[MCQ’s]Mechanics of Solids

Module-1

1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is ____________
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of stress and strain. So on the stress strain curve, it is the slope.

2. What is the stress-strain curve?
a) It is the percentage of stress and stain
b) It is the relationship between stress and strain
c) It is the difference between stress and strain
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The relationship between stress and strain on a graph is the stress strain curve. It represents the change in stress with change in strain.

3. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the proportionality limit?
a) Upper yield point
b) Lower yield point
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
Explanation: The curve will be stress strain proportional upto the proportionality limit. After these, the elastic limit will occur.

4. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the lower yield point?
a) Yield plateau
b) Upper yield point
c) Ultimate point
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The points on the curve comes in the given order,
A. proportionality limit
B. elastic limit
C. upper yield point
D. lower yield point
E. yield plateau
F. ultimate point
G. breaking point.

5. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after yield plateau?
a) lower yield point
b) Upper yield point
c) Ultimate point
d) Breaking point
Explanation: After the yield plateau the curve will go up to its maximum limit of stress which is its ultimate point.

6. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the ultimate point?
a) Last point
b) Breaking point
c) Elastic limit
d) Material limit
Explanation: After the ultimate point the value of stress will reduce on increasing of strain and ultimately the material will break.

7. Elastic limit is the point ____________
a) up to which stress is proportional to strain
c) Up to which if the load is removed, original volume and shapes are regained
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The elastic limit is that limit up to which any material behaves like an elastic material.

8. Where is the necking region?
a) The area between lower yield point and upper yield point
b) The area between the plastic limit and elastic limit
c) The area between the ultimate point and initial point
d) The area between the ultimate point and rupture
Explanation: Necking is a tensile strain deformation which is cased in after the ultimate amount of stress occurs in the material.

9. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force is called __________
a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Malleability
Explanation: When an external force acts on a body, the body tends to undergo some deformation. If the external force is removed and the body comes back to its original shape and size, the body is known as elastic body and this property is called elasticity.

10. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates is called __________
a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
Explanation: A material can be beaten into thin plates by its property of malleability.

11. Which law is also called as the elasticity law?
a) Bernoulli’s law
b) Stress law
c) Hooke’s law
d) Poisson’s law
Explanation: The hooke”s law is valid under the elastic limit of a body. It itself states that stress is proportional to the strain within the elastic limit.

12. The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called __________
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogeneous
d) Hard
Explanation: Same elastic properties in all direction is called the homogenity of a material.

13. A member which does not regain its original shape after removal of the load producing deformation is said __________
a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Rigid
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: A plastic material does not regain its original shape after removal of load. An elastic material regain its original shape after removal of load.

14. The body will regain it is previous shape and size only when the deformation caused by the external forces, is within a certain limit. What is that limit?
a) Plastic limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The body only regain its previous shape and size only upto its elastic limit.

15. The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called __________
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogenous
d) Hard
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same elastic properties in all directions.

16. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain __________
a) Increases more rapidly
b) Decreases more rapidly
c) Increases in proportion to the stress
d) Decreases in proportion to the stress
Explanation: On reaching the tensile stress to the elastic limit after the proportionality limit, the stress is no longer proportional to the strain. Then the value of strain rapidly increases.

17. What kind of elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function?
a) Cauchy elastic materials
b) Hypo elastic materials
c) Hyper elastic materials
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The hyper elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function. A model is hyper elastic if and only if it is possible to express the cauchy stress tensor as a function of the deformation gradient.

18. What the number that measures an object’s resistance to being deformed elastically when stress is applied to it?
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Stress modulus
Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of stress to strain.

19. If the thickness of plate is negligible when compared to the diameter of the cylindrical, then it is called __________
a) Thick cylinder
b) Thin cylinder
c) Hoop cylinder
d) Circumferential cylinder
Explanation: The thickness of plate is negligible when compared to the diameter of the cylindrical shell, and then it can be termed as a thin cylinder. The radius stress in the cylinder walls is negligible.

20. In thin cylinders, the thickness should be ____________ times of internal diameter.
a) 1/20
b) 1/15
c) 1/30
d) 1/40
Explanation: In thin shells, the stress distribution over the thickness of the material is assumed to be uniform and the wall thickness is equal to or less than 1/ 20 of the internal diameter.

21. Oil tanks, steam boilers, gas pipes are examples of _____________
a) Thick shells
b) Thin cylinders
c) Hoop cylinders
d) Longitudinal cylinders
Explanation: In thin cylindrical shells, the stresses are uniformly distributed throughout the wall. The type of stresses developed in thin cylinders is hoop stress and longitudinal stress. Ex: water supply mains, oil tanks, steam boilers and gas pipes.

22. In _________ shells, the stress distribution is not uniform over the thickness of the material.
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Hoop
d) Circumferential
Explanation: A cylinder in which the wall thickness is greater than 1 / 20 of internal diameter it is called the thick cylinder.
t>d/20. In thick shells, the stress distribution is not uniform over the thickness of the material.

23. Hydraulic radius is denoted by _________
a) T
b) A
c) R
d) N
Explanation: Hydraulic radius is the ratio of wetted area to the wetted perimeter. It is also known as hydraulic mean depth. It is denoted by “R”.
R = A/P.

24. Hydraulic depth is a ratio of wetted area to _____
a) Bottom width
b) Top width
c) Diameter
Explanation: Hydraulic depth is the ratio of wetted area to the top with (T). It is denoted by D
D = A/T.

25. Most economical section is also called as __________
a) Most active section
b) Most effective section
c) Most efficient section
d) Superior section
Explanation: A channel is said to be the most economical if it gives the maximum discharge under given cross-sectional area, bottom slope and roughness. The most economical section is also known as the most efficient section.

26. For most economical section __________ should be minimum.
a) P
b)A
c) R
d)N
Explanation: A channel discharges larger if the hydraulic radius is maximum. The hydraulic radius will be maximum when the wetted perimeter is minimum for a given area. Hence, for most economical section the wetted perimeter should be minimum.

27. A rectangular channel has cross sectional area of 50 m2. If the channel section is to be most economical calculate the depth. Take B = 10m.
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 8 m
d) 12 m
Explanation: Let y be the depth of flow of the channel. For most economical section y = B/2.
Cross-section area of flow A = By
y= 50/10
y= 5 m.

28. _________ are used to change the water level in a canal.
a) Sluice gates
b) Lock gates
c) Check gates
d) Scour gates
Explanation: Gates which are used to change the water level in a canal or a river are known as lock gates. If a canal or a river has a vertical fall at any section, it is necessary to raise or lower the water level in order to transfer the boat from upper water level to lower one.

29. The flow of water is controlled in hydraulic structures by ____________
a) Sluice gates
b) Check gates
c) Lock gates
d) Drain gates
Explanation: In hydraulic structures, the openings are provided to carry water from its storage place to place of utilisation. The flow of water through such openings is controlled by means of sluice gates.

30. __________ stress does not exceed the permissible tensile stress for the shell material.
a) Axial
b) Longitudinal
c) Hoop
d) Lateral
Explanation: Circumferential (hoop) stress does not exceed the permissible tensile stress (Pt) for the shell material
fh<Pt
t = pd/2fh.

31. To determine hoop stress, efficiency of _________ is to be considered.
a) Construction joint
b) Transverse joint
c) Longitudinal joint
d) Rivet joint
Explanation: To find hoop stress, the efficiency of longitudinal joints to be considered.
fh=pd/2t nl; Where
fh = hoop stress
p = internal pressure
t = thickness of metal
d = diameter
nl = efficiency of longitudinal joint.

32. Cast Iron pipes are being joined a _________
a) Flange joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Socket and spigot joint
d) Simplex joint
Explanation: Cast iron pipes are being joined socket and spigot joint. The enlarged end is called socket while the normal end is called spigot. The spigot is fitted into the socket.

33. Bell joint is also known as ___________
a) Spigot joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Socket joint
d) Simplex joint
Explanation: Socket and spigot joint sometimes called bell and spigot joint. It is flexible and allows the pipes to be laid on flat curves without use of specials.

34. Which of the following joint is a simplex joint?
a) Flanged joint
b) Socket and spigot joint
c) AC pipe joint
d) Expansion joint
Explanation: AC pipes are joined by means of a special type of coupling called simplex joint which consists of a pipe and two rubber rings.

35. The mortise and tenon are provided in __________ joint.
a) Concrete
b) Spigot
c) A C pipe
d) Flanged
Explanation: The concrete pipes are provided with mortise at one end and a suitable tenon each other and the mortise and tenon are tightly set by placing concrete mortar.

36. ________ head should be higher than working head in a hydraulic test.
a) Pressure
b) Water
c) Working
d) Gauge
Explanation: In a hydraulic test, to detect leakage the lower end of pipe is plugged and filled with water. The hydrostatic head should be higher then working head for 2 hours for ensuring leakage.

37. _______ is used to magnify the sound for detecting leakage.
a) Aquagaurd
b) Otoscope
c) Sonoscope
d) Horoscope
Explanation: Leakages can be detected by the sounding rod method. In this method, sound can be magnified by Sonoscope. The rod is pulled up and observed whether the point is dry or most as it indicates leakage.

38. Which of the following is not a leakage detection method?
a) Direct observation
b) By plotting HGL
c) Pipe corrosion
d) Sounding rod
Explanation: The term pipe corrosion is used to indicate the loss of pipe material due to the action of water. The metal chiefly concerned with corrosion of iron and steel, of which mains and distribution pipes are usually composed.

39. Which of the following is not a cause of corrosion?
a) The cathodic reaction
b) Depolarization
c) Reaction of metal ions
d) Proper pipe material
Explanation: It is one of the steps in the prevention of corrosion, the pipe material if metallic should be able to resist that dissolve effect of water.

40. A pipe sunk into the ground to draw the underground water is known as ___________
a) An open well
b) A tube well
c) An artesian well
d) An infiltration well
Explanation: Tube wells are the wells made by drilling holes in to the ground encased with pipes and strainers. The diameter varies between 0.15 to 0.6 m.

41. Which of the following well is also known as flowing well?
a) Gravity well
b) Artesian well
c) Drilled wells
d) Driven wells
Explanation: Artesian Wells derives water from confined aquifers under pressure. As a result, ground water flows from the well such a well is known as flowing well.

42. The water bearing strata is known as _________
a) An aquifer
b) An aquiclude
c) An aquifuge
d) An aquitard
Explanation: An aquifer is defined as a saturated bed or geologic formation which yields water in significant quantities Eg. Sand bed.

43. The difference in levels of water in a well before and after pumping is called ________
a) Cone of depression
b) Yield
c) Draw down
d) Water table
Explanation: When water is pumped from a well, the water around the well under the action of head caused due to difference in level of the original water table and lowered water table. This head is known as draw down or depression head.

44. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as _____________
a) Seamless section
b) Efficient section
c) Rivet less section
d) Anchorage section
Explanation: A cylindrical section having no joint is known as a seamless section. Built up section is not that strong as a seamless section of the same thickness.

45. Strength of joint = efficiency × __________
a) Strength of section
b) Depth of plate
c) Length of plate
d) Strength of plate
Explanation: The ratio of strength of joint to the strength of our plate is called the efficiency.
Strength of joint = efficiency × strength of plate.

46. The presence of calcium and magnesium chloride in water causes ___________
a) Hardness
c) Turbidity
d) Softening
Explanation: The characteristic of water that does not give lather easily with soap is called hardness of water. It is of two types of temporary hardness and permanent hardness.

47. The calcium carbonate in water is _____________
b) Increases hardness of water
c) Causes turbidity
d) Softens water
Explanation: Calcium carbonate in the water indicates temporary hardness, it can be removed either by boiling or by adding lime to the water.

48. Red colour in water denotes?
a) Mn
b) Fe
c) Nacl
d) Ca
Explanation: The presence of iron in the water gives red colour and the brown colour in water denotes the presence of manganese. According to the standards of water, manganese and iron should not be more than 0.3 ppm.

49. The water of the river has an important property known as __________
a) Turbidity
b) Permeability
c) Infiltration capacity
d) Self purification
Explanation: The flow of water in a river has an important aspect of cleaning. In the river, there is the number of layers of fine and coarse aggregates that periodically filter the water and hence the water of a river has an important property of self purification.

50. The type of joint provided to release thermal stresses is called _______
a) Socket and spigot joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Flash joint
d) Simplex joint
Explanation: Expansion joints are provided at suitable intervals in the pipelines, so as to resist the thermal stresses produced due to temperature variations.

51. In __________ pipes, the discharging capacity reduces as the life period increases.
a) Galvanised Iron
b) Cast Iron
c) PVC
d) Steel
Explanation: Galvanised Iron pipes are heavy and uneconomical. The discharging capacity reduces as life period increases. They are likely to break during transportation and placing.

52. Isolated __________ decrease stability in the ecosystem.
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Food pyramid
d) Food numbers
Explanation: Food chain is a sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem. It involves a single linear pathway. The isolated food chains decrease the stability of an ecosystem.

53. The presence of hydrogen sulphide in water causes ________
b) Acidity
c) Basicity
d) Softening
Explanation: The acidity of water is a measure of its capacity to neutralize bases. Acidity is nothing but a representation of carbon dioxide or carbonic acid. The presence of hydrogen sulphide indicates acidic nature in the water, it should be in a nominal amount.

54. pH is measured in ____
a) gram / litre
b) gram/cm
c) cusecs
d) cumecs
Explanation: pH value in a chemical term which shows acidity or alkalinity of the matter. The pH value is a logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen in concentration measured in gram per litre.

55. Soil moisture stress is defined as the sum of soil moisture tension and ______ pressure of soil solution.
a) Weed
b) Perforated
c) Osmatic
d) Uplift
Explanation: The increase in the force caused by salts is called osmatic pressure. The soil moisture stress is defined as the sum of soil moisture tension and osmotic pressure of soil solution.

56. In coarse textured sandy soils, the field capacity can be achieved in _________
a) 1 to 3 days
b) 2 to 5 days
c) 3 to 7 days
d) 5 to 8 days
Explanation: The moisture content held by soil after gravitational water has drained off from a saturated soil is called field capacity. In coarse textured soils, the field capacity can be achieved in 1 to 3 days.

57. Acid in the rain was first detected by ___________
a) Lacy Film
b) Angus smith
c) Graeme Robert
d) Mesh swann
Explanation: The amount of acid which falls as towards earth with the rain water and snow is called acid rain. The acid in the rain water was detected for the first time by Robert Angus Smith in 1872.

58. _________ causes deterioration of buildings and monuments.
a) Acid rain
b) Green house effect
c) Global warning
d) Ozone layer depletion
Explanation: Acid rain causes a number of harmful effects below pH 5.1. The effects are visible in the aquatic system even at pH less than 5.5. It causes deterioration of buildings especially made of marble. It damages stone statues, metals and car finishes.

59. Expand CFC _________
a) Chlorofluorochloride
b) Carbonfluorochlorine
c) Chlorofluorocarbon
Explanation: CFC stands for Chlorofluorocarbon. It is one of the major gases of the greenhouse. It is released from refrigerators, air conditioners etc.

60. ______ is mainly responsible for ozone depletion in the stratosphere.
a) CFC
b) MNC
c) ESC
d) FSC
Explanation: Over last 450 million years, the earth had a natural sunscreen in the stratosphere called the ozone layer. This layer filters out harmful ultraviolet rays from the sunlight and the protects various life forms on the earth. CFC is mainly responsible for ozone depletion in the stratosphere.

61. Fossil fuels are example for ________
a) Exhaustible resources
b) Renewable resources
c) Non renewable resources
d) Inexhaustible resources
Explanation: Non renewable resources lack the ability of recycling and replacement. The substances with a very long recycling time are also regarded to be non renewable resources. Ex: biological species, minerals &fossil fuels.

62. Nuclear energy is __________
a) Renewable energy resource
b) Non renewable energy resource
c) Exhaustible resource
d) Inexhaustible resource
Explanation: Non renewable energy resources mainly include fossil fuels and nuclear energy. The fossil fuels are found inside earth’s crust. The nuclear energy obtained through fission or fusion reaction which yields large amount of heat energy.

63. Geothermal Energy is _________
a) Renewable energy resource
b) Natural resource
c) Sustainable resource
d) Exhaustible resource
Explanation: In some places, the heated water comes to the earth surface as hot springs. It can be used for heating water and buildings and for generating electricity. This is known as geothermal energy and it is a renewable energy resource.

64. The study of ecosystems is known as _________
a) Echography
b) Bibliograph
c) Ecology
d) Biology
Explanation: Ecology deals with the study of organisms in their natural home interacting with their surroundings. Now ecology is often defined as the study of ecosystems.

65. The ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear stress is _________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
Explanation: Maximum shear stress (q) = (hoop stress – longitudinal stress) / 2
= pd/8t
= pr/4t
The ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear stress is 4.

66. At any point on the circumference of the cylinder, the longitudinal and hoop stress are _______
a) Parallel
b) Equal
c) Orthogonal
Explanation: At any point on the circumference of the cylindrical shell, the longitudinal (axial stress) and hoop stress(circumferential stress) are always orthogonal to each other.

67. Saprotrophs are also known as _________
a) Detritus Feeders
b) Decomposers
c) Tertiary consumers
d) Omnivores
Explanation: Saprotrophs feed on the parts of dead organisms, wales of living organisms and partially decomposed matter. They are also known as the detritivores. Termites, crabs etc. are the examples saprotrophs.

68. Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of __________ bonds.
a) C-C
b) N-N
c) O-O
d) F-F
Explanation: Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds when respiration occurs, the carbon-carbon bonds are broken and the carbon is combined with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.

69. Energy does not recycle.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Energy is neither created nor destroyed. All energy comes from the sun, and that the ultimate fate of all energy in ecosystem is to be lost as heat. Energy does not recycle.

70. ____________ is a network of food chain of different types of organisms.
a) Food web
b) Food network
c) Food system
d) Food cache
Explanation: Food web is a network of food chains where different types of organisms are connected at different trophic levels. There are the number of options of eating and being eaten at each trophic level.

71. Ecological pyramids were first devised by __________
a) Earnest Haeckel
b) Roger Federer
c) Charles Eltan
d) Smith Nell
Explanation: An ecological pyramid is a graphic representation of an ecological parameter like a number of individuals. The ecological pyramids were first devised by British ecologist Charles Elton in 1927.

72. Which of the following is correct?
a) Phytoplankton-zooplanktons- fish
b) Zooplanktons -protozoan-fish
c) Grass- fish- zoo plankton
d) Zooplanktons- phytoplankton-fish
Explanation: The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is known as a food chain. Some of the common examples of the simple food chain are grass -grasshopper -frog- snake- hawk (grassland ecosystem).
Phytoplankton-zooplanktons- fish (pond ecosystem).

73. Wholesome water is also known as _________
a) Palatable water
b) Quality water
c) Lethal water
d) Toxic water
Explanation: Palatable water is the water that it is free from excessive temperature, colour, turbidity taste and odour. It is well aerated. The Wholesome water indicates palatable water.

74. Rate of demand is also known as __________
a) Domestic demand
b) Per capita demand
c) Commercial demand
d) Livestock demand
Explanation: Rate of demand is the rate of water to be supplied per person per day it is expressed as litres per capita per day.
Per capita demand (or) rate of demand = Q/P×365 litres per day.

75. Waterworks are generally designed with a design period of __________
a) 25 years
b) 30 years
c) 45 years
d) 50 years
Explanation: Water supply projects are designed to serve our specific period of time after completion of the project. This time period is called a design period. The water works are generally designed with a design period of 30 years.

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Module-2

1. _______ is a horizontal structural member subjected to transverse loads perpendicular to its axis.
a) Strut
b) Column
c) Beam
d) Truss
Explanation: A beam is a horizontal structural member subjected to a transverse load perpendicular to its own axis. Beams are used to support weights of roof slabs, walls and staircases. The type of beam usually depends upon the span, type of load elasticity and type of structure.

2. Example for cantilever beam is ______
a) Portico slabs
b) Roof slab
c) Bridges
d) Railway sleepers
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and is free at other end, it is called cantilever beam. The examples for it are portico slabs and sunshades.

3. Fixed beam is also known as __________
a) Encastered beam
b) Built on beam
c) Rigid beam
d) Tye beam
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at both supports is called fixed beam or encastered beam. All framed structures are examples of fixed beams.

4. U.D.L stands for?
a) Uniformly diluted length
Explanation: These loads are uniformly spread over a portion or whole area. They are generally represented as rate of load that is Kilo Newton per meter length (KN/m).

5. Moving train is an example of ____ load.
Explanation: As train’s wheels (rolling stock) move in rolling way. The upcoming load will be considered as rolling load.

6. Continuous beams are _________
a) Statically determinate beams
b) Statically indeterminate beams
c) Statically gravity beams
d) Framed beams
Explanation: Fixed beams and continuous beams are statically indeterminate beams which cannot be analyzed only by using static equations.

7. Units of U.D.L?
a) KN/m
b) KN-m
c) KN-m×m
d) KN
Explanation: As these loads distribute over span the units for this kind of loads will be load per meter length i.e KN/m. It is denoted by “w”.

8. Shear force is unbalanced _____ to the left or right of the section.
a) Horizontal force
b) Vertical force
c) Inclined force
d) Conditional force
Explanation: The shear force at the cross section of a beam may also be defined as the unbalanced vertical force to the left or right of the section. It is also the algebraic sum of all the forces I get to the left to the right of the section.

9. SI units of shear force is _______________
a) kN/m
b) kN-m
c) kN
d) m/N
Explanation: As shear force at any section is equal to the algebraic sum of the forces, the units of the shear force are also in kilo newtons and it is denoted by kN.

10. Shear force is diagram is _______ representation of shear force plotted as ordinate.
a) Scalar
b) Aerial
c) Graphical
d) Statically
Explanation: Shear Force diagram is a graphical representation of the shear force plotted as ordinate on baseline representing the axis of the Beam.

11. Hogging is________
a) Negative bending moment
b) Positive shear force
c) Positive bending moment
d) Negative shear force
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is considered to be negative when it causes convexity upwards or concavity at bottom, such bending moment is called hogging bending moment or negative bending moment.

12. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending moment is ____________
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Can’t be determined
d) Minimum
Explanation: A point at which bending moment changes its sign from positive to negative and vice versa. Such point is termed as point of contraflexure. At this point, the value of bending moment is zero (0).

13. _________ positive/negative bending moments occur where shear force changes its sign.
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Remains same
Explanation: If shear force and bending moment values obtained are thus plotted as a diagram, the SF & BM relationship always behaves vice versa.

14. SI units of Bending moment is ___________
a) kN
b) kN2
c) kNm
d) km
Explanation: Moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance and the bending moment is the algebraic sum of moments taken away from the left or the right of the section hence the SI units of bending moment is same as the moment i.e kNm.

15. What is the other name for a positive bending moment?
a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Inflation
d) Contraflexure
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is considered to be positive when it causes convexity downwards such bending moment is called sagging bending moment positive bending moment.

16. Which of these is the correct way of sign convention for shear force?
a) R U P
b) L U P
c) R U N
d) L D P
Explanation: According to the theoretical approach, there are many sign conventions to follow but the standard one is “right upwards negative” the sign convention is thoroughly followed unanimously.

17. At hinge, the moments will be _________
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Uniform
d) Zero
Explanation: At the support of a member, there is no distance prevailing to take the upcoming load. As we know the moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance, but at hinge (end support) the distance is zero. Hence the moment developed is zero.

18. What is variation in SFD, if the type of loading in the simply supported beam is U.D.L is ____
a) Rectangle
b) Linear
c) Trapezoidal
d) Parabolic
Explanation: The shear force is defined as the algebraic sum of all the forces taken from any one of the section. If you figure out the SFD for a simply supported beam carrying U.D.L throughout its entire length, in the SFD we can observe that shear force is same at supports. In the centre, the shear force is zero. Hence the diagram varies linearly.

19. The shear force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending is _____
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Cannot determine
Explanation: In the determination of shear force and bending moment diagrams it is clear that shear force changes its sign when the bending moment in a beam is maximum and the shear force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending will be zero as the neutralizing effect comes under.

20. In SFD, vertical lines are for ______
b) UDL
c) UVL
d) LDP
Explanation: Shear Force diagram started from left side of the m as per the load. For point loads draw vertical lines and under UDL draw slope lines.

21. A cantilever beam loaded with udl throughout, the maximum shear force occurs at____
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) At centre
d) At point of contraflexure
Explanation: In a case of a cantilever beam subjected to udl, at the free end there will be zero shear force because, we need to convert udl to load by multiplying with distance. Hence at the fixed end the shear force is w×l i.e (maximum).

22. A simply supported beam of span 1 m carries a point load “w” in centre determine the shear force in the half left of the beam.
a) W/3
b) W/4
c) W/2
d) W
Explanation: Let the two ends of the beam be A and B, the given load on a beam is symmetrical hence RA = RB= W/2. SFD at any section in the left of the beam is equal to the W/2. SFDat any section in the right half of the beam is equal to -W/2.

23. At the Point of contraflexure, what is the value of bending moment?
a) one
b) zero
c) three
d) infinity
Explanation: Point of contraflexure in a beam is a point at which bending moment changes its sign from positive to negative and vice versa. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending moment is zero.

24. When SF is zero, the bending moment is _____
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Very difficult to say
d) Minimum
Explanation: When is shear force changes its sign, the bending moment in a beam will be either maximum positive or maximum negative. This is because of the sign convention adopted.

25. A cantilever beam subjected to point load at its free end, the maximum bending moment develops at the ________ of the beam.
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) Centre
d) Point of inflection
Explanation: As the moment is the product of perpendicular distance and force. In cantilever beam, at its free end the moment will be zero as there is no distance, but at the fixed end the moment is maximum that is W×l.

26. Bending moment in a beam is maximum when the _________
a) Shear force is minimum
b) Shear force is maximum
c) Shear force is zero
d) Shear force is constant
Explanation: The maximum bending moment occurs in a beam, when the shear force at that section is zero or changes the sign because at point of contra flexure the bending moment is zero.

27. Positive bending moment is known as _______
a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Ragging
d) Inflection
Explanation: The positive bending moment in a section is considered because it causes convexity downwards. Such bending moment is called a sagging bending moment or positive bending moment.

28. The maximum BM is ______
a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 90 kNm
d) 75 kNm
Explanation: Above diagram depicts cantilever beam subjected to point load at the free end. The maximum bending moment at A is W × I
= 30 × 3
= 90 kNm.

29. Bending moment can be denoted by ____
a) K
b) M
c) N
d) F
Explanation: Bending moment is the product of force and perpendicular distance. Units are kNm
It is denoted by “M”. Whereas SF is denoted by “F”.

30. Number of points of contra flexure for a double over hanging beam.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) Infinite
Explanation: Point of contraflexure in a beam is a point at which bending moment changes its sign from positive to negative and vice versa. In the case of overhanging beam, there will be two points of contraflexure.

31. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam subjected to udl (w)over the entire span (l).
a) wl
b) wl3
c) wl2
d) w
Explanation: In a cantilever beam the maximum bending moment occurs at the fixed end. Moment at the free end is 0 and maximum at the fixed end. Maximum shear force is w×l.

32. What is the bending moment at end supports of a simply supported beam?
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Uniform
Explanation: At the end supports, the moment (couple) developed is zero, because there is no distance to take the perpendicular acting load. As the distance is zero, the moment is obviously zero.

33. What is the maximum shear force, when a cantilever beam is loaded with udl throughout?
a) w×l
b) w
c) w/l
d) w+l
Explanation: In cantilever beams, the maximum shear force occurs at the fixed end. In the free end, there is zero shear force. As we need to convert the udl in to load, we multiply the length of the cantilever beam with udl acting upon. For maximum shear force to obtain we ought to multiply load and distance and it surely occurs at the fixed end (w×l).

34. Sagging, the bending moment occurs at the _____ of the beam.
a) At supports
b) Mid span
c) Point of contraflexure
d) Point of emergence
Explanation: The positive bending moment is considered when it causes convexity downward or concavity at top. This is sagging. In simply supported beams, it occurs at mid span because the bending moment at the supports obviously will be zero hence the positive bending moment occurs in the mid span.

35. What is the maximum bending moment for simply supported beam carrying a point load “W” kN at its centre?
a) W kNm
b) W/m kNm
c) W×l kNm
d) W×l/4 kNm
Explanation: We know that in simply supported beams the maximum BM occurs at the central span.
Moment at A = Moment at B = 0
Moment at C = W/2 × l/2 = Wl/ 4 kNm (Sagging).

36. ________ curve is formed due to bending of over hanging beams.
a) Elastic
b) Plastic
c) Flexural
d) Axial
Explanation: The line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam bends or deflects or deviates under given load is known as elastic curve on deflection curve. Elastic curve can also be known as elastic line or elastic axis.

37. The relation between slope and maximum bending moment is _________
a) Directly proportion
b) Inversely proportion
c) Relative proportion
d) Mutual incidence
Explanation: The relationship between slope and maximum bending moment is inversely proportional because, For example in simply supported beams slope is maximum at supports and zero at midspan of a symmetrically loaded beam where as bending moment is zero at supports and maximum at mid span. Hence we conclude that slope and maximum bending moment are inversely proportional to each other in a case of the simply supported beam.

Module-3

1. The axis about which moment of area is taken is known as ____________
a) Axis of area
b) Axis of moment
c) Axis of reference
d) Axis of rotation
Explanation: The axis of reference is the axis about which moment of area is taken. Most of the times it is either the standard x or y axis or the centeroidal axis.

2. Point, where the total volume of the body is assumed to be concentrated is ____________
a) Center of area
b) Centroid of volume
c) Centroid of mass
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The centroid of the volume is the point where total volume is assumed to be concentrated. It is the geometric centre of a body. If the density is uniform throughout the body, then the center of mass and center of gravity correspond to the centroid of volume. The definition of the centroid of volume is written in terms of ratios of integrals over the volume of the body.

3. What is MOI?
a) ml2
b) mal
c) ar2
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: The formula of the moment of inertia is, MOI = ar2 where
M = mass, a = area, l = length, r = distance.

4. What is the unit of radius of gyration?
a) m4
b) m
c) N
d) m2
Explanation: The radius of gyration = (length4/length2)1/2 = length
So its unit will be m.

5. What will be the the radius of gyration of a circular plate of diameter 10cm?
a) 1.5cm
b) 2.0cm
c) 2.5cm
d) 3cm
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circle, I = πD4/64 = 491.07 cm4
The area of circle = 78.57 cm,
Radius of gyration = (I/A)1/2 = 2.5 cm.

6. In simple bending, ______ is constant.
a) Shear force
c) Deformation
d) Bending moment
Explanation: If a beam is undergone with simple bending, the beam deforms under the action of bending moment. If this bending moment is constant and does not affect by any shear force, then the beam is in state of simple bending.

7. If a beam is subjected to pure bending, then the deformation of the beam is_____
a) Arc of circle
b) Triangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Rectangular
Explanation: The beam being subjected to pure bending, there will be only bending moment and no shear force it results in the formation of an arc of circle with some radius known as radius of curvature.

8. When a beam is subjected to simple bending, ____________ is the same in both tension and compression for the material.
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of elasticity
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Modulus of section
Explanation: It is one of the most important assumptions made in the theory of simple bending that is the modulus of elasticity that is Young’s modulus [E] is same in both tension and compression for the material and the stress in a beam do not exceed the elastic limit.

9. E/R = M/I = f/y is a bending equation.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The above-mentioned equation is absolutely correct.
E/R = M/I = f/y is a bending equation. It is also known as flexure equation (or) equation for theory of simple bending.
Where,
E stands for Young’s modulus or modulus of elasticity.
R stands for radius of curvature.
M stands for bending moment
I stand for moment of inertia
f stands for bending stress
y stands for neutral axis.

10. Maximum Shearing stress in a beam is at _____
a) Neutral axis
b) Extreme fibres
c) Mid span
Explanation: Shearing stress is defined as the resistance offered by the internal stress to the shear force. Shearing stress in a beam is maximum at a neutral axis.

11. At the neutral axis, bending stress is _____
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) Constant
Explanation: Neutral axis is defined as a line of intersection of neutral plane or neutral layer on a cross section at the neutral axis of that section. At the NA, bending stress or bending strain is zero. The first moment of area of a beam section about neutral axis is also zero. The layer of neutral axis neither contracts nor extends.

12. Curvature of the beam is __________ to bending moment.
a) Equal
b) Directly proportion
c) Inversely proportion
d) Coincides
Explanation: From the flexural equation, we have 1/R is called as the “curvature of the beam”.
1 / R = M / EI
Hence the curvature of the beam is directly proportional to bending moment and inversely proportional to flexural rigidity (EI).

13. What is the product of force and radius?
a) Twisting shear
b) Turning shear
c) Turning moment
d) Tilting moment
Explanation: Twisting moment will be equal to the product of the perpendicular force and existing radius. Denoted by letter T and SI units are Nm.

14. _________ of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.
a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Deflection
d) Slope
Explanation: A beam is said to be a strength when the maximum induced bending and shear stresses are within the safe permissible stresses stiffness of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.

15. To what radius an Aluminium strip 300 mm wide and 40mm thick can be bent, if the maximum stress in a strip is not to exceed 40 N/mm2. Take young’s modulus for Aluminium is 7×105 N/mm2.
a) 45m
b) 52m
c) 35m
d) 65m
Explanation: Here, b = 300mm
d= 40mm. y= 20mm.
From the relation; E/R = f/y
R= E×y/f
=70×103 × 20 / 40
= 35m.

16. The bending stress in a beam is ______ to bending moment.
a) Less than
b) Directly proportionate
c) More than
d) Equal
Explanation: As we know, the bending stress is equal to bending moment per area. Hence, as the bending (flexure) moment increases/decreases the same is noticed in the bending stress too.

17. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete is __________
a) 0.4
b) 0.35
c) 0.12
d) 0.2
Explanation: The ratio of lateral strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain is called Poisson’s ratio. The value of poisons ratio for elastic materials usually lies between 0.25 and 0.33 and in no case exceeds 0.5. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete is 0.20.

18. The term “Tenacity” means __________
a) Working stress
b) Ultimate stress
c) Bulk modulus
d) Shear modulus
Explanation: The ultimate stress of a material is the greatest load required to fracture the material divided by the area of the original cross section in the point of fracture The ultimate stress is also known as tenacity.

19. The bending strain is zero at _______
a) Point of contraflexure
b) Neutral axis
c) Curvature
Explanation: The neutral axis is a line of intersection of neutral plane or neutral layer on a cross section. The neutral axis of a beam passes through the centroid of the section. At the neutral axis bending stress and bending strain is zero.

20. Strength of the beam depends only on the cross section.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The strength of two beams of the same material can be compared by the section modulus values. The strength of beam depends on the material, size and shape of cross section. The beam is stronger when section modulus is more, strength of the beam depends on Z.

21. The center of gravity of a circle of radius 10 cm will be _____________
a) At its center of the diameter
b) At the center of the radius
c) Anywhere on the circumference
d) Anywhere in its area
Explanation: The whole weight of a circle can be assumed to act through its center. So the center of gravity of a circle is at its center. Whatever may be the radius of the circle the center of gravity will be on its center.

22. A rectangle has dimension of 10cm x 20cm. where will be its center of gravity?
a) (10,10)
b) (20,5)
c) (10,5)
d) (5,10)
Explanation: The centre of gravity of this rectangular area will be half of 10cm from x-axis and half of 20cm from y-axis. therefore the center of gravity will be at (10,5).

23. Where will be the center of gravity of an I section will be if the dimension of web is 2x20cm and that of flange is 2x15cm If the y-axis will pass through the center of the section?
a) 8.5cm
b) 9.5cm
c) 10.5cm
d) 11.5cm
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2y2 + a3y3) / (a1 + a2 + a3) = (40×18 + 30×9.5 +40×1 / (40 +30+40) = 9.5cm.

24. Where will be the center of gravity of an T section will be if the dimension of web is 2x20cm and that of flange is 2x15cm If the y-axis will pass through the center of the section?
a) 10.5cm
b) 11.45cm
c) 12.35cm
d) 12.85cm
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2y2) / (a1 + a2) = (40×16 + 30×7.5)/ (30+40) = 12.35cm.

25. Where will be the center of gravity of the following section?
a) 7.33cm
b) 8.33cm
c) 9.33cm
d) 10.33
Explanation: Area of triangle = 50, area of rectangle = 50
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2y2) / (a1 + a2) = (50×11.66 + 50×5)/(50+50) = 8.33cm.

26. Where will be the centre of gravity of the following L-section?
a) (18.31,30.81)
b) (19.45, 29.87)
c) (20,30)
d) (19.62,29.62)
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2y2) / (a1 + a2) = (600×50 + 414×3) / (600+414) = 18.31cm.
This will on for the y-axis.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (600×3 + 414×40.5) / (600+414) = 30.81cm.
So the center of gravity will be at (2.33, 4.33).

27. Where will be the center of gravity of an I section will be if the dimension of upper web is 2x8cm, lower web is 2×16 and that of flange is 2x12cm If the y-axis will pass through the center of the section?
a) 7.611cm
b) 7.44cm
c) 6.53cm
d) 6.44cm
Explanation: Area of upper web a1 = 16cm, area of flange a2 = 24, area of lower web a3 = 32.
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2y2 + a3y3) / (a1 + a2 + a3) = (16×15 + 24×8 +32×1 / (16 +24+32)) = 6.44cm.

28. A continuous beam is one which is _______
a) Infinitely long
b) Supported at two points
c) Supported it more than two supports
d) Supported by a prop
Explanation: A beam which is supported by more than two supports is known as a continuous beam. In this beam, bending moment is low and hence the deflection in the beam is also comparatively less. This beam is stiffer when compared to the other traditional beams.

29. The effective length of column depends upon ________
a) the cross section of beam
b) end conditions
c) maximum bending moment
d) extreme fibres
Explanation: The effective length of column depends upon end conditions.
End condition Effective length
Both ends hinged L
Both ends fixed L/2
One end is fixed and other end free 2L

30. The phenomenon under which the strain of material varies under constant stress is known as ________
a) Creep
b) Hysteresis
c) Viscoelasticity
d) Strain hardening
Explanation: A creep is a plastic deformation underweight the strain of material where is under constant stress this is one of the mechanical properties of the engineering materials. The best example is the failure of concrete.

31. Volumetric strain = 3× _____ strain.
a) Lateral
b) Linear
c) Composite
d) Yield
Explanation: eV (volumetric strain) = 3× linear strain = 3×e
The volumetric strain is algebraic sum of all the linear(or) axial strain when a solid to be subjected to equal normal sources of the same type of all faces we will have €x, €y and €z equal in value. In this case the volumetric strain will be 3 times the linear strain in any of the three axes.

32. The stress corresponding to breaking point is known as _____________
a) yield stress
b) ultimate stress
c) breaking stress
d) normal stress
Explanation: After reaching ultimate stress, the stress strain curve suddenly falls with rapid increase in strain and specimen breaks. The stress corresponding to breaking point is known as breaking stress and it is denoted by G.

33. Determine the yield stress of a steel rod 20 mm diameter, if the yield load on the steel rod is 88kN.
a) 240.55 N/mm2
b) 280.25 N/mm2
c) 325 N/mm2
d) 290.45 N/mm2
Explanation: Initial area of the Steel rod of 20 mm = 314 mm2 [area of circle] Yield stress = yield load/ Area
= 88 × 103/ 314
= 280.25 N/mm2.

34. What is the elongation percentage of a steel rod of 50 mm diameter if the total extension is is 54 mm and gauge length is 200 mm.
a) 27%
b) 23%
c) 43%
d) 35%
Explanation: Percentage elongation = Total extension / Gauge length × 100
= 54/200 × 100
= 27%.

35. __________ joints are provided when there is a break in the concreting operation.
a) transverse joints
b) longitudinal joints
c) construction joints
d) warpage joints
Explanation: The construction joints are provided when there is a break in a concreting operation. Although the effort is always made to complete the concrete work in one day, sometimes it is not possible and therefore, construction joints are provided. For beams, the joints should be at the centre of the span or within the middle third.

Module-4

1. Torsional sectional modulus is also known as _________
a) Polar modulus
b) Sectional modulus
c) Torsion modulus
d) Torsional rigidity
Explanation: The ratio of polar moment of inertia to radius of section is called Polar modulus or Torsional section modulus. Its units are mm3 or m3 (in SI).

2. ________ is a measure of the strength of shaft in rotation.
a) Torsional modulus
b) Sectional modulus
c) Polar modulus
d) Torsional rigidity
Explanation: The polar modulus is a measure of the strength of shaft in rotation. As the value of Polar modulus increases torsional strength increases.

3. What are the units of torsional rigidity?
a) Nmm2
b) N/mm
c) N-mm
d) N
Explanation: The product of modulus of rigidity (C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called torsional rigidity. Torsional rigidity is a torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length.

4. The angle of twist can be written as ________
a) TL/J
b) CJ/TL
c) TL/CJ
d) T/J
Explanation: The angle of Twist = TL/CJ
Where T = Torque in Nm
L = Length of shaft
CJ = Torsional rigidity.

5. The power transmitted by shaft SI system is given by __________
a) 2πNT/60
b) 3πNT/60
c) 2πNT/45
d) NT/60 W
Explanation: In SI system, Power (P) is measured in watts (W) ; P = 2πNT/60
Where T = Average Torque in N.m
N = rpm
= 2πNT/ 45 1 watt = 1 Joule/sec = 1N.m/s.

6. Area of catchment is measured in ___________
a) mm3
b) Km2
c) Km
d) mm
Explanation: Catchment area can be defined as the area which contributes the surplus water present over it to the stream or river. It is an area which is responsible for maintaining flow in natural water bodies. It is expressed in square kilometres.

7. ______ catchment area is a sum of free catchment area and intercepted catchment area.
a) Total
c) Combined
d) Overall
Explanation: Combined catchment area is defined as the total catchment area which contributes the water in to stream or a tank. Combined Catchment area = Free catchment area + intercepted catchment area.

8. ___________ has steep slopes and gives more run off.
a) Intercepted Catchment Area
b) Good Catchment Area
c) Combined Catchment Area
d) Average Catchment Area
Explanation: Good catchment area consists of hills or rocky lands with steep slopes and little vegetation. It gives more run off.

9. Trend of rainfall can be studied from _______
a) Rainfall graphs
b) Rainfall records
c) Rainfall curves
d) Rainfall cumulatives
Explanation: Rainfall records are useful for calculating run off over a basin. By using rainfall records estimate of design parameters of irrigation structures can be made. The maximum flow due to any storm can be calculated and predicted.

10. Estimation of run off “R” is 0.85P-30.48.
The above formula was coined by _____
a) Lacey
b) Darcy
c) Khosla
d) Ingli
Explanation: Run off can be estimated by
R= 0.85P-30.48
Where R = annual runoff in mm
P = annual rainfall in mm.

11. Runoff coefficient is denoted by _______
a) P
b) N
c) K
d) H
Explanation: The runoff coefficient can be defined as the ratio of runoff to rainfall. Rainfall and runoff can be interrelated by runoff coefficient.
R = KP
K = R/P [K = is a runoff Coefficient depending on the surface of the catchment area].

12. _________ is a graph showing variations of discharge with time.
a) Rising limb graph
b) Crest graph
c) Hydraulic graph
d) Gauge graph
Explanation: Hydrograph is a graph showing variations of discharge with time at a particular point of the stream. The hydrograph shows the time distribution of total run off at a point of measurement. Maximum flood discharge can also be calculated by using hydrograph.

13. Calculate the torque which a shaft of 300 mm diameter can safely transmit, if the shear stress is 48 N / mm2.
a) 356 kNm
b) 254 kNm
c) 332 kNm
d) 564 kNm
Explanation: Given, the diameter of shaft D = 300 mm
Maximum shear stress fs = 48 N/mm2.
Torque = T = π/16 fs D3
= 254469004.9 Nmm
= 254 kNm.

14. Which of the following is known as “under sluices”?
a) Scouring Sluices
b) Divide wall
Explanation: The openings provided in a body wall of the weir almost at the bed level of the river are known as scouring sluices. These are also known as under sluices.

15. _______ provides straight approach to the scouring sluices.
b) Silt Excluder
c) Divide wall
d) Guide banks
Explanation: A divide wall is a long solid wall constructed perpendicular to the axis of weir. It provides a straight approach to the scouring sluices. By preventing the formation of cross currents, it protects the body wall of weir.

16. __________ is provided for the easy movement of fish from upstream to downstream.
b) Silt excluder
c) Marginal bunds
d) Marginal embankments
Explanation: A passage provided just by the side of a divide wall for the movement of fish from upstream to downstream or vice versa is known as a fish ladder.

17. __________ is used as measuring device.
b) Divide wall
c) Cross regulator
d) Scouring sluices
Explanation: A structure constructed at the head of the canal to regulate the supply of water into the canal is called “Head Regulator”. The functions:
i. It is used as a measuring device.
ii. It controls the entry of silt into the canal.

18. __________ is provided to prevent the river from outflanking the work.
a) Guide banks
b) Marginal bunds
c) Silt excluder
d) Divide wall
Explanation: Guide banks are provided on either side of the diversion head works in alluvial soils for a smooth non -tortuous approach to the diversion head works and prevent the river from outflanking the work.

19. ____________ are provided to protect the land and property with is likely to be submerged.
a) Weir
b) Divide wall
c) Marginal bunds
Explanation: Marginal Bunds or marginal embankments are provided on either bank of the river upstream side of diversion head works in alluvial soils in order to protect the land and property which is likely to be submerged during ponding of water during floods.

20. _________ is provided to reduce the kinetic energy of falling water in weir.
a) Body wall
b) Curtain walls
c) Downstream apron
d) Shutter
Explanation: The downstream apron is a concrete bed which is provided on the downstream side of a weir in order to reduce the kinetic energy of falling water. It should have sufficient thickness to resist uplift pressure.

21. Curtain walls are provided to increase ________
a) Creep depth
b) Creep area
c) Creep length
d) Creep volume
Explanation: Curtain walls are provided under the upstream and downstream apron at the ends. We are provided to increase the length of creep and thereby to reduce exit gradient.

22. Which of the following are also known as upstream and downstream piles?
a) Talus on upstream and downstream
b) Curtain walls on upstream and downstream
c) Solid apron on upstream and downstream
d) Shutters on crest of weir
Explanation: Curtain walls are provided especially under the upstream and downstream aprons at the respective ends. They are also called as upstream and downstream piles. The length of the curtain wall depends on the nature of subsoil.

23. The moment of inertia of a plane area with respect to an axis ____________ to the plane is called a polar moment of inertia.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Equal
d) Opposite
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a plane area with respect to an axis perpendicular to the plane of the figure is called a polar moment of inertia with respect to a point, where the axis intersects a plane.

24. Calculate the power transmitted in the shaft at 150 rpm. Take torque as 9000Nm.
a) 140 kW
b) 150 kW
c) 160 kW
d) 175 kW
Explanation: To find power transmitted (P) is P = 2 π N T / 60 watts.
P = 2 π × 150 × 9000 / 60
P = 140 kW.

25. Which of the following is not a cross drainage work?
a) Aqueduct
c) Super passage
d) Level crossing
Explanation: The head regulator is hydraulic structure constructed at the head of a canal system where it takes off from a reservoir behind a weir or a dam. It is used as a measuring device.

26. Stucco is a type of _________
a) Varnishing
b) Distempering
c) Plastering
d) Whitewashing
Explanation: Stucco is the name given to a decorative type of plaster, which provides an excellent finish like that with marble’s lining.

27. The thickness of cement plaster should not be more than _______
a) 15 mm
b) 12 mm
c) 16 mm
d) 20 mm
Explanation: The cement plaster is applied in one or two coats. The surface is polished with the trowel or iron float. The thickness of the coat should not be more than 12 mm.

28. __________ mm thick plastering is done for stone masonry.
a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 18 mm
d) 20 mm
Explanation: Normally 12 mm thick plastering is done for brick masonry and 20 mm thick plastering is done for the stone masonry. The plastered surface is then cured by sprinkling water over the surface for one or two weeks.

29. The thickness of lime plaster varies from _______ to ________ mm.
a) 15 – 20 mm
b) 12 – 15 mm
c) 18 – 25 mm
d) 20 – 25 mm
Explanation: The proportioning of the ingredients of lime plaster is adapted according to a number of coats to be applied. The thickness of lime plaster varies from 20 to 25 mm.

30. Which of the following plastering is widely adopted in rural areas?
a) Stucco Plastering
b) Mud plastering
c) Lime plastering
d) Asphalt plastering
Explanation: Mud plastering is done on the walls of temporary Sheds and widely adopted in rural areas. The Plaster is evenly dashed against the wall with a wooden float. After 24 hours the surface is tapped.

31. Which of the following blasters contains pulverized alum?
a) Water proof plaster
b) Plaster on lathe
c) C plaster
d) Marble plaster
Explanation: Waterproof plaster is made by mixing 1 part of cement, 2 parts of sand and pulverized alum at the rate of 120 Newton per metre and in the water to be used.

32. Which of the following is known as” laying trowel”?
a) Float
b) Gauge trowel
c) Floating Rule
d) Skimming float
Explanation: The tool which is used to spread the mortar on the surface is known as float. It is also known as laying trowel. It is made of thin tempered Steel.

33. _________ is used to check the level of plastered surface.
a) Gauging trowel
b) Plumb bob
c) Floating Rule
d) Float
Explanation: Floating rule is the tool which is used to check the level of plastered surface between the successive screeds.

34. Skimming float is ____________
a) Wooden float
b) Metalled float
c) Tempered steel float
d) Asbestos cement sheet
Explanation: The wooden floor is known as the skimming float and it is used for final and finishing coat of plaster. The Plaster is evenly spread against the wall surface with a wooden float.

35. Which of the following is a defect in plastering?
a) Flaking
b) Scrap
c) Rust
d) Staining
Explanation: Flaking is a defect in plastering. It is a formation of a very loose mass of plastered surface due to poor bond between successive coats. This is obtained due to poor workmanship.

36. To avoid the failure of a column by buckling ___________ limits are to be recommended.
a) Slenderness
b) Effective length
c) Kernel
Explanation: The column dimensions shall be such that it fails by material failure only (crushing due to compression) and not by buckling. To avoid the failure of column buckling clause 25.3 of IS 456 recommends the slenderness limits for the column.

37. According to IS 456- 2000, the minimum eccentricity subjected to a column is __________
a) 30mm
b) 20mm
c) 45mm
d) 50mm
Explanation: No column can have a perfectly axial load. There may be some moments acting due to the imperfection of construction or due to actual conditions of loading when IS 456-2000, recommends that all columns Shall be designed for minimum eccentricity of 20 mm.

38. Radius of gyration is denoted by _________
a) k
b) n
c) e
d) y
Explanation: The radius of gyration about a given axis is defined as the effective distance from the given axis at which the whole area may be considered or located. It is denoted by “k” or “r”. The units for the radius of gyration are mm.

39. Eccentrically loaded structures have to be designed for _______
a) Uniaxial force
b) Biaxial force
c) Combined axial force
d) Combined biaxial force
Explanation: When the line of action of the resultant compressive force doesn’t coincide with the centre of gravity of the cross section of the structure, it is called eccentrically loaded structure. They have to be designed for combined axial force.

40. ______ transfer the loads from beams or slabs to footings or foundations.
a) Pedestal
b) Post
c) Rib
d) Column
Explanation: A vertical member whose effective length is greater than 3 times its least lateral dimension carrying compressive loads is called a column. The main function of column is to transfer the loads from the beams or slabs to the footings or foundation.

41. In long columns, the lateral deflection causes at the ______
a) Supports
b) Throughout
c) Midspan
d) Along outer periphery
Explanation: A long column under the action of axial loads deflects laterally causing maximum deflection at the centre. A long column fails due to buckling.

42. Short columns causes deflection in the structure.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: If the ratio of the effective length of the column to the least lateral dimension is less than 12. The column is called a short column. It fails by crushing (pure compression failure) and there is no chance of causing deflections.

43. Mild steel is an example of ______________ mechanical property of the material.
a) Malleability
b) Creep
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
Explanation: Ductility is the property of a material by which material can be drawn into thin wires after undergoing a considerable deformation without rupture. The mild steel, silver, tor steel, aluminium etc. are considered as examples for ductility.

44. Which of the following are the relative properties of the material?
a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Hardness
d) Stiffness
Explanation: The hardness is the ability of a material to resist indentation (impression), scratching or surface abrasion. It is the relative property of the material. Every material has its own hardness number.

45. Rotating key of a lock is an example of ____________
a) Varignon’s Theory
b) Walton’s Theory
c) Formation of couple
d) Parallel axis theorem
Explanation: A set of two equal and opposite forces whose line of action is different form a couple. The effect of couple is always to produce moment on which it acts either in clockwise or anticlockwise directions. The example is rotating key of a lock.

46. The relative change in position is called ______________
a) Matter
b) Body
c) Inertia
d) Motion
Explanation: A body said to be in motion when it changes its position with respect to other bodies. The relative change in position is called motion. The motion involves both space and time.

47. Which of the following is not base unit?
a) Area
b) Length
c) Time
d) Temperature
Explanation: If the units are expressed in other units which are derived from fundamental units, such units are known as derived units. The examples are area, velocity, acceleration & pressure etc.

48. According to IS 456-2000, the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided in rectangular columns is ________
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, the cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement should not be less than 0.8% and not more than 6% of gross cross-sectional area. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars is 12 mm and minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided is 4 for a rectangular column.

49. A fine grained material is mostly ________
a) Homogeneous
b) Isotropic
c) Isomeric
d) Elastic
Explanation: A material is said to be isotropic if at any point it has identical elastic properties in all directions. A fine grained material is mostly isotropic in nature.

50. The tangential force per unit area is _________
a) Shear strain
b) Shear stress
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Torsion
Explanation: The tangential force acting along the section of the body is termed as shear force and the stress in the section due to shear force is called shear stress and it is denoted by fs.

51. Which of the following is also known as pushing force?
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Temperature stress
Explanation: When an external force cause shortening of the body in the direction of the force it is termed as compressive force. The stress developed in the body due to the compressive force is called compressive stress.

52. Which of the following is also known as pulling force?
a) Tensile stress
b) Shear stress
c) Lateral stress
d) Axial stress
Explanation: When an external force produces elongation of the body in its direction, it is termed as a tensile force. The stress developed in a cross section of the body due to a tensile force is called tensile stress.

53. Longitudinal strain is also known as ___________
a) Direct strain
b) Axial strain
c) Indirect strain
d) Shear strain
Explanation: Direct strain is a measure of deformation produced by the application of the external forces. It is the ratio of change in dimension to the original dimension. It is also known as longitudinal strain.

54. Which of the following is also known as transverse strain?
a) Tensile strain
b) Compressive strain
c) Shear strain
d) Volumetric strain
Explanation: Shear Strain is a measure of the angle through which a body is this distorted with applied forces. Shear Strain is also known as the transverse strain.
Shear strain = ds/L.

55. The hooks law is valid only for _________
a) Uni axial forces
b) Bi axial forces
c) Tri axial forces
d) Lateral forces
Explanation: Hooke’s law: (Given by Sir Robert Hooke in 1678): stress is directly proportional to strain within limit of proportionality. It is valid for uniaxial force only.

56. Which of the following is also known as endurance limit?
a) Proportionality limit
b) Rupture limit
c) Elastic limit
d) Fatigue limit
Explanation: The greatest stress applied an infinite number of times that a material can take without causing Failure is known as endurance or fatigue limit.

57. The ultimate strength in flexure is known as modulus of ________
a) Toughness
b) Rupture
c) Resilience
d) Hardening
Explanation: The ultimate strength in flexure or torsion is known as modulus of rupture and the modulus of resilience is defined as the energy stored per unit volume at the elastic limit.

58. Beams which are reinforced in both compression and tension sides are called as _______
a) Dual reinforced beam
b) Doubly reinforced beam
c) Composite beam
Explanation: The beams which are reinforced in both compression as well as tension sides are known as doubly reinforced beams. These beams are generally provided when the dimensions of the beam are restricted.

59. Doubly reinforced beams are provided when Mu _____ M.
a) =
b) <
c) >
d) ~
Explanation: The reinforced beams are generally provided when it is required to resist moment higher than the limiting moment of resistance of a singly reinforced section. The additional moment of resistance required can be obtained by providing compression reinforcement and additional tension reinforcement.

60. The doubly reinforced beams improve the ______ of the beam in earthquake regions.
a) Brittleness
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Toughness
Explanation: Generally when the depth of beam is restricted due to architectural or any construction problems, the doubly reinforced beams are used. It reduces long term deflection and it also improves the ductility of the beam.

61. The cracks seen on walls are due to _____ failure.
a) Flexural
b) Compression
c) Shear
d) Torsional
Explanation: The diagonal tension stress caused by shear and the combination of shear and bending is likely to cause the failure of the section by producing cracks in the walls.

62. Bending is accompanied by _______
a) Axial
b) Eccentricity
c) Shear
d) Torsion
Explanation: Usually, the bending is accompanied by shear. The combination of shear and bending stresses produces the principal stress which causes diagonal tension in the beam section.

63. The variation of shear stress is ____________
a) Elliptical
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Circular
Explanation: In homogeneous beams, the variation of shear stress is parabolic.
• It is zero at top and bottom.
• It is maximum at a neutral axis.

64. ________ has to be provided against diagonal tensile stresses.
a) Longitudinal reinforcement
b) Shear reinforcement
c) Torsional reinforcement
d) Transverse reinforcement
Explanation: Shear reinforcement has to be provided against diagonal tension stress caused by shear force. The inclined shear crack starts at the bottom and extends towards the compression zone.

65. Vertical stirrups are a form of _______ reinforcement.
a) Tension
b) Shear
c) Compression
d) Torsion
Explanation: Generally the vertical stirrups are provided as two legged or four legged stirrups around the tension reinforcement. Hanger bars are provided to keep vertical steps in position otherwise they may get displaced while concreting.

Module-5

1. The normal stress is perpendicular to the area under consideration, while the shear stress acts over the area.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: This is the convention used.

2. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and y axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 20N/mm²Find the maximum amount of shear stress to which the body is subjected.
a) 22.4mm
b) 25mm
c) 26.3mm
d) 27.2mm
Explanation: τ(max)=√( [σ(x)-σ(y) ]²/2² + τ²).

3. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and y axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 10N/mm². Find the inclination of the plane in which shear stress is maximal.
a) 45’
b) 30’
c) 60’
d) 15’
Explanation: tan (2Ǿ)=2τ/[σ(x) – σ(y)].

4. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and y axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 20N/mm². Find the maximum normal stress.
a) 90
b) 92.4
c) 94.2
d) 96
Explanation: σ=[σ(x) +σ(y)]/2 + √( [σ(x)-σ(y) ]²/2² + τ²).

5. If compressive yield stress and tensile yield stress are equivalent, then region of safety from maximum principal stress theory is of which shape?
a) Rectangle
b) Square
c) Circle
d) Ellipse
Explanation: The equation of four lines is given by σ1=± S(yt), σ2=±S(yc) Now given S(yt)=S(yc), hence the region of safety is of square shape.

6. Maximum Principal Stress Theory is not good for brittle materials.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Experimental investigations have shown that maximum principle stress theory gives good results for brittle materials.

7. The region of safety in maximum shear stress theory contains which of the given shape
a) Hexagon
b) Rectangle
c) Square
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: In maximum shear stress theory we have the following equations: σ1= ±S(yt)
σ2= ±S (yt), σ1 – σ2 =±S (yt) assuming S(yt)=S(yc).

8. Distortion energy theory is slightly liberal as compared to maximum shear stress theory.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The hexagon of maximum shear theory falls completely inside the ellipse of distortion energy theorem.

9. The ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it when unloaded is called __________
a) Elasticity
b) Resilience
c) Plasticity
d) Strain resistance
Explanation: Resilience is the ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it. Elasticity is the property by which any body regain its original shape.

10. The strain energy stored in a specimen when stained within the elastic limit is known as __________
a) Resilience
b) Plasticity
c) Malleability
d) Stain energy
Explanation: Resilience is the ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it. Elasticity is the property by which any body regain its original shape. Malleability is the property by which any material can be beaten into thin sheets.

11. The maximum strain energy stored at elastic limit is __________
a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability
Explanation: Proof resilience is the maximum stored energy at the elastic limit. Resilience is the ability of material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it. Elasticity is the property by which any body regain its original shape. Malleability is the property by which any material can be beaten into thin sheets.

12. The mathematical expression for resilience ‘U’ is __________
a) U = σ2/E x volume
b) U = σ2/3E x volume
c) U = σ2/2E x volume
d) U = σ/2E x volume
Explanation: The resilience is the strain energy stored in a specimen so it will be
U = σ2/2E x volume.

13. What is the modulus of resilience?
a) The ratio of resilience to volume
b) The ratio of proof resilience to the modulus of elasticity
c) The ratio of proof resilience to the strain energy
d) The ratio of proof resilience to volume
Explanation: The modulus of resilience is the proof resilience per unit volume. It is denoted by σ.

14. The property by which an amount of energy is absorbed by material without plastic deformation is called __________
a) Toughness
b) Impact strength
c) Ductility
d) Resilience
Explanation: Resilience is the ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it when unloaded.

15. Resilience of a material plays important role in which of the following?
a) Thermal stress
c) Fatigue
Explanation: The total strain energy stored in a body is commonly known as resilience. Whenever the straining force is removed from the strained body, the body is capable of doing work. Hence the resilience is also define as the capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of the straining force.

16. A 1m long bar of uniform section extends 1mm under limiting axial stress of 200N/mm2. What is the modulus of resilience for the bar?
a) 0.1 units
b) 1 units
c) 10units
d) 100units
Explanation: Modulus of resilience, u = f2/2E, where E = fL/δL
Therefore, u = 200×1 / 2×1000 = 0.1units.

18. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied suddenly?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E

19. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter. What will be the maximum instantaneous stress induced?
a) 95.493 N/mm2
b) 45.25 N/mm2
c) 85.64 N/mm2
d) 102.45 N/mm2
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress induced = 2P/A = 2×60000/400π = 95.49 N/mm2.

20. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of 4cm and 5m length. What will be the strain energy absorbed by the rod if E=2×105 N/mm2?
a) 140.5 N-m
b) 100 N-m
c) 197.45 N-m
d) 143.2 N-m
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress induced = 2P/A = 2×60000/400π = 95.49 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 95.492 x 2×106π / (2x2x105) = 143238 N-mm = 143.23 N-m.

21. A tensile load of 100kN is suddenly applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm. What will be the instantaneous stress in bar?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 120 N/mm2
c) 150 N/mm2
d) 250 N/mm2
Explanation: Stress = 2x load / area = 2×100,000/ (20×40) = 250 N/mm2.

22. 2 tensile load of 100kN is suddenly applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm and length of 5m. What will be the strain energy absorbed in the bar if E=1×105 N/mm2?
a) 312.5 N-m
b) 314500 N-mm
c) 1250 N-m
d) 634 N-m
Explanation: Stress = 2xload / area = 2×100,000/ (20×40) = 250 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 250x250x20x40x5000/ (2×100,000) = 1250000 N-mm = 1250 N-m.

23. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diameter. A axial pull of 100kN is suddenly applied to the rod. What will be the instantaneous stress induced in the rod?
a) 101.89 N/mm2
b) 94.25 N/mm2
c) 130.45 N/mm2
d) 178.63 N/mm2
Explanation: Area = π/4 d2 = 625π
Load = 100kN = 100×1000 N
Stress = 2 x load / area = 2x100x1000 / (625π) = 101.86 N/mm2.

24. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diameter. An axial pull of 100kN is suddenly applied to the rod. What will be the instantaneous elongation produced in the rod if E=22GN/m2?
a) 0.0097 mm
b) 1.0754 mm
c) 1.6354 mm
d) 1.0186 mm
Explanation: Area = π/4 d2 = 625π
Load = 100kN = 100×1000 N
E=22GN/m2 = 200 x 109 / 106 = 200,000 N/mm2
Stress = 2 x load / area = 2x100x1000 / (625 π )
Elongation = stress x length / E = 101.86×2000 / 200000 = 1.0186 mm.

25. What will be the amount of axial pull be applied on a a 4cm diameter bar to get an instantaneous stress value of 143 N/mm2?
a) 50kN
b) 60kN
c) 70kN
d) 80kN
Explanation: Instantaneous stress = 2 x load / area
Load = instantaneous stress x area / 2
= 143 x 400×3.14 / 2 = 60kN.

26. What will be the instantaneous stress produced in a bar 10cm2 in area ans 4m long by the sudden application of tensile load of unknown magnitude, if the extension of the bar due to suddenly applied load is 1.35mm if E = 2×105 N/mm2?
a) 67.5 N/mm2
b) 47 N/mm2
c) 55.4 N/mm2
d) 78.5 N/mm2
Explanation: The value of stress = load / area where area is 10cm2 and load can be calculated by stress strain equation.

27. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied gradually?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E

28. What is strain energy?
a) The work done by the applied load In stretching the body
b) The strain per unit volume
c) The force applied in stretching the body
d) The stress per unit are
Explanation: The strain energy stored in a body is equal to the work done by the applied load in stretching the body.

29. What is the relation between maximum stress induced due to gradual load to maximum stress the sudden load?

30. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 5cm long. What will be the stress in the rod if E=1×105 N/mm2?
a) 47.746 N/mm2
b) 34.15 N/mm2
c) 48.456 N/mm2
d) 71.02 N/mm2
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 47.746 N/mm2.

31. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 10m long. What will be the stress in the rod if E=1×105 N/mm2?
a) 1.19mm
b) 2.14mm
c) 3.45mm
d) 4.77mm
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 47.746 N/mm2
So stretch = stress x length / E = 4.77mm.

32. A tensile load of 100kN is gradually applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm. What will be the stress in bar?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 120 N/mm2
c) 125 N/mm2
d) 150 N/mm2
Explanation: Stress = load / area = 100,000/ (20×40) = 125 N/mm2.

33. A tensile load of 100kN is gradually applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm and length of 5m. What will be the strain energy in the bar if E=1×105 N/mm2?
a) 312.5 N-m
b) 314500 N-mm
c) 245.5 N-m
d) 634 N-m
Explanation: Stress = load / area = 100,000/ (20×40) = 125 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 125x125x20x40x5000/ (2×100,000) = 312500 N-mm = 312.5N-m.

34. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 10m long. What will be the strain energy absorbed by the rod if E=1×105 N/mm2?
a) 100 N-m
b) 132 N-m
c) 148 N-m
d) 143.2 N-m
Explanation: Stress = 60,000 / 400π = 47.746
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 47.746×47.746×12,566,370 / (2×100000) = 143,236.54 N-mm = 143.2N-m.

35. A uniform bar has a cross sectional area of 700mm and a length of 1.5m. if the stress at the elastic limit is 160 N/mm, what will be the value of gradually applied load which will produce the same extension as that produced by the suddenly applied load above?
a) 100kN
b) 110kN
c) 112kN
d) 120kN
Load = stress x area = 160 x 700 = 112000 N = 112kN.

36. A tension bar 6m long is made up of two parts, 4m of its length has cross sectional area of 12.5cm while the remaining 2m has 25cm. An axial load 5tonnes is gradually applied. What will be the total strain energy produced if E = 2 x 106 kgf/cm2?
a) 240kgf/cm
b) 242kgf/cm
c) 264kgf/cm
d) 270kgf/cm
Explanation: First stress = load /area, then the strain energy will be calculated as
Strain energy = σ2V/2E.

37. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied with impact?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E

38. What will be the stress induced in the rod if the height through which load is dropped is zero?
a) P/A
b) 2P/A
c) P/E
d) 2P/E
Explanation: As stress = P/A (1 + (1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
Putting h=0, we get stress = 2P/A.

39. A load of 100N falls through a height of 2cm onto a collar rigidly attached to the lower end of a vertical bar 1.5m long and of 105cm2 cross- sectional area. The upper end of the vertical bar is fixed. What is the maximum instantaneous elongation in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 0.245mm
b) 0.324mm
c) 0.452mm
d) 0.623mm
Explanation: As stress = P/A ( 1 + ( 1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2 )
Putting P = 100, h = 20, L = 1500, A = 150, E = 200,000 we will get stress = 60.23 N/mm2
Elongation = stress x length / E = 60.23 x 1500 / 200,000 = 0.452mm.

40. A load of 100N falls through a height of 2cm onto a collar rigidly attached to the lower end of a vertical bar 1.5m long and of 105cm2 cross- sectional area. The upper end of the vertical bar is fixed. What is the strain energy stored in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 2.045 N-m
b) 3.14 N-m
c) 9.4 N-mm
d) 2.14 N-m
Explanation: As stress = P/A ( 1 + ( 1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2 )
Putting P = 100, h = 20, L = 1500, A = 150, E = 200,000 we will get stress = 60.23 N/mm2.
Strain energy stored = stress2 x volume / 2E = 60.232 x 2525000 / (2×200,000) = 2.045 N-m.

41. An unknown weight falls through a height of 10mm on a collar rigidly attached to a lower end of a vertical bar 500cm long. If E =200GPa what will be the value of stress?
a) 50 N/mm2
b) 60 N/mm2
c) 70 N/mm2
d) 80 N/mm2
Explanation: Stress = E x strain = E x δL/L = 200,000 x 2 /5000 = 80 N/mm2.

Module-6

1. Slope in the beam at any point is measured in ____________
a) Degrees
b) Minutes
d) Metric tonnes
Explanation: The slope is defined as at any point on the bent beam is the angle measured in terms of radians to which the tangent at that point makes with the x axis.

2. Elastic curve is also known as __________
a) Refraction curve
b) Reflection curve
c) Deflection curve
d) Random curve
Explanation: An elastic curve is defined as the line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam deviates under given load. It is also called a deflection curve.

3. Which of the following method is not used for determining slope and deflection at a point?
a) Moment area method
b) Double integration method
c) Isoheytal method
d) Macaulay’s method
Explanation: The method “Isoheytal” can be used for calculating run-off over an area. The remaining methods are effectively adopted to calculate the slope and deflection at a point in any type of beam.

4. The slope is denoted by _______
a) k
b) y
c) i
d) c
Explanation: The slope at any section in a deflection beam is defined as the angle measured in radians to the tangent at the section makes with the original axis of the beam.
•It is denoted by “i”.

5. Calculate the slope at supports, if the area is 180kNm2. Take flexural rigidity as 50000.
Explanation: Maximum slope at supports be i = A/EI
= 180/50000

6. In cantilever beams, the slope is _____________ at fixed end.
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
Explanation: The slope in cantilever beam is zero at the fixed end of the cantilever and the slope is maximum at it’s free end. The slope is determined in the moment area method through Mohr’s theorems.

7. Slope is maximum at _______ in simply supported beams.
a) Mid span
b) Through out
c) Supports
Explanation: In case simply supported beams, the slope is maximum at the end supports of the beam and relatively zero at midspan of a symmetrically loaded beam.

8. Mohr’s theorem- 1 states ________
a) E/AI
b) I/EA
c) A/EI
d) A=EI
Explanation: According to Mohr’s theorem-1, the change of slope between any of the two points on and Elastic axis is equal to the net area of bending moment diagram (A) between these two points divided by flexural rigidity(EI).

9. Using Mohr’s theorem, calculate the maximum slope of a cantilever beam if the bending moment area diagram is 90kNm2. Take EI = 4000 kNm2.
Explanation: The maximum slope at free support (in cantilever beam) = i = A/EI
= 90/4000

10. Contour canals are also called as ______
a) Single bank canal
b) Ridge canal
c) Side slope canal
d) Watershed canal
Explanation: In this method, the canal is aligned along the falling contour. A generally higher side is left without bank. So it is also called a single bank canal. The contour canal cuts across the natural drainage courses.

11. ______________ provides employment to the cultivators at the time of famine.
a) Productive canal
c) Protective canal
d) Inundation canal
Explanation: The construction of protective canals and their development may be started during summer in hence they provide employment to the farmers at the time of drought and famine. Protective canals are not remunerative as productive canals.

12. ______________ bricks are used in the lining of blast furnaces.
a) Magnesia
b) Dolomite
c) Bauxite
d) Fly ash
Explanation: Dolomite bricks are made especially from dolomite it contains nearly 30% lime and 22% of magnesium these bricks are inferior to magnesite bricks. They are generally used in the lining of blast furnaces.

13. _____________ bricks are resistant to corrosion.
a) silica bricks
b) magnesia bricks
c) bauxite bricks
d) fire bricks
Explanation: Bauxite bricks contain nearly 75% of aluminium and it is mixed with fire clay 15 to 30% and added some water to mould. High alumina bricks are resistant to corrosion.

14. _____________ bricks are used in the lining of electric furnace.
a) Frosterite
b) Spinel
c) Chrome
d) Basic
Explanation: The spinal bricks belong to neutral bricks. The spinel bricks mainly consist of alumina and magnesia. These bricks are widely used in the lining of electric furnace.

15. The finished product after burning magnesite is named as ___________
a) Perillax
b) Hellyx
c) Pyrolytaex
d) Syrilax
Explanation: The heating of magnesia bricks is continued in the same kiln after reaching the temperature of 1950°C, and then some amount of iron oxide is mixed. The finished product after burning magnesite is named as perillax.

16. Units of deflection are _________
a) kNm
b) kN/m
c) kN
d) m
Explanation: The term “deflection” is defined as the transverse displacement of a point on any straight axis to the curved axis. It is expressed in metres (m).

17. Which of the following method is used to determine the slope and deflection at a point?
a) Arithmetic increase method
b) Mathematical curve setting
c) Macaulay’s method
d) Lacey’s method
Explanation: Macaulay’s method was devised by Mr WH Macaulay.
i. Gives one continuous expression for bending moment
ii. Constants of integration can be found by using end conditions
iii. By using this method, slope and deflection at any section can be determined throughout the length of the beam.

18. Deflection is denoted by _______
a) i
b) y
c) h
d) e
Explanation: The deflection of a point on the axis of the deflected beam is defined as the angle developed in radians with tangent at the section makes with the original axis of the beam.

19. In cantilever beams, the deflection is zero at ___________
a) Free and
b) Fixed end
c) At supports
d) Through out
Explanation: The deflection in cantilever beam is always zero at the fixed end and deflection in the cantilever beam at the free end is maximum.

20. Mohr’s theorem -¡¡ states?
a) Ax/EI
b) A/Ex
c) A/EI
d) Ae=Ix
Explanation: Mohr’s theorem -¡¡ states “the intercept taken on a vertical reference line of the tangent at any two points on an elastic line is equal to the moment of BMD between these points, about the reference line divided by flexural rigidity (EI).

21. Calculate the deflection if the slope is 0.0225 radians. Take the distance of centre of gravity of bending moment to free end as 2 metres.
a) 45mm
b) 35mm
c) 28mm
d) 49mm
Explanation: The deflection at any point on the elastic curve equal to Ax/EI
But, we know that A/EI is already slope equation.
So, slope × (the distance of centre of gravity of bending moment to free end = 2m).
0.0225 × 2
0.045m ~ 45 mm.

22. In simply supported beams, deflection is zero at _________
a) Mid span
b) Supports
c) Through out
d) Point of action of load
Explanation: The deflection is always zero at the supports and the deflection is maximum at the mid span of a symmetrically loaded simply supported beam.

23. Which of the following is not a cross drainage work?
a) Aqueduct
b) Level crossing
d) Super passage
Explanation: The head regulator is one of the canal regulation works. It can control the entry of silt into the canal. It can be used as a metre for measuring the discharge. It can shut out river floods.

24. Tail escape is also called as ___________
a) Outlet
b) Cross regulator
c) Weir type escape
d) Surplus escape
Explanation: The crest of the weir is fixed at canal FSL. When the water level rises above FSL, it is disposed of into the natural drain. Hence, the tale escape is also known as weir type escape.

25. The land where all the water comes from ___________
a) Ridge dam
b) Watershed
c) Meander
d) Groynes
Explanation: A watershed can be defined as an interconnected area of land which receives the water from surrounding ridge tops and transports it to a common point such as a lake or stream. All lands and waterways can be found within one watershed or another.

26. ____________ reduces storm water discharge.
a) Rain water harvesting
b) Water harvesting
c) Watershed
d) Watershed management
Explanation: The water harvesting is defined as the process of capturing rain where it falls. The objectives of water harvesting are 1) To provide drinking water 2) To provide irrigation water 3) To increase groundwater recharge to reduce storm water discharge.

27. Which of the following is not a soil moisture conservation method?
b) Crop rotation
c) Recharge to ground water
d) By mulches
Explanation: The methods which are adopted for preserving the water in the soil from being lost are called as soil moisture conservation methods. The major part of the water is lost through evapotranspiration. The recharge to groundwater is one of the techniques in rainwater harvesting.

28. Nutrients like ca, mg, si, al, S, K are lost due to ____________
a) Soil erosion
b) Percolation
c) Water logging
d) Watershed
Explanation: The percolation is defined as a downward movement of water through the soil due to the force of gravity. The rapid percolation of water results in loss of plant nutrients and makes the soil acidic.

29. Warabandi has been practiced in India for more than ____________ years.
a) 130 years
b) 125 years
c) 140 years
d) 145 years
Explanation: Warabandi is a rotational method for allocation of the available water equally in an irrigation system. It provides continuous rotation of water generally lasts 7 days. It has been effectively practiced in India for more than 125 years.

30. Gold, Copper and lead are the examples of ______
a) Ductility
b) Creep
c) Plasticity
d) Malleability
Explanation: Plasticity in the property of Material by which the material can undergo permanent deformation and fails to regain its original shape on removal of load. Examples are gold, lead, etc.

31. __________ of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.
a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Slope
d) Maximum bending
Explanation: The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam to its corresponding span is termed as the stiffness of the beam. It is the measure of resistance against the deflection.

32. The maximum induced ___________ stresses should be within the safe permissible stresses to ensure strength of the beam.
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Bending
d) Lateral
Explanation: A beam is said to be strengthy when the maximum induced bending and shear stresses are within the safe permissible stresses of the beam material.

33. Elastic line is also called as ___________
a) Deflection curve
b) Plastic curve
c) Linear curve
d) Hooke’s curve
Explanation: The deflection curve is defined as the line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam deflects or bends under given load. This curve is also known as elastic line or elastic axis.

34. In simply supported beams, the slope is _____________ at supports.
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Uniform
Explanation: The slope at any section in the deflected beam is defined as the angle developed in radians which the tangent at the section makes with the actual axis of the proposed beam. In simply supported beams, the slope is maximum at the supports.

35. ____________ is the best example for accelerator (admixture).
a) Sulphonated formaldehyde
b) Calcium chloride
c) Sulphonated naphthalene
d) Polyglycolesters
Explanation: Calcium chloride is more widely used as an accelerator. By adding two percent (2%) of the weight of cacl2 admixture to the Portland cement the Maximum strength is attained within 1-3 days.

36. _____________ is used to reduce the time for hardening of concrete.
a) Accelerators
b) Super plasticizer
c) Retarder
Explanation: The admixtures (retarders) are generally used to reduce the time for hardening of concrete. They are used in situations like:
i. In hot weather condition, a tendency towards false set is corrected
ii. When concrete is to be placed in difficult positions.

37. Full form of LEED ________
a) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Development
b) Leadership in Environmental and Energy Design
c) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
d) Leadership in Efflorescence and Energy Demand
Explanation: LEED stands for Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. The fly ash is environmentally friendly solutions that meet or exceed performance specifications fly ash contributes a lot to LEED.

38. _____ has a lower heat of hydration.
a) Quarry dust
b) Fly ash
c) Ordinary Portland cement
d) Bulk sand
Explanation: The process that liberates heat when water is added to cement is known as heat of hydration. The process of hydration is not instantaneous. The fly ash is possessing lower heat of hydration.

39. The factors that influence rate of hydration is _________
a) The fineness of cement
b) Temperature of cement
c) Quality of water
d) Temperature of water
Explanation: The products of hydration are colloidal and increase the surface area of solid paste during hydration and the water is the main ingredient which reacts chemically. The rate of hydration is mainly influenced by temperature of cement.

40. The steel suits best to reinforcement with concrete.
a) False
b) True
Explanation: The Steel is be used for reinforcing a concrete for following properties:
i. Steel is about 30 times stronger in compression and 300 times stronger intention compared to concrete.
ii. It develops good bond with concrete
iii. It is highly fire resistant.

41. The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam to its ___________ is called stiffness of the beam.
b) Slope
c) Span
d) Reaction at the support
Explanation: The stiffness of a beam is a measure of it’s resistance against deflection. The ratio of the maximum deflection of a beam to its span can be termed as stiffness of the beam.

42. Stiffness of the beam is inversely proportional to the _____ of the beam.
a) Slope
b) Support reaction
c) Deflection
Explanation: Stiffness of a beam is inversely proportional to the deflection. Smaller the deflection in a beam due to given external load, greater is its stiffness.

43. The maximum ____ should not exceed the permissible limit to the span of the beam.
a) Slope
b) Deflection
dl Bending moment
Explanation: The maximum deflection of a loaded beam should not exceed the permissible limit in relation to the span of a beam. While designing the beam the designer should be keep in mind that both strength and stiffness criteria.

44. In cantilever beam the deflection occurs at ______
a) Free end
c) Through out
d) Fixed end
Explanation: Deflection can be defined as the perpendicular displacement of a point on straight access to the curved axis. In cantilever beams, the maximum deflection occurs at free end.

45. In an ideal fluid, the ____________ stresses are pretend to be absent.
a) Bending
b) Shearing
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
Explanation: An ideal fluid is a fluid where there is no resistance to the deformation. Ideal Fluids are those Fluids which have no viscosity surface tension. The shear stress is also absent. This fluid is also called as perfect fluid.

46. Air and water are the examples of ___________
a) Non Newtonian fluids
b) Vortex fluids
c) Real fluids
d) Ideal fluids
Explanation: The ideal Fluids are imaginary fluids in nature, they are incompressible. These fluids possess low viscosity. Air and water are considered as ideal fluids.

47. _______ fluids are practical fluids
a) Ideal
b) Real
c) Vortex
d) Newtonian