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[MCQ’s] Mechatronics
Module 1
1. Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?
a) Japan(1960)
b) Japan(1980)
c) Europe(1960)
d) Europe(1980)
Answer: a
2. A servo motor is a typical example of _____
a) Electronics system
b) Mechanical system
c) Computer system
d) Mechatronics system
Answer: d
3. What is the function of an input signal conditioning unit?
a) To produce control signals
b) To amplify the signal and convert it into digital form
c) To perform mechanical work
d) To produce electrical signals
Answer: b
4. The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator and rotor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
5. The main function of Actuator is _____
a) To produce motion
b) Detect input
c) Detect output
d) Detect the state of the system
Answer: a
6. Example of ‘Stand-alonesystem’ is _____
a) Machining centres
b) Washing machine
c) Robots for parts handling
d) Automated inspection stations
Answer: b
7. Which among the following carry out the overall control of a system?
a) Graphical display
b) Sensors
c) Actuators
d) Digital controls
Answer: d
8. A humanoid robot is an example of _____
a) Artificial intelligence
b) Stand-alone systems
c) Large factory systems
d) High level distributed sensor microcontroller actuator
Answer: a
9. Where is the feedback generated by sensors in a mechatronics system given?
a) Input sensors
b) Comparators
c) Mechanical actuators
d) Output sensors
Answer: b
10. A Mechatronics system contains feedback.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
11. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design process?
a) Hardware integration and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modeling
d) Modeling and simulation
Answer: d
12. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
a) Fluid valves
b) Automatic machine tools
c) Industrial robots
d) Microprocessors
Answer: a
13. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
14. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
c) Advanced control strategy level
d) Providing artificial intelligence
Answer: a
15. Microprocessor based electrical motors are used for ____
a) Prediction of fault in the system
b) Correction before a fault occurs
c) Actuation purpose in robots
d) Providing intelligence
Answer: c
16. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
17. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
b) Modeling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment
Answer: a
18. What is the function of “analysis” in the modeling and simulation phase?
a) Database for maintaining project information
b) Sub models for eventual reuse
c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
Answer: c
19. Describing the behavior characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
a) Modeling and simulation
b) Prototyping
c) Deployment
d) Design optimization
Answer: a
20. Prototyping involves ____
a) Conceptual design
b) Replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
c) Database for maintaining project information
d) Sub models for eventual reuse
Answer: b
21. What converts physical input into output, among the basic parts of a measuring system?
a) Transducer or sensor
b) Signal conditioning
c) Intelligence
d) Display
Answer: a
22. The analog to digital conversion in a measurement system takes place inside _____
a) transducer
b) signal processor
c) display
d) led
Answer: b
23. A thermocouple is a transducer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
24. The light emitting diodes are used as a/an ____
a) intelligence
b) display
c) transducer
d) sensor
Answer: b
25. Which type of error is caused due to friction or electrical capacitance?
a) Hysteresis
b) Zero
c) Systematic
d) Random
Answer: a
26. Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
27. Which type of error always has the same and consistent value?
a) Random errors
b) Systematic errors
c) Zero errors
d) Hysteresis errors
Answer: b
28. The largest value for which the instrument output remains zero is ____
a) hysteresis error
b) resolution
c) sensitivity
d) dead zone
Answer: d
29. The function of the data transmission element is ____
a) to transfer data from one element to another
b) to Modify the data
c) to process the data
d) to separate the signal hidden in the noise
Answer: a
30. Which elements among the following is used to modify the data before display?
a) Data presentation element
b) Data transmission element
c) Data processing element
d) Variable manipulation element
Answer: c
Module 2
1. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of an LDR (Light dependent resistor)?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
Answer: b
2. What is the absolute error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 5.1 cm but the actual value is 5 cm?
a) 1.02
b) 0.1
c) 0.01
d) 1
Answer: b
3. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.1 cm but the actual value is 3 cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.1
c) 0.033
d) 1
Answer: c
4. What is the sensitivity of a sensor if the difference between two alternative output observations is 0.6 and difference between two alternative input observations is 0.2?
a) 3
b) 0.6
c) 0.2
d) 2
Answer: a
5. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of aB57211P0100M301 thyristor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
Answer: b
6. The intensity of light is inversely proportional to the resistance of a photo resistor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. Transformer is a type of transducer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. The resistance of a thermistor is directly proportional to its temperature.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
9. What is the sensitivity of a sensor if the difference between two alternative output observations is 0.4 and difference between two alternative input observations is 0.2?
a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.2
d) 2
Answer: d
10. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an infrared sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 4cm but the actual value is 3.8cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.0526
c) 0.033
d) 1
Answer: b
11. All sensors are transducers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
12. What is the nature of resistance to temperature graph of a thermistor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Increases and then decreases
d) Constant
Answer: b
13. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.3 cm but the actual value is 2.1cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.2
c) 0.0869
d) 1
Answer: c
14. What is the absolute error of an observation taken by an Infrared sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.2 cm but the actual value is 2.9cm?
a) 1.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.03
d) 1
Answer: b
15. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of a Photo resistor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
Answer: b
16. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.12cm but the actual value is 2cm?
a) 12%
b) 10%
c) 6%
d) 1%
Answer: c
17. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a distance measuring sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 7.19cm but the actual distance is 7.02cm?
a) 13:719
b) 17:619
c) 17:702
d) 13:619
Answer: c
18. What is the mean value of a distance observation set taken by a distance measurement sensor?
Observations={2,2.13,2.1,1.9}
a) 2.0325
b) 2.2
c) 2.125
d) 2
Answer: a
19. Static characteristic of a sensor cannot be found using calibration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
20. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a IR(Infrared) sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 1.26 cm but the actual distance is 1cm?
a) 13:409
b) 13:50
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
Answer: b
21. Static characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s that vary very slowly with time.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
22. Accuracy and precession are same for a sensor’s observation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
23. Hysteresis error of any sensor has maximum difference between the observed value and actual value.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
24. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a IR(Infrared) sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 4.16cm but the actual distance is 4.09cm?
a) 7:409
b) 13:603
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
Answer: a
25. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by a distance measuring sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.32cm but the actual value is 2cm?
a) 12%
b) 7.09%
c) 6%
d) 16%
Answer: d
26. What is the average value of a distance observation set taken by a ultrasonic sensor?
Observations={5,5.413,5.41,4.97}
a) 5.0325
b) 5.198
c) 5.125
d) 5.07325
Answer: b
27. Static characteristics are related to the steady state response of an instrument.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
28. What is the mean value of a distance observation set taken by a distance measurement sensor?
Observations={3,3.213,3.11,2.97}
a) 3.0325
b) 3.2
c) 3.125
d) 3.07325
Answer: d
29. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a distance measuring sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 6.16cm but the actual distance is 6.03cm?
a) 13:719
b) 13:603
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
Answer: b
30. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an infrared sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.32cm but the actual value is 3.1cm?
a) 12%
b) 7.09%
c) 6%
d) 1%
Answer: b
31. Which error is also termed as measurement error?
a) Static errors
b) Dynamic errors
c) Systematic errors
d) Statical error
Answer: b
32. In retardation type measuring lag the instrument responds after an unspecified dead time lag.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
33. Active transducers do not require power source for operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
34. Which among the following transducer is an example of active transducer?
a) LDR (Light dependant sensor)
b) Strain gauge
c) Hall effect sensor
d) Photovoltaic cell
Answer: d
35. Which among the following transducer is an example of passive transducer?
a) Chemical transducer
b) Thermoelectric transducer
c) Strain gauge
d) Piezoelectric transducer
Answer: c
36. Fidelity is a static characteristic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
37. Measuring lag is a dynamic characteristic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
38. In time delay type measuring lag the instrument responds immediately as soon as the input is altered.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
39. Which instrument can be used to measure time without any errors?
a) Analog Clock
b) Digital Clock
c) Atomic clock
d) Doomsday clock
Answer: c
40. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
a) By increasing accuracy
b) By increasing precession
c) By reducing sensitivity
d) By reducing time lag
Answer: d
41. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristic?
a) Precession
b) Measuring lag
c) Dynamic error
d) Fidelity
Answer: a
42. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristic?
a) Response speed
b) Accuracy
c) Retardation type measuring lag
d) Time delay lag
Answer: b
43. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
a) By increasing stability
b) By increasing tolerance
c) By increasing resolution
d) By increasing speed of response
Answer: d
44. Which among the following transducer is an example of passive transducer?
a) Photovoltaic cell
b) Thermocouple
c) Piezoelectric transducer
d) Thermistor
Answer: d
45. Which among the following transducer is an example of active transducer?
a) LDR (Light dependant sensor)
b) Thermocouple
c) LVDT (linear variable differential transformer)
d) Thermistor
Answer: b
46. Which type of coil is a solenoid?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrical
c) Mechanical
d) Chemical
Answer: a
47. Iron is used in solenoids for ____
a) increasing the magnetic field strength
b) increasing the electric field strength
c) decreasing the magnetic field strength
d) decreasing the electric field strength
Answer: a
48. The number of turns of the solenoid is inversely proportional to the magnetic field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
49. What is the relation between the current and the magnetic field?
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Independent of each other
d) No relation
Answer: a
50. What is the relation between the magnetic field and the number of turns of a solenoid?
a) Inversely proportional
b) Directly proportional
c) Independent of each other
d) No relation
Answer: b
51. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
52. What is the direction of the magnetic field with respect to the current of a solenoid?
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) No fixed direction
d) Reverse direction
Answer: b
53. Which among the following are not the applications of a solenoid?
a) Electromagnets
b) Medical
c) Industries
d) Vessels
Answer: d
54. What is the formula for the turn density of a solenoid?
a) n=N/L
b) N=n/l
c) n=N.l
d) N=nN/l
Answer: a
55. How can we increase the magnetic field strength of a solenoid?
a) By increasing current
b) Removing iron from the field
c) By decreasing the current
d) By decreasing the number of turns
Answer: a
56. How many terminals does a GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
57. What is the full form of DPDT with respect to switches?
a) Double pull double throw
b) Double pole double throw
c) Double pull dual throw
d) Dual pole dual throw
Answer: b
58. What is the full form of DIAC with respect to switches?
a) Diode alternating current
b) Dipole alternating current
c) Dual alternating current
d) Direct alternating current
Answer: a
59. Which is a type of solid state switch?
a) NPN Diode
b) Bipolar junction transistor
c) DPDT(Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: b
60. DIAC (Diode alternating current) switch has three terminals.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
61. TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
62. Which is an example of pressure switch?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
Answer: b
63. Which is an example of temperature switch?
a) KSD9700
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
Answer: a
64. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in a water tank and perform suitable switching action?
a) Flow Switch
b) Float switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: b
65. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object by its weight?
a) SPST (Single pole Single throw) Switch
b) Limit switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: b
66. A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch is a unipolar device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
67. DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
68. Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
69. Which switch can be used to rotate a DC motor in both clockwise and anti-clock wise direction?
a) SPST (Single pole Single throw) Switch
b) DPST (Double pole single throw) Switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
Answer: c
70. What is the full form of SPDT with respect to switches?
a) Single pull double throw
b) Single pole double throw
c) Single pull dual throw
d) Singular pole dual throw
Answer: b
71. Which type of device is a stepper motor?
a) Electromechanical
b) Electrochemical
c) Embedded system
d) Electromagnetic
Answer: a
72. The speed of the rotation of the stepper motor depends on ____
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
Answer: c
73. Stepper motors are extremely reliable.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
74. Length of rotation is directly related to to ____
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
Answer: b
75. Which among the following is not the type of a stepper motor?
a) Variable reluctance
b) Permanent magnet
c) Hybrid
d) Variable magnet
Answer: d
76. A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
77. A soft iron multi-toothed rotor and wound stator is present in _______
a) permanent magnet stepper motor
b) variable reluctance stepper motor
c) hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
Answer: b
78. Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
Answer: a
79. Which among the following is a property of hybrid stepper motor?
a) Contains a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
b) Low cost and low-resolution motor
c) The better performance provided with respect to step resolution
d) Provides an increased magnetic flux
Answer: c
80. Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
a) Resolution required
b) Drive mechanism component required
c) Torque required
d) Speed
Answer: d
81. What is the formula to calculate the step angle of a stepper motor?
a) (360*ph.)/nph
b) (ph/nph)
c) (nph/ph)
d) (360*nph)/ph
Answer: a
82. What is the step angle of a hybrid stepper motor?
a) 0.9 degree to 3.6 degree
b) 0.9 degree to 7.0 degree
c) 0.1 degree to 1.0 degree
d) 1.0 degree to 0.9 degree
Answer: a
83. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its frequency is 60 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: b
84. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 500 rpm and has percentage slip of 4% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: c
85. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 10 poles and its synchronous speed is 720 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 40 Hz
Answer: a
86. Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input supply.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
87. Speed of an induction motor is independent of the number of stator poles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
86. Rotor rheostat speed control method can be used for controlling the speed of squirrel cage motors.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
87. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the number of stator poles increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
Answer: c
88. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the frequency of the supply increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
Answer: b
89. Which speed control method can only be applied to squirrel cage type induction motors?
a) Multiple Stator winding method
b) Rotor rheostat speed control method
c) Pole amplitude modulation method
d) Frequency control method
Answer: a
90. What does PAM stands for, in context to speed control method of induction motor?
a) Pole amplitude maintenance
b) Passive amplitude modulation
c) Pole amplification modulation
d) Pole amplitude modulation
Answer: d
91. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 8 poles and its frequency is 40 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: b
92. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 9 poles and its frequency is 50 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 666.667 rpm
Answer: d
93. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 400 rpm and has percentage slip of 5% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
Answer: b
94. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its synchronous speed is 620 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 62 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 58 Hz
Answer: b
95. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 300 rpm and has percentage slip of 0.2% ?
a) 200 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 280 rpm
d) 294 rpm
Answer: d
Module 3
1. Who invented LabVIEW?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Jeff Kodosky
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
Answer: b
2. What is the full form of MIDAS with respect to data acquisition package?
a) Maximum input data acquisition system
b) Minimum integrated data acquisition system
c) Maximum integrated data acquisition system
d) Minimum input data acquisition system
Answer: c
3. What is stand alone data acquisition systems often called?
a) Data Blogger
b) Data Logger
c) Data Vlogger
d) Digital Blogger
Answer: b
4. Which is an example of Analog to digital converter?
a) ADC0808CCN PDIP-28
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: a
5. Data acquisition can be done on qualitative quantities.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. DAQ (Data acquisition system) cannot be controlled using C++ programming.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
7. What type of interface does a DAQ (Data acquisition) hardware creates?
a) Interface between two similar signals
b) Interface between a computer and signal
c) Interface between two dissimilar signals
d) Interface between two similar hardware
Answer: b
8. DAQ (Data acquisition) system can be controlled using LabVIEW.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9. Who invented Electro cardiogram?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Willem Einthoven
d) Robert Conrad
Answer: c
10. Which is an example of data logger kit?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: c
11. DAQ (Data acquisition) system cannot be controlled using fortran programming language.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
12. Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
13. “JAVA” can be used for data acquisition.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
14. Which is a false statement regarding DAQ (Data acquisition) systems?
a) It can measure physical phenomenon which can be sampled
b) Signal conditioning can be done
c) DAQ system can generate its own physical sample sets
d) Analog to digital conversion can be done
Answer: c
15. Which is an example of signal conditioner?
a) RCV420KPG4
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
Answer: a
16. What is the nyquist frequency for a bandwidth of span “X”?
a) 0
b) X
c) 2X
d) 3X
Answer: c
17. What is the LSB voltage of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 16 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits is 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: c
18. What is the full scale voltage range of a analog to digital converter if the LSB voltage is 4 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 3?
a) 36 volt
b) 31 volt
c) 43 volt
d) 32 volt
Answer: d
19. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 16 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: c
20. Nyquist rate is the maximum rate at which a signal of finite bandwidth needs to be sampled in order to retrieve all its information.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
21. What is the LSB voltage of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 8 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: d
22. How many resistors are required to make an n-bit Analog-to-digital converter using string resistor ladder network?
a) 2n resistors
b) 2n resistors
c) 3n resistors
d) 3n resistors
Answer: b
23. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of an Analog to digital converter?
a) BC541
b) ADS1115
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
24. What does LVDS stand for?
a) Low-voltage differentiating signal
b) Least-voltage differential signal
c) Low-voltage differential signal
d) Low-voltage differentiable signal
Answer: c
25. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 8 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: d
26. What is binary equivalent of 30?
a) 11110
b) 01111
c) 11011
d) 111110
Answer: a
27. What is binary equivalent of 70?
a) 1000101
b) 1000111
c) 1000110
d) 111110
Answer: c
28. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is 10 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 2?
a) 1.5 volt
b) 2.5 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
Answer: b
29. What is gray code equivalent of 51?
a) 1000101010
b) 0000101010
c) 00001010101
d) 0000101011
Answer: b
30. What is gray code equivalent of 7?
a) 0111
b) 0110
c) 01001
d) 0100
Answer: d
31. What is the form in which audio files are stored?
a) Digital
b) Semi-digital
c) Analog
d) Semi-Analog
Answer: a
32. Which conversion takes place when music is played from a memory card?
a) AAC
b) ADC
c) DDC
d) DAC
Answer: d
33. What is the output of a music player?
a) Digital
b) Semi-digital
c) Analog
d) Semi-Analog
Answer: c
34. What does PWM stand for?
a) Pulse Width modulation
b) Pulsating Width modulation
c) Pulse Width modulator
d) Pulsating Width modulator
Answer: a
35. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.4 seconds and the time period is 0.8 second?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
36. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.008 seconds and frequency is 50 hertz?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: c
37. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the ON time of the signal is 0.5 seconds and off time of the signal is 0.5 seconds?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
38. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of a Digital to Analog converter?
a) BC541
b) MCP4725
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
39. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.004 seconds and frequency is 50 hertz?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: d
40. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.3 seconds and the time period is 0.6 second?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
41. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the ON time of the signal is 0.7 seconds and off time of the signal is 0.3 seconds?
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: b
42. Which is an example of Digital to Analog converter module?
a) PCF8591
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) DM388AAARD21
Answer: a
43. The highest voltage value of an analog signal is replaced by “logic 1” in digital signal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
44. We cannot store analog data directly.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
45. Light can be considered as a form of digital signal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
46. What is the full form of FIR in terms of signal filtering?
a) Finite impulse response
b) Finite impulse reduction
c) Finite impulse recombination
d) Filthy impulse response
Answer: a
47. Which frequency is attenuated in a Low-Pass filter?
a) High frequency
b) Low frequency
c) Mid-Range frequency
d) No frequency
Answer: a
48. Which filter contains entirely passive elements?
a) Electrical filter
b) Mechanical filter
c) Digital filter
d) Optical filter
Answer: a
49. Which is a signal generator module?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) AD9850
d) EddyNCDT 3301
Answer: c
50. A system is said to be causal if its output depends on the future inputs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
51. Capacitor can be used for signal filtering.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
52. Which family of filter has maximum flat frequency response?
a) Chebyshev filter
b) Bessel filter
c) Elliptic filter
d) Butterworth filter
Answer: d
53. Which family of filters have maximum flat phase delay?
a) Chebyshev filter
b) Bessel filter
c) Elliptic filter
d) Butterworth filter
Answer: b
54. What is the full form of IIR in terms of signal filtering?
a) Infinite impulse response
b) Infinite impulse reduction
c) Infinite impulse recombination
d) Instant impulse response
Answer: a
55. A system is said to be non causal if its present output depends on the future inputs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
56. Which signal is obtained after integrating the unit step signal?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: c
57. Which signal is obtained after integrating the ramp signal (for x>0 in X-Axis)?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: d
58. Which signal is obtained after differentiating the ramp signal?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: b
59. Which signal is obtained after differentiating the unit step signal?
a) UnitImpulse signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
Answer: a
60. Derivative of a unit step signal is zero everywhere.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
61. What is the slew rate of an ideal operational amplifier?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 100
d) Infinite
Answer: d
62. What is the open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinite
d) -1
Answer: c
63. What is the phase difference between input signal and output signal when input is provided to the inverting terminal of the operational amplifier?
a) 0 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 180 degree
d) 45 degree
Answer: c
64. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 9 volt in 18 micro second?
a) 0.5 Volt/microsecond
b) 5 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
Answer: a
65. A practical operational amplifier has infinite bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
66.An ideal Operational amplifier should have Infinite output resistance and zero input resistance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
67. CMRR stands for ____
a) Common mode rejection ratio
b) Common mains rejection ratio
c) Common mode reluctance ratio
d) Common mode rejection rate
Answer: a
68. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of an operational amplifier?
a) BC541
b) LM741H
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
Answer: b
69. PSRR stands for ________
a) Power Supply Relaxation Ratio
b) Power Supply Rejection Rate
c) Power Supply Rejection Ratio
d) Power Supply Rejecting Ratio
Answer: c
70. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has common mode gain=0.5 and differential gain=1200?
a) 600
b) 1200
c) 2400
d) 1200 db
Answer: c
71. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 6 volt in 12 micro second?
a) 0.5 Volt/microsecond
b) 5 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
Answer: a
72. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 5 volt in 15 micro second?
a) 0.33 Volt/microsecond
b) 3 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
Answer: a
73. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has common mode gain=0.2 and differential gain=1300?
a) 650
b) 6500
c) 2400
d) 1200 db
Answer: b
74. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has common mode gain=0.6 and differential gain=1000?
a) 650
b) 6500
c) 1666.66
d) 1200 db
Answer: c
75. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as (common mode gain)/(differential mode gain).
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
76. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
Answer: a
77. Which among the following is a property of a microcontroller?
a) High power devices
b) Low power devices
c) High cost
d) Large size
Answer: b
78. Microcontrollers have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
79. How many bytes can a typical low-end microcontroller have?
a) 100 bytes
b) 500 bytes
c) 1000 bytes
d) 300 bytes
Answer: c
80. Which among the following is the main advantage of a microcontroller?
a) Simple programming
b) High-level programming
c) Costly
d) High voltage requirement
Answer: a
81. PIC is a microcontroller.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
82. Which among the following is not a hardware feature of PIC?
a) EPROM
b) EEPROM
c) SRAM
d) Watchdog timer
Answer: b
83. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
Answer: d
84. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
Answer: a
85. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
Answer: a
Module 4
1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Hydraulic Pumps
Answer: d
2. Which among the following pumps have a definite amount of discharge?
a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Non-positive displacement pumps
c) Self-priming pumps
d) Jet pumps
Answer: a
3. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
Answer: b
4. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
Answer: d
5. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
Answer: a
6. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
Answer: b
7. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust-free surroundings
Answer: a
8. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture equipment
Answer: b
9. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
Answer: a
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
Answer: d
11. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: b
12. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
Answer: a
13. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
14. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store the sufficient amount of hydraulic oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: b
15. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: a
16. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
17. What controls the direction of the flow of oil?
a) Pressure relief valve
b) Direction control valve
c) Flow control valve
d) Actuator
Answer: b
18. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of oil
b) To pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit.
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of oil
Answer: d
19. How many types of actuators are present in hydraulic systems?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
20. What is the function of a pressure gauge?
a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
Answer: b
21. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: c
22. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
Answer: a
23. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
24. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
Answer: b
25. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
Answer: c
26. Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
27. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
Answer: b
28. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
Answer: d
29. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
Answer: a
30. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
Answer: b
31. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust free surroundings
Answer: a
32. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture types of equipment
Answer: b
33. Which is an electro-pneumatic device?
a) Seven Segment display
b) BO Motor
c) Hydraulic cylinder
d) Lithium battery
Answer: c
34. Which actuator does not need any external power source?
a) 3 phase motor
b) Solenoid valve
c) Wax Motor
d) BO motor
Answer: c
35. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in check valves?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
36. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
37. The OPEN and CLOSE time of an electro pneumatic valve can be controlled using PLC control system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
38. Thermal actuators need electric current for operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
39. What is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems?
a) Delicate Control Valve
b) Distance Control Value
c) Directional Control Valve
d) Diameter Control Valve
Answer: c
40. Which valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions?
a) Spool valve
b) Shuttle Valve
c) Check valve
d) Rubber valve
Answer: a
41. Which valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference?
a) Rubber valve
b) Pilot Valve
c) Check valve
d) Solenoid valve
Answer: d
42. Which is an example of pressure regulator?
a) R100UD
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
Answer: a
43. Who invented check valve?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Robert Wiener
c) Charles young
d) Frank P. Cotter
Answer: d
44. Solenoid valves cannot be used for controlling the valve of a liquid flowing through a channel.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
45. Wax motor does not require external electrical power source.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
46. What type of motion can be achieved using thermal actuator?
a) Rectilinear
b) Spiral
c) Circular
d) Parabolic
Answer: a
47. Which is an example of push pull solenoid electromagnet?
a) R100UD
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) JF-0630B
Answer: d
48. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
Answer: c
49. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) Pipes and valves
b) Shafts
c) Motors
d) Flow control valve
Answer: a
50. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
51. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
Answer: b
52. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
Answer: c
53. Which type of pumps can give discharge even at high pressure?
a) Multistage Pumps
b) Monoblock pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Single stage pumps
Answer: c
54. Which type of component in the hydraulic system supports less vibration and noise?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
Answer: c
55. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
56. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
Answer: a
57. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
Answer: d
Module 5
1. When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
a. normally open type
b. normally closed type
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
Answer: b
2. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately required for use is called as______.
a. HDD
b. ROM
c. RAM
d. SSD
Answer: c
3. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital controllers?
a. very slow
b. very fast
c. same
d. almost similar
Answer: a
4. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that of the PLCs .
a. poor than
b. excellent than
c. as good as
d. unpredictable as
Answer: a
5. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as compared to that of conventional relay controllers?
a. poor
b. excellent
c. as good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers
d. Unpredictable
Answer: a
6. __________ of PLCs can be done in very little time.
a. Programming
b. Installation
c. Commissioning
d. All of the above
Answer: d
7. PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of operation.
a. only programmed
b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point
Answer: c
8. The PLC is used in _______.
a. machine tools
b. automated assembly equipment
c. moulding and extrusion machines
d. all of the above
Answer: d
9. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?
1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms
a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)
b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)
d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)
Answer: d
10. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches
b. Relays
c. Sensors
d. None of the above
Answer: d
11. If the value of error increases, the changing speed of controller output __________.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. cannot say
Answer: c
12. The range of control of controller __________ due to presence of offset.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. cannot say
Answer: b
13.Shifting of set point and adjusting its new value by the controller, when the value of disturbance increases, is called as_______.
a. set-shift
b. offset
c. stabilization
d. none of the above
Answer: b
14. Which of the following is/are the drawback/s of proportional control?
1. Proportional control system is complicated and costly.
2. Proportional control system is not suitable for pressure temperature and flow control problems
3. If there are sudden disturbance, the proportional control system takes time to stabilize.
a. (1)
b. (2)
c. (3)
d. (1), (2) and (3)
Answer: c
15. Consider the following graph of Controller Characteristics of On-Off Control. The region shown between curve A and curve B is called as________.
a. dead zone
b. hysteresis
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
Answer: c
16. __________ is the time required for the response to reach 50% of the final value in the first attempt.
a. Rise time
b. Peak time
c. Settling time
d. Delay time
Answer: d
17. If the frequency of the input signal to a system is increased, the amplitude of the output _______.
a. start reducing
b. start increasing
c. be remain constant
d. be unpredictable
Answer: a
18. In all cases of input frequency, if the gain starts reducing, the phase angle will _______.
a. start reducing
b. start increasing
c. be remain constant
d. be unpredictable
Answer: a
19. What is the ratio of amplitude of response to that of the input called?
a. Response
b. Gain
c. Phase
d. Frequency
Related Ques
Answer: b
20. Which method is used for stability analysis?
a. Nyquisit criteria
b. Root locus method
c. Routh Hurwitz criteria
d. All of the above
Answer: d