommodates 100,000 subscribers and 5,000 simultaneous conversations at a time and handles all billing and system maintenance functions.

 

4. What is the function of FVC (Forward Voice Channel)?

a) Voice transmission from base station to mobiles

b) Voice transmission from mobile to base station

c) Initiating mobile calls

d) Broadcast all traffic request for all mobile

Answer: a

Explanation: FVC (Forward Voice Channel) and RVC (Reverse Voice Channel) are responsible for voice transmission. FVC is used for voice transmission from base station to mobile and RVC is used for voice transmission from mobile to base station.

 

5. Which two channels are responsible for initiating mobile calls?

a) FVC and FCC

b) FVC and RVC

c) FCC and RCC

d) FCC and RVC

Answer: c

Explanation: FCC (Forward Control Channel) and RCC (Reverse Control Channel) are control channels responsible for initiating mobile calls.

 

6. Of the total channels present in the cellular system, what is the percentage of voice and control channels?

a) 95% voice channels, 5% control channels

b) 5% voice channels, 95% control channels

c) 50% voice channels, 50% control channels

d) 25% voice channels, 75% control channels

Answer: a

Explanation: In each cellular system, control channels are 5% of the total channels available and remaining 95% are dedicated to voice and data traffic.

 

7. What is MIN?

a) Subscriber’s telephone number

b) Paging message

c) Traffic request number

d) Mobile Internet

Answer: a

Explanation: MIN (Mobile Identification Number) is a 10 digit unique number which represents the telephone number of subscriber.

 

8. What is transmitted along with the call initiation request during the origin of call by a mobile?

a) MIN

b) ESN

c) ESN and SCM

d) MIN, ESN and SCM

Answer: d

Explanation: When a mobile originates the call, it sends the MIN (mobile identification number), ESN (electronic serial number) and SCM (station class mark) along with the call initiation request.

 

9. What does SCM indicates?

a) Maximum receiver power level for a particular user

b) Maximum transmitter power level for a particular user

c) Minimum receiver power level for a particular user

d) Minimum transmitter power level for a particular user

Answer: b

Explanation: SCM (Station Class Mark) indicates the maximum transmitter power level for a particular user.

 

10. What is the shape of the cell present in the cellular system?

a) Circular

b) Square

c) Hexagonal

d) Triangular

Answer: c

Explanation: The shape of the cell present in the cellular network is hexagonal since it can cover the entire geographical area without any gap and overlapping.

 

11. Why the size of the cell is kept small in cellular network?

a) Increase capacity

b) Decrease capacity

c) Increased size of base station electronics

d) Slow process of handoffs

Answer: a

Explanation: The size of the cells in cellular network is kept small because of the need of high capacity in areas with high user density and reduced size and cost of base station electronics.

 

12. What is handoff?

a) Forward channel

b) Switching technique

c) Roamer

d) Guard channel

Answer: b

Explanation: Handoff is a switching technique which refers to the process of transferring an active call or data session from one cell in a cellular network to another.

 

13. Which one is not an advantage of using frequency reuse?

a) Increased capacity

b) Limited spectrum is required

c) Same spectrum may be allocated to other network

d) Number of base stations is reduced

Answer: d

Explanation: Frequency reuse is a technique of reusing frequencies and channels within a cellular system to improve capacity and spectral efficiency.

 

14. The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is ____________

a) MSC

b) Roamer

c) Handoff

d) Forward channel

Answer: c

Explanation: Handoff is the process of changing the channel associated with current connection while a call is in progress.

 

15. The interference between the neighbouring base stations is avoided by ____________

a) Assigning different group of channels

b) Using transmitters with different power level

c) Using different antennas

d) Using different base stations

Answer: a

Explanation: The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by assigning a different groups of channels and reusing the same channel after a certain amount of distance.

 

16. The transmission bandwidth of spread spectrum techniques is equal to the minimum required signal bandwidth.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Spread spectrum techniques employ a transmission bandwidth that is several orders of magnitude greater than the minimum required signal bandwidth. On the other hand, primary objective of all the modulation schemes is to minimize the required transmission bandwidth.

 

17. Why spread spectrum technique is inefficient for a single user?

a) Large transmission bandwidth

b) Small transmission bandwidth

c) Fixed transmission bandwidth

d) Fixed null bandwidth

Answer: a

Explanation: Spread spectrum systems are bandwidth inefficient for single users. But in spread spectrum systems, many users can simultaneously use the same bandwidth without significantly interfering with one another. It is one of the advantages of spread spectrum.

 

18. Which of the following is not a property of spread spectrum techniques?

a) Interference rejection capability

b) Multipath fading

c) Frequency planning elimination

d) Multiple user, multiple access interface

Answer: b

Explanation: Resistance to multipath fading is one of the fundamental reasons for considering spread spectrum systems for wireless communication. Since spread spectrum signals have uniform energy over a very large bandwidth, at any given time only a small portion of the spectrum will undergo fading.

 

19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PN sequence?

a) Nearly equal number of 0s and1s

b) Low correlation between shifted version of sequence

c) Non deterministic

d) Low cross-correlation between any two sequences

Answer: c

Explanation: Pseudo-Noise sequences are deterministic in nature. Certain characteristics of PN sequence are nearly equal number of 0s and 1s, very low correlation between shifted versions of the sequence, very low cross correlation between any two sequences.

 

20. PN sequence can be generated using sequential logic circuits.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: PN sequence is usually generated using sequential logic circuits. When the feedback logic consists of exclusive OR gates, the shift register is called a linear PN sequence generator.

 

21. The period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed _____ symbols.

a) 2m

b) m

c) 2m

d) 2m-1

Answer: d

Explanation: There are exactly 2m-1 non-zero states for an m stage feedback shift register. Thus, the period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed 2m-1.

 

22. DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a pseudo noise sequence.

a) Adding

b) Subtracting

c) Multiplying

d) Dividing

Answer: c

Explanation: A direct sequence spread spectrum (DS-SS) system spreads the baseband data by directly multiplying the baseband data pulses with a pseudo noise sequence. And the pseudo noise sequence is produced by a pseudo noise code generator.

 

23. Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______

a) Signal

b) Frequency

c) Phase

d) Amplitude

Answer: b

Explanation: Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission frequency. A frequency hopping signal is regarded as a sequence of modulated data bursts with time varying, pseudo random carrier frequencies.

 

24. What is the set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS?

a) Hopset

b) Hop

c) Chips

d) Symbols

Answer: a

Explanation: The set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS is called hopset. Hopping occurs of a frequency band that includes a number of channels. Each channel is defined as a spectral region with central frequency in the hopset.

 

25. The bandwidth of the channel used in the hopset is called _________

a) Hopping bandwidth

b) Total hopping bandwidth

c) Instantaneous bandwidth

d) 3 dB bandwidth

Answer: c

Explanation: The bandwidth of a channel used in the hopset is called the instantaneous bandwidth. And the bandwidth of the spectrum over which the hopping occurs is called total hopping bandwidth.

 

26. The processing gain of FH systems is given by ratio of _______

a) Hopping bandwidth and hopping period

b) Instantaneous bandwidth and hopping duration

c) 3 dB bandwidth and bit rate

d) Total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous bandwidth

Answer: d

Explanation: The processing gain of frequency hopping (FH) systems is given by Bss/B. Here, Bss and B denote the total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous bandwidth respectively.

 

27. FH systems do not have collisions.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: It is possible to have collisions in an FH system where an undesired user transmits in the same channel at the same time as the desired user. Whenever an undesired signal occupies a particular hopping channel in FH, the noise and interference in the channel are translated in frequency.

 

28. In fast frequency hopping, hopping rate is less than the information symbol rate.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Fast frequency hopping occurs if there is more than one frequency hop during each transmitted symbol. Thus, in fast frequency hopping the hopping rate equals or exceeds the information symbol rate.

Module 2

1. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and network-level architecture?

a) GSM

b) AMPS

c) CDMA

d) IS-54

Answer: a

Explanation: GSM was the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation and level architectures and services. It is the world’s most popular 2G technology. It was developed to solve the fragmentation problems of the first cellular systems in Europe.

 

2. Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile

b) Groupe special mobile

c) Global special mobile

d) Groupe system mobile

Answer: b

Explanation: In the mid-1980s GSM was called by the name Groupe special mobile. In 1992, GSM changed its name to Global System for Mobile Communication for marketing reasons.

 

3. Who sets the standards of GSM?

a) ITU

b) AT & T

c) ETSI

d) USDC

Answer: c

Explanation: The setting of standards for GSM is under the aegis of the European Technical Standards Institute (ETSI). GSM task was to specify a common mobile communication system for Europe in the 900 MHZ band.

 

4. Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM?

a) Standard mobile telephony

b) Mobile originated traffic

c) Base originated traffic

d) Packet-switched traffic

Answer: d

Explanation: GSM services follow ISDN guidelines and are classified as either teleservices or data services. Teleservices include standard mobile telephony and mobile originated or base originated traffic.

 

5. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

a) Emergency calling

b) Packet-switched protocols

c) Call diversion

d) Standard mobile telephony

Answer: c

Explanation: Supplementary ISDN services are digital in nature. They include call diversion, closed user groups, and caller identification, and are not available in analog mobile networks. Supplementary services also include short messaging service (SMS).

 

6. Which of the following memory devices stores information such as the subscriber’s identification number in GSM?

a) Register

b) Flip flop

c) SIM

d) SMS

Answer: c

Explanation: SIM (subscriber identity module) is a memory device that stores information such as the subscriber’s identification number, the networks and countries where the subscriber is entitled to service, privacy keys, and other user specific information.

 

7. Which of the following feature makes it impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio transmission?

a) SIM

b) On the air privacy

c) SMS

d) Packet-switched traffic

Answer: b

Explanation: The on the air privacy feature of GSM makes impossible to eavesdrop on a GSM radio transmission. The privacy is made possible by encrypting the digital bit stream sent by a GSM transmitter, according to a specific secret cryptographic key that is known only to the cellular carrier.

 

8. Which of the following does not come under the subsystem of GSM architecture?

a) BSS

b) NSS

c) OSS

d) Channel

Answer: d

Explanation: The GSM architecture consists of three major interconnected subsystems that interact between themselves and with the users through certain network interfaces. The subsystems are BSS (Base Station Subsystem), NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) and OSS (Operation Support Subsystem).

 

9. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between the mobile station and MSC?

a) BSS

b) NSS

c) OSS

d) BSC

Answer: a

Explanation: The BSS provides and manages radio transmission paths between the mobile stations and the Mobile Switching Center (MSC). It also manages the radio interface between the mobile stations and all other subsystems of GSM.

 

10.  ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

a) BSS

b) NSS

c) OSS

d) MSC

Answer: b

Explanation: NSS (Network and Switching Subsystem) manages the switching functions of the system. It allows the MSCs to communicate with other networks such as PSTN and ISDN.

 

11.  __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

a) BSS

b) NSS

c) OSS

d) MSC

Answer: c

Explanation: The OSS (Operation Support Subsystem) supports the operation and maintenance of GSM. It allows system engineers to monitor, diagnose, and troubleshoot all aspects of GSM.

 

12. What is the condition for handoff?

a) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation

b) A mobile remains in the same cell while in conversation

c) A mobile moves to different cell when idle

d) A mobile remains in the same cell and is idle

Answer: a

Explanation: Handoff occurs when a mobile moves into a different cell while a conversation is in progress. The MSC automatically transfers the call to a new channel belonging to the new base station.

 

13. Handoff does not require voice and control channel to be allocated to channels associated with the new base station.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Handoff operation involves identifying a new base station. It also requires that the voice and control signal be allocated to channels associated with the new base station.

 

14. The time over which a call can be maintained within a cell without handoff is called _________

a) Run time

b) Peak time

c) Dwell time

d) Cell time

Answer: c

Explanation: The time over which a call is maintained within a cell without handoff is called as dwell time. Dwell time vary depending on speed of user and type of radio coverage.

 

15. Dwell time does not depend on which of the following factor?

a) Propagation

b) Interference

c) Distance between subscriber and base station

d) Mobile station

Answer: d

Explanation: Dwell time of a particular user is governed by a number of factors. They include propagation, interference, distance between the subscriber and the base station, and other time varying effects.

 

16. Which of the following is associated with the handoff in first generation analog cellular systems?

a) Locator receiver

b) MAHO

c) Cell dragging

d) Breathing cell

Answer: a

Explanation: Locator receiver is a spare receiver in each base station. It is used to scan and determine signal strengths of mobile users which are in neighbouring cells.

 

17. MAHO stands for ______

a) MSC assisted handoff

b) Mobile assisted handoff

c) Machine assisted handoff

d) Man assisted handoff

Answer: b

Explanation: MAHO stands for mobile assisted handoff. In 2G systems, handoff decisions are mobile assisted. In MAHO, every mobile station measure the received power from surrounding base station and continuously reports the results to serving base station.

 

18. A handoff is initiated when the power received from the base station of a neighbouring cell falls behind the power received from the current base station by certain level.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: MAHO measures the power received from the surrounding base station. And a handoff is initiated when the power received from the base station of a neighbouring cell begins to exceed the power received from current base station.

 

19. What is the condition for intersystem interference?

a) Mobile moves from one cell to another cell

b) Mobile remains in the same cell

c) Mobile moves from one cellular system to another cellular system

d) Mobile remains in the same cluster

Answer: c

Explanation: An intersystem handoff is initiated when a mobile moves from one cellular system to another during a course of a call. An MSC engages in an intersystem interference when a mobile becomes weak in a given cell and MSC cannot find another cell to which call can be transferred.

 

20. What is the disadvantage of guard channel?

a) Efficient utilization of spectrum

b) Cross talk

c) Near far effect

d) Reduce total carried traffic

Answer: d

Explanation: Guard channel is a concept for handling priority in handoff. Here, a fraction of the total available channels in a cell is reserved exclusively for handoff requests from ongoing calls. This method has the disadvantage of reducing the total carried traffic, as fewer channels are allocated to originating calls.

 

21. Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced termination of a call due to lack of available channels?

a) Queuing

b) Guard channel

c) Cell dragging

d) Near far effect

Answer: a

Explanation: Queuing of handoff requests is a method to decrease the probability of forced termination of a call due to lack of available channels. Queuing of handoff is possible due to the fact that there is a finite time interval between the time the received signal level drops below the handoff threshold and the time the call is terminated.

 

22. Umbrella cell approach is possible by using _________

a) Antenna of same heights

b) Antenna of different heights

c) Different voice channels

d) Different control channels

Answer: b

Explanation: Umbrella cell approach is possible by using different antenna heights and different power levels. By using this approach, it is possible to provide large and small cells which are co-located at a single location.

 

23. Cell dragging is a problem occur due to __________

a) Pedestrian users

b) Stationary users

c) High speed mobile systems

d) Base stations having same frequency

Answer: a

Explanation: Cell dragging is a practical handoff problem in microcell system. It results from pedestrian users that provide a very strong signal to the base station.

 

24. What was the typical handoff time in first-generation analog cellular systems?

a) 1 second

b) 10 seconds

c) 1 minute

d) 10 milliseconds

Answer: b

Explanation: In first generation analog cellular system, the typical time to make a handoff once the signal level is below the threshold, is about 10 seconds. This requires the value for threshold to be 6 dB to 12 dB.

 

25. How much time it takes for handoff in digital cellular systems like GSM?

a) 1 second

b) 10 seconds

c) 1 minute

d) 10 milliseconds

Answer: a

Explanation: In digital cellular systems, the mobile assista with the handoff procedure by determining the best candidate. Once the decision is made, it typically requires 1 to 2 seconds for handoff.

 

26. Soft handoff is also known as _________

a) MAHO

b) Hand over

c) Break before make

d) Make before break

Answer: d

Explanation: Soft handoff is one in which the channel in the source cell is retained and used for a while in parallel with the channel in the target cell. In this case, the connection with the receiver target is established before the connection to the source is broken, hence this handover is called make-before-break.

 

27. GPRS and EDGE supports which 2G standard?

a) GSM only

b) IS-136 only

c) GSM and IS-136 both

d) PDC

Answer: c

Explanation: GPRS (General Packet Radio Service) network provides a packet network on dedicated GSM or IS-136 radio channels. EDGE (Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution) is also developed keeping in desire both GSM and IS-136 operators.

 

28. How is HSCSD different from GPRS?

a) Infrastructure

b) Multiple Access Scheme

c) Modulation technique

d) Switching Technique

Answer: d

Explanation: GPRS is a packet based network. HSCSD dedicates circuit switched channels to specific users whereas GPRS supports many more users, but in a bursty manner.

 

29. What changes GPRS need to acquire while upgrading itself from GSM?

a) A whole new base station

b) New transceiver at base station

c) New channel cards

d) New packet overlay including routers and gateways

Answer: d

Explanation: GPRS requires a GSM operator to install new routers and Internet gateways at the base station along with new software upgrade. New base station RF hardware is not required.

 

30. Which new modulation technique is used by EDGE?

a) BPSK

b) 8- PSK

c) DQPSK

d) AFSK

Answer: b

Explanation: EDGE uses a new digital modulation format, 8- PSK (Octal Phase Shift Keying). It is used in addition to GSM’s standard GMSK (Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying) modulation.

 

31. What is the full form of UMTS?

a) Universal Mobile Telephone System

b) Ubiquitous Mobile Telephone System

c) Ubiquitous Mobile Telemetry System

d) Universal Machine Telemedicine System

Answer: a

Explanation: UMTS (Universal Mobile Telephone System) is a visionary air interface standard that was introduced in 1996. European carriers, manufacturers, and government regulators collectively developed the early version of UMTS as an open air interface standard for third generation wireless telecommunication.

 

32. UMTS use which multiple access technique?

a) CDMA

b) TDMA

c) FDMA

d) SDMA

Answer: a

Explanation: Although UMTS is designed to operate on evolved GSM core networks, it uses code division multiple access (CDMA) for its air interface. The majority of the 3G systems in operation employ CDMA, while the rest use TDMA. CDMA allows various users to share a channel at the same time, while TDMA allows users to share the same channel by chopping it into different time slots.

 

33. UMTS does not has backward compatibility with ____________

a) GSM

b) IS-136

c) IS-95

d) GPRS

Answer: c

Explanation: UMTS assures backward compatibility with the second generation GSM, IS-136 and PDC TDMA technologies. It is also compatible with all 2.5G TDMA techniques like GPRS and EDGE. But it does not provide compatibility to CDMA technologies of 2G and 2.5 G. IS-95 is a CDMA standard of 2G.

 

34. UMTS is also known as _____________

a) IS-95

b) GPRS

c) CdmaOne

d) W-CDMA

Answer: d

Explanation: UMTS uses Wideband CDMA (W-CDMA) to carry the radio transmissions. Therefore, it is also referred as W-CDMA. W-CDMA offers greater spectral efficiency and bandwidth to mobile network operators.

 

35. What is the chip rate of W-CDMA?

a) 1.2288 Mcps

b) 3.84 Mcps

c) 270.833 Ksps

d) 100 Mcps

Answer: b

Explanation: W-CDMA uses a chip rate of 3.84 Mcps. Chip rate is the product of symbol rate and spreading factor. If the symbol rate is 960 Kbps and spreading factor is 4 for W-CDMA, then the chip rate is 3.84 Mcps. The chip rate for Cdma2000 and GSM are 1.2288 Mcps and 27.0833 Ksps respectively.

 

36. W-CDMA works in FDD mode only.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: W-CDMA works in both FDD and TDD mode. W-CDMA developed for wide area cellular coverage uses FDD. And TDD is used by W-CDMA for indoor cordless type applications.

 

 37. How much packet data rate per user is supported by W-CDMA if the user is stationary?

a) 2.048 Kbps

b) 100 Mbps

c) 2.048 Mbps

d) 1 Gbps

Answer: c

Explanation: If the user is stationary, W-CDMA supports packet data rates upto 2.048Mbps per user. Thus, it allows high quality data, multimedia, streaming audio video and broadcast type services to consumers. Future version of WCDMA will support stationary user data rates in excess of 8Mbps.

 

38. What is the minimum spectrum allocation required by W-CDMA?

a) 5 MHz

b) 20MHz

c) 1.25 MHz

d) 200 KHz

Answer: a

Explanation: W-CDMA/UMTS requires a minimum spectrum allocation of 5 MHz. Using this bandwidth, it has the capacity to carry over 100 simultaneous voice calls. It is able to carry data at speeds up to 2 Mbps in its original format. 20 MHz is the bandwidth defined for LTE. CdmaOne uses a bandwidth of 1.25 MHz. GSM’s bandwidth is 200 KHz.

 

39. W-CDMA requires a complete change of RF equipment at each base station.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: W-CDMA is designed to provide backward compatibility and interoperability for all GSM, IS-136/PDC, GPRS and EDGE equipment. But due to a wider air interface bandwidth of W-CDMA, it requires a complete change of RF-equipment at each base station.

 40. How much increase in spectral efficiency is provided by W-CDMA in comparison to GSM?

a) Two times

b) Three times

c) No increase

d) Six times

Answer: d

Explanation: W-CDMA can provide at least six times an increase in spectral efficiency over GSM at system level. Such a wider bandwidth is chosen to higher data rates as low as 8 kbps to as high as 2 Mbps on a single 5 MHz W-CDMA radio channel.

Module 3

1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to ____________

a) network layer

b) data link layer

c) application layer

d) physical layer

Answer: a

Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner Application -> Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical. Each and every layer has its own set of functions and protocols to ensure efficient network performance.

 

2. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?

a) TCP and FTP

b) UDP and HTTP

c) TCP and UDP

d) HTTP and FTP

Answer: c

Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP is an abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless.

 

3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________

a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer

b) it sends data as a stream of related packets

c) it is received in the same order as sent order

d) it sends data very quickly

Answer: a

Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used for those purposes where speed matters most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP is connectionless whereas TCP is connection oriented.

 

4. Transmission control protocol ___________

a) is a connection-oriented protocol

b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection

c) receives data from application as a single stream

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: TCP provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of bytes between hosts communicating via an IP network. Major internet applications like www, email, file transfer etc rely on TCP. TCP is connection oriented and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than timely delivery.

 

5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called __________

a) socket

b) pipe

c) port

d) machine

Answer: a

Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way communication link in the network. TCP layer can identify the application that data is destined to be sent by using the port number that is bound to socket.

 

6. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________

a) wsock

b) winsock

c) wins

d) sockwi

Answer: b

Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output requests for internet applications in windows OS. It defines how windows network software should access network services.

 

7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?

a) datagram congestion control protocol

b) stream control transmission protocol

c) structured stream transport

d) user congestion control protocol

Answer: a

Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol which deals with reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit congestion notification, and feature negotiation. It is used in modern day systems where there are really high chances of congestion. The protocol was last updated in the year 2008.

 

8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port

b) pipe

c) node

d) protocol

Answer: a

Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port identifies the application or service running on the computer. A port number is 16 bits. The combination of IP address preceded with the port number is called the socket address.

 

9. Transport layer protocols deals with ____________

a) application to application communication

b) process to process communication

c) node to node communication

d) man to man communication

Answer: b

Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals with logical communication between process. It is responsible for delivering a message between network host.

 

10. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) stream control transmission protocol

b) internet control message protocol

c) neighbor discovery protocol

d) dynamic host configuration protocol

Answer: a

Explanation: The Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a transport layer protocol used in networking system where streams of data are to be continuously transmitted between two connected network nodes. Some of the other transport layer protocols are RDP, RUDP, TCP, DCCP, UDP etc.

 

11. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to ____________

a) network layer

b) data link layer

c) application layer

d) physical layer

Answer: a

Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner Application -> Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical. Each and every layer has its own set of functions and protocols to ensure efficient network performance.

 

12. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?

a) TCP and FTP

b) UDP and HTTP

c) TCP and UDP

d) HTTP and FTP

Answer: c

Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP is an abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless.

 

13. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________

a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer

b) it sends data as a stream of related packets

c) it is received in the same order as sent order

d) it sends data very quickly

Answer: a

Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used for those purposes where speed matters most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP is connectionless whereas TCP is connection oriented.

 

14. Transmission control protocol ___________

a) is a connection-oriented protocol

b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection

c) receives data from application as a single stream

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: TCP provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of bytes between hosts communicating via an IP network. Major internet applications like www, email, file transfer etc rely on TCP. TCP is connection oriented and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than timely delivery.

15. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called __________

a) socket

b) pipe

c) port

d) machine

Answer: a

Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way communication link in the network. TCP layer can identify the application that data is destined to be sent by using the port number that is bound to socket.

 

16. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________

a) wsock

b) winsock

c) wins

d) sockwi

Answer: b

Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output requests for internet applications in windows OS. It defines how windows network software should access network services.

 

17. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?

a) datagram congestion control protocol

b) stream control transmission protocol

c) structured stream transport

d) user congestion control protocol

Answer: a

Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol which deals with reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit congestion notification, and feature negotiation. It is used in modern day systems where there are really high chances of congestion. The protocol was last updated in the year 2008.

 

18. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port

b) pipe

c) node

d) protocol

Answer: a

Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port identifies the application or service running on the computer. A port number is 16 bits. The combination of IP address preceded with the port number is called the socket address.

 

19. Transport layer protocols deals with ____________

a) application to application communication

b) process to process communication

c) node to node communication

d) man to man communication

Answer: b

Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals with logical communication between process. It is responsible for delivering a message between network host.

 

20. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) stream control transmission protocol

b) internet control message protocol

c) neighbor discovery protocol

d) dynamic host configuration protocol

Answer: a

Explanation: The Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a transport layer protocol used in networking system where streams of data are to be continuously transmitted between two connected network nodes. Some of the other transport layer protocols are RDP, RUDP, TCP, DCCP, UDP etc.

 

21. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.

a) bits

b) frames

c) packets

d) bytes

Answer: c

Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to the transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to bits.

 

22. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing

b) inter-networking

c) congestion control

d) error control

Answer: d

Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third layer and it provides data routing paths for network communications. Error control is a function of the data link layer and the transport layer.

 

23. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

a) only network address

b) only host address

c) network address & host address

d) network address & MAC address

Answer: c

Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and host portion and it depends on address class. The size of the host address and network address depends upon the class of the address in classful IP addressing.

 

24. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________

a) full source and destination address

b) a short VC number

c) only source address

d) only destination address

Answer: b

Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a connection oriented circuit switched network. Each virtual circuit is used to transfer data over a larger packet switched network.

 

25. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?

a) shortest path algorithm

b) distance vector routing

c) link state routing

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go next. There are several routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static and dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc. The routing algorithms go hand in hand with the operations of all the routers in the networks. The routers are the main participants in these algorithms.

 

25. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?

a) is same as broadcast routing

b) contains the list of all destinations

c) data is not sent by packets

d) there are multiple receivers

Answer: c

Explanation: In multi-destination routing, there is more than one receiver and the route for each destination which is contained in a list of destinations is to be found by the routing algorithm. Multi-destination routing is also used in broadcasting.

 

 26. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called ________

a) spanning tree

b) spider structure

c) spider tree

d) special tree

Answer: a

Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network.

 

27. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?

a) traffic-aware routing

b) admission control

c) load shedding

d) routing information protocol

Answer: d

Explanation: The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is used by the network layer for the function of dynamic routing. Congestion control focuses on the flow of the traffic in the network and uses algorithms like traffic aware routing, admission control and load shedding to deal with congestion.

 

28. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

a) ethernet

b) internet protocol

c) hypertext transfer protocol

d) file transfer protocol

Answer: b

Explanation: There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for application layer and ethernet protocol is for data link layer.

 

29. ICMP is primarily used for __________

a) error and diagnostic functions

b) addressing

c) forwarding

d) routing

Answer: a

Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by networking devices to send error messages and operational information indicating a host or router cannot be reached. ICMP operates over the IP packet to provide error reporting functionality as IP by itself cannot report errors.

 

30. A packet in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is called a ____________

a) Transmittable slots

b) Packet

c) Segment

d) Source Slots

Answer: c

Explanation: Applications working at the Application Layer transfers a contiguous stream of bytes to the bottom layers. It is the duty of TCP to pack this byte stream to packets, known as TCP segments, which are passed to the IP layer for transmission to the destination device.

 

31. Cable TV and DSL are examples of ____________

a) Interconnection of network

b) LAN

c) MAN

d) WAN

Answer: c

Explanation: A MAN often acts as a high speed network to allow sharing of regional resources. It typically covers an area of between 5 and 50 km diameter. Examples of MAN are telephone company network that provides a high speed DSL to customers and cable TV network.

 

32. Station on a wireless ALOHA network is maximum of ________

a) 400 Km

b) 500 Km

c) 600 Km

d) 700 Km

Answer: c

Explanation: The stations on wireless ALOHA networks are a maximum of 600 km apart. It was designed for a radio (wireless) LAN, but it can be used on any shared medium. It is obvious that there are potential collisions in this arrangement. The medium is shared between the stations.

 

33. IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as building block of a wireless ___________

a) LAN

b) WAN protocol

c) MAN

d) ALOHA

Answer: a

Explanation: The IEEE 802.11 topology consists of components interacting to provide a wireless LAN. It enables station mobility transparent to higher protocol layers, such as the LLC. 

 

34. In wireless LAN, there are many hidden stations so that __________ cannot be detected.

a) Frames

b) Collision

c) Signal

d) Data

Answer: b

Explanation: In wireless networking, the hidden node problem or hidden terminal problem occurs when a node is visible from a wireless access point (AP), but not from other nodes communicating with said AP. This leads to difficulties in media access control and collisions could not be detected.

 

35. A set that makes stationary or mobile wireless station and also have optional central base station is known as ___________

a) Basic service set

b) Extended service set

c) Network point set

d) Access point

Answer: a

Explanation: A set that makes stationary or mobile wireless station and also have optional central base station is known as a basic service set. BSS is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP).

 

36. Wireless communication started in _________

a) 1869

b) 1895

c) 1879

d) 1885

Answer: b

Explanation: In England, Guglielmo Marconi began his wireless experiments in 1895. On 2 June 1896, he filed his provisional specification of a patent for wireless telegraphy. He demonstrated the system to the British Post Office in July.

 

37. Wireless transmission is divided into ___________

a) 3 broad groups

b) 6 broad groups

c) 9 broad groups

d) 8 broad groups

Answer: a

Explanation: We can divide wireless transmission into three broad groups: radio waves, microwaves, and infrared waves. Radio waves are used for multicast communications, such as AM and FM radio, television, maritime radio, cordless phones and paging systems. Microwave propagation is line-of-sight.

 

38. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have ___________

a) Four Layers

b) Five Layers

c) Six Layers

d) Seven Layers

Answer: a

Explanation: TCP/IP functionality is divided into four layers, each with its own set of agreed-upon protocols: The datalink layer consists of methods and protocols that operate only on a link. The Internet layer connects independent networks to transport the packets. The Transport layer handles communications between. The Application layer standardizes data exchange for applications. 

39. Packets of data that is transported by IP is called __________

a) Datagrams

b) Frames

c) Segments

d) Encapsulate message

Answer: a

Explanation: The format of data that can be recognized by IP is called an IP datagram. It consists of two components, the header and data, which need to be transmitted. The fields in the datagram, except the data, have specific roles to perform in the transmission of data.

 

40. Parameter that is normally achieved through a trailer added to end of frame is ___________

a) Access Control

b) Flow Control

c) Error Control

d) Physical addressing

Answer: c

Explanation: The data link layer adds reliability to the physical layer by adding mechanisms to detect and retransmit damaged or lost frames. It also uses a mechanism to recognize duplicate frames.

Module 4

1. What is the full form of WLAN?

a) Wide Local Area Network

b) Wireless Local Area Network

c) Wireless Land Access Network

d) Wireless Local Area Node

Answer: b

Explanation: WLAN stands for Wireless Local Area Network. Wireless networks is increasingly used as a replacement for wires within homes, buildings, and office settings through the deployment of wireless local area networks (WLANs).

 

2. WLANs use high power levels and generally require a license for spectrum use.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: WLANs use low power and generally do not require a license for spectrum. They provide ad hoc high data transmission rate connections deployed by individuals. In the late 1980s, FCC provided licence free bands for low power spread spectrum devices in ISM band, which is used by WLAN.

 

3. What is the name of 300 MHz of unlicensed spectrum allocated by FCC in ISM band?

a) UNII

b) Unlicensed PCS

c) Millimetre wave

d) Bluetooth

Answer: a

Explanation: FCC allocated 300 MHz of unlicensed spectrum in the ISM bands. This allocation is called the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (UNII) band. It was allocated for the express purpose of supporting low power license free spread spectrum data communication.

 

4. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?

a) IEEE 802.16

b) IEEE 802.3

c) IEEE 802.11

d) IEEE 802.15

Answer: c

Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of media access control and physical layer specification for implementing WLAN computer communication. It was founded in 1987 to begin standardization of spread spectrum WLANs for use in the ISM bands.

 

5. Which of the following is not a standard of WLAN?

a) HIPER-LAN

b) HIPERLAN/2

c) IEEE 802.11b

d) AMPS

Answer: d

Explanation: AMPS is a standard of first generation network. HIPERLAN is a WLAN standard developed in Europe in mid 1990s. HIPERLAN/2 is also developed in Europe that provides upto 54 Mbps of user data. 

 

6. Which of the following is the 802.11 High Rate Standard?

a) IEEE 802.15

b) IEEE 802.15.4

c) IEEE 802.11g

d) IEEE 802.11b

Answer: d

Explanation: IEEE 802.11b was a high rate standard approved in 1999. It provided new data rate capabilities of 11 Mbps, 5.5 Mbps in addition to the original 2 Mbps and 1 Mbps user rates of IEEE 802.11.

 

7. Which of the following spread spectrum techniques were used in the original IEEE 802.11 standard?

a) FHSS and DSSS

b) THSS and FHSS

c) THSS and DSSS

d) Hybrid technique

Answer: a

Explanation: Original IEEE 802.11 used both the approaches of FHSS (Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum) and DSSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum). But from late 2001s, only DSSS modems are used within IEEE 802.11.

 

8. Which of the following WLAN standard has been named Wi-Fi?

a) IEEE 802.6

b) IEEE 802.15.4

c) DSSS IEEE 802.11b

d) IEEE 802.11g

Answer: c

Explanation: The DSSS IEEE 802.11b standard has been named Wi-Fi by the Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance. It is a group that promotes adoption of 802.11 DSSS WLAN.

 

9. Which of the following is developing CCK-OFDM?

a) IEEE 802.11a

b) IEEE 802.11b

c) IEEE 802.15.4

d) IEEE 802.11g

Answer: d

Explanation: IEEE 802.11g is developing CCK-OFDM (Complementary Code Keying Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) standards. It will support roaming capabilities and dual band use for public WLAN networks. It also has backward compatibility with 802.11b technologies.

 

10. What is the data rate of HomeRF 2.0?

a) 10 Mbps

b) 54 Mbps

c) 200 Mbps

d) 1 Mbps

Answer: a

Explanation: HomeRF 2.0 has data rate of the order of 10 Mbps. The FHSS proponents of IEEE 802.11 have formed the HomeRF standard that supports the frequency hopping equipment. In 2001, HomeRF developed a 10 Mbps FHSS standard called HomeRF 2.0.

 

11. HIPER-LAN stands for ____________

a) High Precision Radio Local Area Network

b) High Performance Radio Local Area Network

c) High Precision Radio Land Area Network

d) Huge Performance Radio Link Access Node

Answer: b

Explanation: HIPER-LAN stands for High Performance Radio Local Area Network. It was developed in Europe in mid 1990s. It was intended to provide individual wireless LANs for computer communication.

 

12. What is the range of asynchronous user data rates provided by HIPER-LAN?

a) 1-100 Mbps

b) 50-100 Mbps

c) 1-20 Mbps

d) 500 Mbps to 1 Gbps

Answer: c

Explanation: HIPER-LAN provides asynchronous user data rates of between 1 to 20 Mbps, as well as time bounded messaging of rates of 64 kbps to 2.048 Mbps. It uses 5.2 GHz and 17.1 GHz frequency bands.

 

13. What is the name of the European WLAN standard that provides user data rate upto 54 Mbps?

a) UNII

b) WISP

c) MMAC

d) HIPERLAN/2

Answer: d

Explanation: HIPERLAN/2 has emerged as the next generation European WLAN standard. It provides upto 54 Mbps of user data to a variety of networks. The networks includes the ATM backbone, IP based networks and the UMTS network.

 

14. What is WISP?

a) Wideband Internet Service Protocol

b) Wireless Internet Service Provider

c) Wireless Instantaneous Source Provider

d) Wideband Internet Source Protocol

Answer: b

Explanation: WISP is wireless Internet Service Provider used to explore public LANs (publican). It builds a nationwide infrastructure of WLAN access points in selected hotels, restaurants or airports. It then charges a monthly subscription fee to users who wish to have always on Internet access in those selected locations.

 

15. The price of WLAN hardware is more than 3G telephones and fixed wireless equipment.

a) True

b) False

View AnswerAnswer: b

Explanation: As, WLAN could be used to provide access for the last 100 meters into homes and businesses. Therefore, the price of WLAN hardware is far below 3G telephones and fixed wireless equipment.

 

16. ____________________ is the anticipation of unauthorized access or break to computers or data by means of wireless networks.

a) Wireless access

b) Wireless security

c) Wired Security

d) Wired device apps

Answer: b

Explanation: Wireless security is the anticipation of unauthorized access or breaks to computers or data by means of wireless networks. The most widespread types of wireless securities are Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), WPA2 and recently released WPA3.

 

17. Which among them has the strongest wireless security?

a) WEP

b) WPA

c) WPA2

d) WPA3

Answer: d

Explanation: The most extensive types of wireless securities are Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), WPA2 and WPA3. WPA3 is the strongest and recently released.

 

18. Which among the following is the least strong security encryption standard?

a) WEP

b) WPA

c) WPA2

d) WPA3

Answer: a

Explanation: A prime branch of cyber-security is wireless security. The most widespread types of wireless securities are Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), WPA2 and WPA3. WEP is notoriously weak encryption standard.

 

19. _________ is an old IEEE 802.11 standard from the year 1999.

a) WPA2

b) WPA3

c) WEP

d) WPA

Answer: c

Explanation: The most widespread types of wireless securities are Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA), WPA2 and WPA3. WEP is an old IEEE 802.11 standard from the year 1999.

 

20.  _______________ is the central node of 802.11 wireless operations.

a) WPA

b) Access Point

c) WAP

d) Access Port

Answer: b

Explanation: The central node of 802.11 wireless operations is the Access Point (AP). It is that interface which acts as an intermediary of a wired & wireless network; and all the associated wireless clients’ use this to exchange data with it.

 

21. AP is abbreviated as _____________

a) Access Point

b) Access Port

c) Access Position

d) Accessing Port

Answer: a

Explanation: The central node of 802.11 is that interface which acts as an intermediary of a wired & wireless network; and all the associated wireless clients’ use this and exchange data.

 

22. ___________________ is alike as that of Access Point (AP) from 802.11, & the mobile operators uses it for offering signal coverage.

a) Base Signal Station

b) Base Transmitter Station

c) Base Transceiver Station

d) Transceiver Station

Answer: c

Explanation: Base Transceiver Station (BTS) which is also known as a base station (BS) or radio base station (RBS) is alike as that of Access Point (AP) from 802.11, & the mobile operators use it for offering signal coverage. 

 

23. BTS stands for ___________________

a) Basement Transceiver Server

b) Base Transmitter Station

c) Base Transceiver Server

d) Base Transceiver Station

Answer: d

Explanation: Base Transceiver Station is a section of equipment which facilitates wireless communication from 802.11 & the mobile operators use it for offering signal coverage. Examples are GSM, 3G, 4G etc.

 

24. There are __________ types of wireless authentication modes.

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: a

Explanation: There are 2 achievable authentication types or schemes which are implemented in the wireless security. These are Pre-Shared Key – based authentication & Open Authentication. 

 

25. When a wireless user authenticates to any AP, both of them go in the course of four-step authentication progression which is called _____________

a) AP-handshaking

b) 4-way handshake

c) 4-way connection

d) wireless handshaking

Answer: b

Explanation: When a wireless user authenticates to any AP, both of them go in the course of four-step authentication progression which is called 4-way handshake.

 

26. WPS stands for __________________

a) WiFi Protected System

b) WiFi Protected Setup

c) WiFi Protocol Setup

d) Wireless Protected Setup

Answer: b

Explanation: WPS stands for WiFi Protected Setup began to show up a few years back on wireless access points as a new way of adding or connecting new devices to the network by just pushing a key (within the router) & inserting the password.

 

27. It is recommended to use WPA2 or WPA3 encryption standard as they are strong and more secure.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: It is recommended to use WPA2 or WPA3 encryption standard as they are strong and more secure. WPA2 & WPA3 characterizes the protocols a router & Wi-Fi client devices use for performing “handshake” securely for communication.

 

28. ___________ is a process of wireless traffic analysis that may be helpful for forensic investigations or during troubleshooting any wireless issue.

a) Wireless Traffic Sniffing

b) WiFi Traffic Sniffing

c) Wireless Traffic Checking

d) Wireless Transmission Sniffing

Answer: a

Explanation: Wireless Traffic Sniffing is a process of analyzing wireless traffic that may be helpful for forensic investigations or during troubleshooting any wireless issue.

 

29. Which of the following is a Wireless traffic Sniffing tool?

a) Maltego

b) BurpSuit

c) Nessus

d) Wireshark

Answer: d

Explanation: The process of analyzing wireless traffic that may be helpful for forensic investigations or during troubleshooting any wireless issue is called Wireless Traffic Sniffing. Popular tools used in this case are Wireshark and Kismet.

 

30. ___________________ began to show up few years back on wireless access points as a new way of adding or connecting new devices.

a) WPA2

b) WPA

c) WPS

d) WEP

Answer: c

Explanation: WiFi Protected Setup (WPS) began to show up a few years back on wireless access points as a new way of adding or connecting new devices to the network by just pushing a key (within the router) & typing an eight-digit password on the client device.

 

31. __________ consists of two or more basic service sets interconnected by a distribution system.

a) Extended Service Set

b) Permuted Service Set

c) Complex Service Set

d) Multiplex Service Set

Answer: a

Explanation: Extended Service Set consists of two or more basic service sets interconnected by a distribution system.

 

32. IEEE 802.11 defines ___________ services that need to be provided by the wireless LAN to achieve functionality equivalent to that which is inherent to wired LANs.

a) 4

b) 7

c) 5

d) 9

Answer: d

Explanation:  There are 9 services provided by IEEE 802.11.

 

 33. ___________ services are used to control IEEE 302.11 LAN access and confidentiality.

a) 4

b) 5

c) 2

d) 3

Answer: d

Explanation: Three of the services provided by IEEE 302.11 LAN are used to control access and confidentiality.

 

 34. __________ services are used to control IEEE 302.11 LAN delivery of MDSUs between stations.

a) 5

b) 6

c) 3

d) 2

Answer: b

Explanation: 6 services are used to control IEEE 302.11 LAN delivery of MDSUs between stations.

 

35. _________ services are implemented in every 802.11 station, including AP stations. _________ services are provided between BSSs.

a) Station, Distribution

b) Distribution, Station

c) Extended, Basic

d) Basic, Extended

Answer: a

Explanation: Station services are implemented in every 802.11 station, including AP stations. Distribution services are provided between BSSs.

 

36. The _________ service enables transfer of data between a station on an IEEE 802.11 LAN and a station on an integrated IEEE 802.x LAN.

a) extension

b) differentiation

c) integration

d) distribution

Answer: c

Explanation: The integration service enables transfer of data between a station on an IEEE 802.11 LAN and a station on an integrated IEEE 802.x LAN.

 

37. When a station moves only within the direct communication range of the communication stations of a single BSS, it is referred to as –

a) No transition

b) BSS transition

c) ESS transition

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: When a station moves only within the direct communication range of the communication stations of a single BSS, it is referred to as No transition.

 

38. A station movement from one BSS in one ESS to a BSS within another ESS falls under –

a) No transition

b) BSS transition

c) ESS transition

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: A station movement from one BSS in one ESS to a BSS within another ESS falls under ESS transition.

 

39. “Enables an established association to be transferred from one AP to another, allowing a mobile station to move from one BSS to another.” This can be referred to as-

a) Association

b) Reassociation

c) Disassociation

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: This is known as association.

 

40. What was the security algorithm defined for the IEEE 802.11?

a) WEP

b) RSN

c) WPA

d) SSL

Answer: a

Explanation: Wired Equivalency Privacy was the security algorithm defined for the IEEE 802.11.

 

41. The final form of the 802.11i standard is referred to as –

a) Wi-Fi Protected Access

b) Robust Security Network

c) Wired Equivalency Privacy

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: The final form of the 802.11i standard is the Robust Security Network (RSN).

 

42. EAP stands for –

a) Extended Application Protocol

b) Extensible Authentication Protocol

c) Embedded Application Protocol

d) Embedded Authentication Protocol

Answer: b

Explanation: EAP stands for Extensible Authentication Protocol.

 

43. TKIP is an access control protocol.

a) True

b)  False

Answer: b

Explanation: TKIP stands for Temporal Key Integrity Protocol and falls under “Confidentiality, Data Origin Authentication and Integrity and Replay Protection.”

 

44. In which phase of operation does the STA and AS prove their identities to each other?

a) Discovery

b) Authentication

c) Key generation and distribution

d) Protected data transfer

Answer: b

Explanation: The STA and AS prove their identities to each other in the Authentication phase.

 

45. The specification of a protocol, along with the chosen key length (if variable) is known as –

a) cipher suite

b) system suite

c) key set

d) service set

Answer: a

Explanation: The specification of a protocol, along with the chosen key length (if variable) is known as cipher suite.

 

46. Which the 3rd phase of operation in the IEEE 802.11i Protocol?

a) Protected Data Transfer

b) Discovery

c) Authentication

d) Key Management

Answer: d

Explanation: Key management is the 3rd Phase of operation in the IEEE 802.11i Protocol.

 

47. Which phase uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol?

a) Discovery

b) Authentication

c) Key Management

d) Protected Data Transfer

Answer: b

Explanation: EAP belongs to the Authentication Phase and is defined in the IEEE 802.1X standard.

 

48. There are a number of possible EAP exchanges that can be used during authentication phase. Typically the message flow between the STA and AP employs the ___________ protocol.

a) RADUIS

b) EAPOL

c) TKIP

d) KSN

Answer:  b

Explanation: The message flow between the STA and AP employs the EAP over LAN (EAPOL) protocol.

 

49. Another name for the AAA key (Authentication, Authorization and Accounting Key) is –

a) pre-shared key

b) pairwise transient key

c) master session key

d) key confirmation key

Answer: c

Explanation: The AAA key (Authentication, Authorization  and Accounting Key) is also known as master session key.

 

50. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________

a) scatternet

b) micronet

c) mininet

d) multinet

Answer: a

Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of a bluetooth system having a master node and upto seven active slave nodes. A collection of piconets is called scatternet and a slave node of a piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

 

51. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63

b) 127

c) 255

d) 511

Answer: c

Explanation: A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into parked mode. Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not disconnected from the network but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.

 

52. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

a) local area network

b) personal area network

c) metropolitan area network

d) wide area network

Answer: b

Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for transmission.

 

53. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum

b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing

c) time division multiplexing

d) channel division multiplexing

Answer: a

Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is a method of transmitting radio signals by rapidly changing the carrier frequency and is controlled by the codes known to the sender and receiver only.

 

54. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called _________

a) bluemaking

b) bluesnarfing

c) bluestring

d) bluescoping

Answer: b

Explanation: Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called Bluesnarfing. It is done through exploiting the vulnerabilities of the Bluetooth device to steal the transmitted information.

 

55. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?

a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio

b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video

c) a bluetooth profile for security

d) a bluetooth profile for file management

Answer: a

Explanation: A2DP stands for Advanced Audio Distribution Profile is a transfer standard use to transmit high definition audio through Bluetooth. It is mainly used in Bluetooth speakers and wireless headphones.

 

56. In a piconet, one master device ________

a) can not be slave

b) can be slave in another piconet

c) can be slave in the same piconet

d) can be master in another piconet

Answer: b

Explanation: In a scatternet, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet. The scatternet uses this property to connect many piconets together to create a larger network.

 

57. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.

a) 2.4 GHz ISM

b) 2.5 GHz ISM

c) 2.6 GHz ISM

d) 2.7 GHz ISM

View Answer Answer: a

Explanation: Bluetooth operates on 2.45 GHz frequency ISM band for transmission. It is used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters.

 

58. Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections

b) point-to-multipoint connection

c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection

d) multipoint to point connection

Answer: c

Explanation: In Bluetooth, each slave node communicates with the master of the piconet independently i.e. each master-slave connection is independent. The slave is not allowed to communicate with other slaves directly.

 

59. A scatternet can have maximum __________

a) 10 piconets

b) 20 piconets

c) 30 piconets

d) 40 piconets

Answer: a

Explanation: A scatternet can have maximum of 10 piconets and minimum of 2 piconets. To connect these piconets, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

Module 5

1. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 4 bytes

b) 128 bits

c) 8 bytes

d) 100 bits

Answer: b

Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion addresses are possible in IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible addresses and IPv6 would be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of possible new addresses.

 

2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes

b) 25bytes

c) 30bytes

d) 40bytes

Answer: d

Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results in faster processing of the datagram. There is one fixed header and optional headers which may or may not exist. The fixed header contains the mandatory essential information about the packet while the optional headers contain the optional “not that necessary” information.

 

3. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?

a) Fragmentation field

b) Fast-switching

c) ToS field

d) Option field

Answer: c

Explanation: The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar functionality to the Type of Service field in the IPv4 header. It’s an 8-bit field and its values are not defined in the RFC 2460.

 

4. IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.

a) broadcast

b) multicast

c) anycast

d) unicast

Answer: a

Explanation: There is no concept of broadcast address in IPv6. Instead, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.

 

5. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?

a) Fragmentation

b) Header checksum

c) Options

d) Anycast address

Answer: d

Explanation: There is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.

 

6. The _________ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram

a) Hop limit

b) TTL

c) Next header

d) Type of traffic

Answer: a

Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwarded by the router. When the value becomes zero the datagram is discarded. The field is 8-bits wide, so an IPv6 packet can live up to 255 router hops only.

 

7. Dual-stack approach refers to _________

a) implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks

b) implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks

c) node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support

d) implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks

Answer: c

Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approaches used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. ISPs are using it as a method to transfer from IPv4 to IPv6 completely eventually due to the lower number of possible available addresses in IPv4.

 

8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________

a) Use dual-stack approach

b) Tunneling

c) No solution

d) Replace the system

Answer: b

Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel in which at the sender’s side, the IPv6 datagram is encapsulated in to IPv4, and at the receiver’s side of the tunnel, the IPv4 packet is stripped and the IPv6 packet is sent to the receiver.

 

9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ______

a) 96 to 127

b) 0 to 63

c) 80 to 95

d) 64 to 79

Answer: a

Explanation: Teredo is a technique through which gives the possibility for full IPv6 network connectivity to IPv6 capable hosts which are currently on an IPv4 network. Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address of the IPv4 network.

Module 6

1. Which type of cell provides the best level of service for average subscribers?

a) Acceptance cell

b) Barred cell

c) Reserved cell

d) Suitable cell

Answer: d

Explanation: A suitable cell is a cell on which the UE may camp on to obtain normal service. The UE shall have a valid USIM and such a cell shall fulfil all the following requirements. It provides the best level of service for average subscribers.

 

2. With the normal cyclic prefix, how many symbols are contained in 1 frame?

a) 7

b) 140

c) 12

d) 40

Answer: b

Explanation: There are two different type of Cyclic Prefix. One is normal Cyclic Prefix and the other is ‘Extended Cyclic Prefix’ which is longer than the Normal Cyclic Prefix. Normal cyclic prefix contains 140 symbols in 1 frame.

 

3. What is the PBCH scrambled with?

a) Current frame number

b) Physical cell ID

c) UE’s CRNTI

d) Not scrambled

Answer: b

Explanation: The PBCH is scrambled prior to modulation with a cell-specific sequence that depends on the cells’ identity. In contrast to the synchronization signals, the PBCH is transmitted on the 72 reserved subcarriers, which are QPSK-modulated. 

 

4. What is the length of the shortest possible PDCCH in bits?

a) 144

b) 288

c) 72

d) 576

Answer: c

Explanation: PDCCH is a physical channel that carries downlink control information (DCI). Shortest possible PDCCH is 72 bits.

 

 5. What is the average uploading speed of 4G LTE network?

a) 1-3 Gbps

b) 2-5 Gbps

c) 1-3 Mbps

d) 2-5 Mbps

Answer: d

Explanation: Verizon 4G LTE wireless broadband is 10 times faster than 3G able to handle download speeds between 5 and 12 Mbps (Megabits per second) and upload speeds between 2 and 5 Mbps.

 

6. Which of the following is not a part of the characteristic of 4G network?

a) Multirate management

b) Fully converged services

c) Software dependency

d) Diverse user devices

Answer: a

Explanation: 4G is the fourth generation of broadband cellular network technology, succeeding 3G. Its characteristics include fully converged services, software dependency and diverse user devices.

 

7. What does SGSN stands for?

a) Serving GPRS Support Node

b) Supporting GGSN Support Node

c) Supporting GPRS Support Node

d) Supporting Gateway Support Node

Answer: a

Explanation: The Serving GPRS Support Node (SGSN) is a main component of the GPRS network, which handles all packet switched data within the network, e.g. the mobility management and authentication of the users. The SGSN performs the same functions as the MSC for voice traffic.

 

8. What location management feature is supported by 4G?

a) Concatenated Location Registration

b) Concurrent Location Register

c) Concatenated Management

d) Collated Location Registration

View AnswerAnswer: a

Explanation: 4G supports concatenated location registration. Concatenated location registration reports to the network that they are concatenated to a common object. 

 

9. In 2007 ____________ announced its plan to transmit its network to 4G standard LTE with joint efforts of Vodafone group.

a) Verizon Wireless

b) AirTouch

c) Netflix

d) V Cast

View AnswerAnswer: a

Explanation: In 2007, Verizon announced plans to develop and deploy its fourth generation mobile broadband network using LTE, the technology developed within the Third Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) standards organization. 

 

10. Hybrid ARQ is part of the ____________ layer.

a) PDCP

b) RLC

c) MAC

d) PHY

Answer: c

Explanation: Hybrid automatic repeat request (hybrid ARQ or HARQ) is a combination of high-rate forward error-correcting coding and ARQ error-control. It is part of the MAC layer.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Wireless & Mobile 

 

11. Which UE category supports 64 QAM on the uplink?

a) Only category 5

b) Only category 4

c) Only category 3

d) Category 3,4 and 5

Answer: a

Explanation: Category information is used to allow the eNB to communicate effectively with all the UEs connected to it. The UE-category defines a combined uplink and downlink capability. Only UE category 5 supports 64 QAM on the uplink. 

 

12. What type of handovers is supported by LTE?

a) Hard handover only

b) Soft handover only

c) Hard and soft handover

d) Hard, soft and softest handover

Answer: a

Explanation: LTE supports only hard handover. It does not receive data from two frequencies at the same time because switching between different carrier frequencies is very fast so soft handover is not required.

 

13. What is the minimum amount of RF spectrum needed for an FDD LTE radio channel?

a) 1.4 MHz

b) 2.8 MHz

c) 5 MHz

d) 20 MHz

Answer: b

Explanation: In telecommunication, Long-Term Evolution (LTE) is a standard for high-speed wireless communication for mobile devices and data terminals, based on the GSM/EDGE and UMTS/HSPA technologies. The minimum amount of RF spectrum needed for an FDD LTE radio channel is 2.8 MHz.

 

14. Which organization is responsible for developing LTE standards?

a) UMTS

b) 3GPP

c) 3GPP2

d) ISO

Answer: b

Explanation: The 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP) is a collaboration between groups of telecommunications standards associations, known as the Organizational Partners. LTE (Long Term Evolution) introduced in 3GPP R8, is the access part of the Evolved Packet System (EPS).

 

15. Which channel indicates the number of symbols used by the PDCCH?

a) PHICH

b) PDCCH

c) PBCH

d) PCFICH

Answer: d

Explanation: PCFIH channel indicates the number of symbols used by the PDCCH. The actual number of OFDM symbols occupied in any given subframe is indicated in the PCFICH (Physical Control Format Indicator Channel), which is located in the first OFDM symbol of each subframe.

 

16. How often can resources be allocated to the UE?

a) Every symbol

b) Every slot

c) Every subframe

d) Every frame

Answer: c

Explanation: Resources can be located to the UE every subframe. CCE Index is the CCE number at which the control channel data (PDCCH) is allocated. Normally this index changes for each subframe, i.e. even the same PDCCH data (e.g, a PDCCH for the same UE) allocated in each subframe changes subframe by subframe.

 

17. What is the largest channel bandwidth a UE is required to support in LTE?

a) 10 MHz

b) 20 MHz

c) 1.4 MHz

d) 5 MHz

Answer: b

Explanation: The LTE format was first proposed by NTT DoCoMo of Japan and has been adopted as the international standard. LTE-Advanced accommodates the geographically available spectrum for channels above 20 MHz. 

 

18. In LTE, what is the benefit of PAPR reduction in the uplink?

a) Improved uplink coverage

b) Lower UE power consumption

c) Reduced equalizer complexity

d) Improved uplink coverage, lower UE power consumption and reduced equalizer

Answer: d

Explanation: PAPR is the relation between the maximum power of a sample in a given OFDM transmit symbol divided by the average power of that OFDM symbol. PAPR reduction in the uplink leads to improved uplink coverage, lower UE power consumption and reduced equalizer complexity.

 

19. Which RLC mode adds the least amount of delay to user traffic?

a) Unacknowledged mode (UM)

b) Acknowledged mode (AM)

c) Low latency mode (LM)

d) Transparent mode (TM)

Answer: d

Explanation: The transparent mode entity in RLC does not add any overhead to the upper layer SDUs. The entity just transmits the SDUs coming from upper layer to MAC.

 

20. How much bandwidth is required to transmit the primary and secondary synchronization signals?

a) 1.08 MHz

b) 1.4 MHz

c) 930 kHz

d) 20 MHz

Answer: a

Explanation: Cell synchronization is the very first step when UE wants to camp on any cell. 1.08 MHZ is required to transmit the primary and secondary synchronization signals.

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