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[MCQ’s]Architectural Planning & Design of Buildings
Module-1
1. __________ is the built-up covered area of a building measured at floor level of any storey.
a) Covered area
b) Carpet area
c) Total area
d) Plinth area
Answer: d
Explanation: Plinth area is calculated by taking the external dimensions of the building at the floor level excluding plinth offsets if any. Court-yard, open areas, balconies and cantilever projections are not included in the plinth area.
2. ____________ is a list or schedule of quantities of all the possible items of work required for construction of any building or structure.
a) Quality survey
b) Rate list
c) Quantity survey
d) Rate schedule
Answer: c
Explanation: These quantities are worked from the plan and drawing of the structure. Thus the quantity survey indicates the quantities of work to be done under each item which when priced per unit gives the amount of cost.
3. _________________ area of a building is the area of verandahs, passage, corridors, balconies, porches, etc.
a) Floor area
b) Horizontal circulation area
c) Vertical circulation area
d) Verandah area
Answer: b
Explanation: It is required for the horizontal movement of the users of building. This may be 10% to 15% of the plinth area of the building.
4. ___________ of building is the useful area or liveable area or lettable area. This is the total floor area minus the circulation area, verandahs, corridors, passages, staircase, lifts, entrance hall, etc. minus other non-useable areas.
a) Plinth area
b) Floor area
c) Carpet area
d) Circulation area
Answer: c
Explanation: For office building carpet area is the lettable area or useable area and for residential building carpet area is the liveable area and should exclude the kitchen, pantry, stores and similar other room which are not used for living purpose.
5. ______________ include general office expenses, rents, taxes, supervision and other costs which are indirect expenses and not productive expenses on the job.
a) Total costs
b) General costs
c) Overhead costs
d) Contingencies
Answer: c
Explanation: The miscellaneous expenses on overheads may be under the following heads- General overheads, Job overheads.
6. The capacity of doing work by an artesian or skilled labour in the form of quantity of work per day is known as the ______________
a) over-turn
b) in-turn
c) out-turn
d) out-come
Answer: c
Explanation: The out-turn of work per artesian varies to some extend according to the nature, size, height, situation, location, etc. In bigger cities where specialised and experienced labour is available the out-turn is greater than small towns and country sides.
7. In earthwork per 28.30 cu m, how many beldars and mzdoors are required per day?
a) 15 Beldars and 8 Mazdoors
b) 0 Beldars and 14 Mazdoors
c) 2 Beldars and 0 Mazdoors
d) 5 Beldars and 4 Mazdoors
Answer: d
Explanation: Excavation in foundation, trenches, etc. in ordinary soil including disposal up to 30 m(100’) and lift of 1.5 m (5’).
8. In flooring how many masons, beldars, mazdoors and bhishti per day are required?
a) 4 Beldars, 10 Mazdoors, 10 Masons and 8 Bhishti
b) 4 Beldars, 3 Mazdoors, 5 Masons and 1 Bhishti
c) 9 Beldars, 13 Mazdoors, 5 Masons and 1 Bhishti
d) 3 Mazdoors, 5 Masons and 10 Bhishti
Answer: b
Explanation: 4 cm thick cement concrete flooring of 40 sq m require-4 Beldars, 3 Mazdoors, 5 Masons and 1 Bhishti per day for mixing, laying and finishing.
9. A bullock cart can carry about _________ load.
a) 3 tonne
b) 1 tonne
c) 5 tonne
d) ½ tonne
Answer: b
Explanation: The average speed for a bullock cart may be taken as 3.20 km( 2 units) per hour and ¾ hour may be allowed for loading and unloading. Taking 8 hours working per day, the number of trips per day can be calculated.
10. The approximate cost of a building of cubic content of 400 cu m@ Rs.180/- per cu m is __________
a) Rs. 92000/-
b) Rs. 12000/-
c) Rs. 72000/-
d) Rs. 42000/-
Answer: c
Explanation: Cube rate estimate is most accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate as the height of the building is also compared.
11. The carpet area of an office building may be 60% to 75% of plinth area of the building with a target of 75%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The planners should aim to achieve a target of 75% of the plinth area. The carpet area of residential building may be 50% to 65% of the plinth area of building with a target of 65%.
12. For a framed multi-storeyed building the area occupied by wall may be 50% to 70% of the plinth area.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: For a framed multi-storeyed building the area occupied by wall may be 5% to 10% of the plinth area. (a standard 3% for external walls and 2% for internal walls). For ordinary building without frame, the area occupied by walls may be 10% to 15% of the plinth area.
13. For panelled, glazed, etc., shutters- 15 carpenters and 4 beldars can make and fix 4 shutters 40 mm thick size 2.00m*1.15m.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: 11⁄2’’ thick of size of 6’-9”*3’-9” per day. Quantity of wood per shutter -0.075 cu m, i.e., 2.66 cu ft.
14. Centring and shuttering for flat surfaces- 4 beldars and 4 carpenters (2 class) can do 9.6 sq m (96 sq ft) per day.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforcement work for R.C.C.- 1 blacksmith or fitter and 1 beldar can bend and place in position 1 quintal (2 cwt) of steel per day.
15. Laying cement concrete – 6beldars, 8 mazdoors, ¾ Bhishti and ¼ mason can do 2.83 cu m(100 cu ft) per day.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Laying cement concrete – 2 beldars, 3 mazdoors, ¾ Bhishti and ¼ mason can do 2.83 cu m(100 cu ft) per day.
16. For residential building the liveable area should be 50% to 65% of the plinth area.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: For residential building the liveable area should be 50% to 65% of the plinth area. The circulation area should be minimum possible depending on the climatic condition of the region.
17. Drawing room should be light and ventilated and located in the heart of the building.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: For orthodox families observing purda, the drawing room may be placed in the front, having a verandah in the front and a lobby or dining room in the rear. Drawing room serves as recreation room, a study room, entertaining room for guests and visitors and a congregation room on special occasions of marriages, religious functions, etc.
18. Bedroom should not be placed on the sides of the building.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: It should be placed with at least one wall exposed to the outer space for ventilation and light. They should be placed on the sides of the prevailing wind with sufficient windows and ventilators having sun shades to protect against sun and rain.
19. Kitchen should be placed opposite to the direction of the prevailing wind.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Kitchen should be placed opposite to the direction of the prevailing wind so that smoke may not enter into the other rooms of these building. It is better to have kitchen in a separate wing or block or disconnected with a lobby and windows and chimney for smoke to escape.
20. The minimum width of staircase should be 0.9 m clear of railing and may range up to 1.5 m.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There should be a clear head-way of 2.1 m above each step and landing. The staircase should be constructed in two flights having a landing in the middle to make it easy and comfortable to climb.
21. Which factor is not considered on studying of site?
a) Number of gender ratio
b) Study of site with respect to other surrounding sites
c) Study of geographical and geological conditions of site
d) Location site
Answer: a
Explanation: Factors considered on studying of site are-
Location site
Study of site with respect to other surrounding sites
Study of geographical and geological conditions of site
Climatic conditions of site
Survey map site
Average air direction
Network of road pattern
Services available today, expected tomorrow
Environmental conditions
Mode of transportation available and which have to be incorporated
Type of labour available- skilled, unskilled, semiskilled
Type of equipments on construction
Time available for planning and execution of work till finish
22. What should the planner must have an interaction with the master/residents to understand the following?
a) Aim/object/purpose of building
b) Number of people using the building
c) Type of people, their education, awareness
d) Dressing sense of the people
Answer: d
Explanation: After theses studies planner must have an interaction with the master/residents to understand the following:
i. Aim/object/purpose of building
ii. Number of people using the building
iii. Type of people,their education,awareness
iv. Art and culture of the people
v. What are the expected actions and interations of people
vi. Maximum and minimum requirements of the people
vii. Their expection about maintanence of the building.
23. Which among the following is not a principle of planning?
a) Furniture requirements
b) Aspect
c) Prospect
d) Respect
Answer: d
Explanation: *Aspect- Is meant for arrangement of doors and windows 1n the external walls of the bui1iding wh1ch allows the natural gifts of sun shine and air, scenery etc.
*Prospect- is determine by the views desired from certain rooms of the house and is interest by surroundings peculiarities of selected site
*Furniture requirements- it 1s the functional requirement of a room decides the required furniture.
24. ____________ refers to the effect produced by deriving the maximum benefits from the minimum dimensions off a room.
a) Compactness
b) Roominess
c) Grouping
d) Privacy
Answer: b
Explanation: Giving due importance to the furniture placement in the room. Factors effecting of roominess are- size of the room, shape, furniture used, position of doors, windows.
25. __________ is nothing, but the movement.
a) Circulation
b) Privacy
c) Grouping
d) Ventilation
Answer: a
Explanation: It is nothing but the movement. This is two types of circulation – Horizontal Circulation, Vertical Circulation
Horizontal circulation: It is the circulation on the same floor, Vertical circulation: It nothing but the movement of upward and downward movement.
26. Which is not a human factor of industrial location?
a) Infrastructure
b) Capital
c) Labour
d) Market
Answer: a
Explanation: Human Factors: Capital, labour, policies, market, technology, transportation, communication, etc.
27. Industrial estates may be located outside the towns.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: To prevent the haphazard growth of an industry, industrial estates should be well planned. Industrial states should be so located that they do not encourage concentration of population in large urban centres.
28. The site for an industrial estate should be close to perennial water supply.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The site for an industrial estate should be close to perennial water supply for the proper supply of water in the industry, should be within reasonable distance from the source of electric power, should be close to the railway station and should permit easy drainage.
29. The minimum size of work shed may be of 20 sq. m and the maximum size of 250 sq. m.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum size of work shed may be of 60 sq m and the maximum size of 600 sq m. Considering the functional requirements of industries, number of different size of sheds should be limited, sheds of 10 m and 13 m span may be adopted in most cases.
30. A ______________ is a set of rules that specify the standards for constructed objects such as buildings and non-building structures.
a) Building code
b) Building bye-laws
c) IS code
d) Procedure
Answer: a
Explanation: Buildings must conform to the code to obtain planning permission, usually from a local council. The main purpose of building codes is to protect public health, safety and general welfare as they relate to the construction and occupancy of buildings and structures. The building code becomes law of a particular jurisdiction when formally enacted by the appropriate governmental or private authority.
31. Which is not included in building codes?
a) Mechanical integrity
b) Safety
c) Providing employment
d) Structural integrity
Answer: c
Explanation: The purpose of building codes are to provide minimum standards for safety, health, and general welfare including structural integrity, mechanical integrity (including sanitation, water supply, light, and ventilation), means of egress, fire prevention and control, and energy conservation.
Fire safety measures include those that are planned during the construction of a building or implemented in structures that are already standing, and those that are taught to occupants of the building.
32. Which is not a objectives of Building Bye laws?
a) Allows disciplined and systematic growth of buildings and towns and prevent haphazard development
b) Protect safety of public against fire, noise, health hazards and structural failures
c) They provide health, safety and comfort to the people who live in buildings
d) Renovation of old buildings without any charge by the government
Answer: d
Explanation: Objectives of Building Bye laws-
• Allows disciplined and systematic growth of buildings and towns and prevent haphazard development.
• Protect safety of public against fire, noise, health hazards and structural failures.
• Provide proper utilization of space. Hence, maximum efficiency in planning can be derived from these bye laws.
• They give guidelines to the architect or an engineer in effective planning and useful in preplanning the building activates.
• They provide health, safety and comfort to the people who live in buildings.
• Due to these by-laws, each building will have proper approaches, light, air and ventilation which are essential for health, safety and comfort.
33. Combining two or more plots as a single plot is called __________
a) Amalgamation
b) Frontage
c) Bifurcation
d) Building setback
Answer: a
Explanation: Building setback: Minimum distance between any building or any structure from the boundary line of the plot.
– Frontage: Frontage means the width of the site abutting the access road.
– Bifurcation: Means bifurcation of a plot into two.
34. Which is not a Building Bye-Laws Characteristic?
a) The rules must be specific, clear and the language of rules should be grammatically correct
b) Terms used should be defined clearly so that there must be one and only one meaning of the term
c) Due to some special conditions and requirements, some bye-laws differ from the bye-laws of other places
d) No modification is allowed if required
Answer: d
Explanation: Building Bye-Laws Characteristic of Bye-Laws –
• The rules must be specific, clear and the language of rules should be grammatically correct.
• Terms used should be defined clearly so that there must be one and only one meaning of the term.
• Due to some special conditions and requirements, some bye-laws differ from the bye-laws of other places.
• Even though in a single town Bye-law of single town is not applicable at the other area.
• It can be modified by government if required.
35. Which of the following is not a zone?
a) Residential
b) Commercial
c) Industrial
d) Electrical
Answer: d
Explanation: Following are some of zones –
1. Residential: Residential buildings, gardens, play grounds, schools, offices are allowed Industries, hospitals, wholesale markets are not allowed.
2. Commercial: Cinema, retail shops, town-halls, restaurants, bank, offices, shopping centers are allowed Hospitals and Industries are not allowed.
36. Which is not a type of building?
a) Educational Building
b) Mercantile Building
c) Institutional Building
d) Domestic building
Answer: d
Explanation: Educational Building: Exclusively used for schools and colleges.
-Mercantile Building: Building used as shops, stores market for display.
-Institutional Building: Building constructed for public activities like medical, education.
37. Line up to which the plinth of a building adjoining a street may be law-fully extended is called?
a) Building line
b) Building boundary
c) Building extend
d) Building plan
Answer: a
Explanation: Building unit- It is one or more than one plots approved by the competent authority for width of plot less than 10.5m” Plot width less than 3m and area less than 18m2 is not considered as building unit.
38. Door opening is not counted in the lighting and ventilation of the building.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hence, the min area for opening shall be not less than, i) 1/10th of the floor area for dry hot climate. ii) 1/6th of the floor area for wet hot climate. iii) 1/8th of the floor area for intermediate climate. iv) 1/12th of the floor area for cold climate.
39. Carpet Area does not include the thickness of the inner walls.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: Carpet Area is the area enclosed within the walls, actual area to lay the carpet. This area does not include the thickness of the inner walls. It is the actual used area of an apartment. Built up Area is the carpet area plus the thickness of outer walls and the balcony.
40. Subdivision/layout plan which shall be drawn on a scale of not less than _______
a) 1:100
b) 1:500
c) 1:1000
d) 1:50
Answer: b
Explanation: As per National Building Code, scale for Layout plan is specified as 1:500. In this plan, the location of all proposed and existing roads, dimensions of plot along with building line, locations of sewer and drainage line etc. are mandatory.
41. The plan of the buildings and elevations and sections accompanying the notice shall be drawn to a scale _________
a) 1:10
b) 1:50
c) 1:100
d) 1:500
Answer: c
Explanation: This plan includes floor plans which shows the use or occupancy of all parts of the building. Hence these parts needs to be large enough for the engineers to understand well. Therefore NBC have a specified scale of 1:100.
42. A ___________ line usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each case by the Authority, beyond which nothing can be constructed towards the site boundaries.
a) Building line
b) Control line
c) Property line
d) Plot line
Answer: a
Explanation: Building line or Set-back is provided to avoid traffic congestion in front of the building. Buildings like mall, multi-complexes, factories, etc. which attract a large number of vehicles, should have be set-back a further distance apart from the building line. This line after this extra margin is called as Control Line.
43. The ratio of the total floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of the plot on which building stands is known as ___________
a) Groundage
b) Plot area
c) Floor area
d) Built-up area
Answer: d
Explanation: It is also known as the Floor Space Index (FSI) or Floor Area Ratio (FAR). The value of built-up area is determined by local authorities and it may be different for different areas for different buildings of the town. Floor area means built up area excluding area of walls.
44. The aggregate area of doors and windows shall not be less than ___________ of the floor area of room.
a) 1/10
b) 1/9
c) 1/7
d) 1/6
Answer: c
Explanation: As per IS code, if the area is less than the specified area, occupants of the building will not receive enough lighting and ventilation. The area of such openings excluding area of doors should be minimum 1/10 of the floor area for dry-hot climate and minimum 1/6 of the area for wet-hot climate.
45. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in proper correlation of their functions and in due proximity with each other is known as ___________
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d) Grouping
Answer: d
Explanation: Grouping is the proper arrangement of rooms according to their functions leads to better planning of a building. It is observed that grouping leads to saving in unnecessary movements, proper correlation, easy control and overall economy.
46. The term ____________ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the building.
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Elegance
d) Roominess
Answer: b
Explanation: Prospect is dictated by the surrounding peculiarities of the site of the project. This can help us to conceal some unwanted views and reveal the beauty of the building.
47. The area on the earth which lies between the zones of cancer and Capricom is known as the _______
a) Tropic zone
b) Frigid zone
c) Torrid zone
d) Arctic zone
Answer: a
Explanation: Topic zone lies between zone of cancer (i.e. 231/2 degree north latitude) and Capricom (i.e. 231/2 degree south latitude). The typical features of tropical countries are burning sun, fixed seasons and rainfall which is heavy, moderate and with storm.
48. Landscape architecture comes under in which principle of planning?
a) Function
b) Form
c) Aesthetic
d) Elegance
Answer: c
Explanation: Aesthetic plays major role in architectural landscaping. It includes the appearance of the building and overall beauty. Whereas function and form are both same which deals with the utility of the rooms according to their functions.
49. When building bye-laws came into force?
a) April 1984
b) July 1983
c) April 1983
d) July 1972
Answer: a
Explanation: Building bye-laws came into force on April 1984. This local law was framed by the subordinate authority. Its specifications are designed to minimum safeguard to the workers during construction; to the health and comfort of users; and to provide enough safety to the public in general.
Module-2
1. A building can be mainly divided into how many components?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3 components are substructure, plinth and superstructure. Anything below ground level is substructure and above it is superstructure.
2. D.P.C (Damp Proof Course) is mainly laid on:
a) Footing
b) Floor
c) Foundation
d) Plinth
Answer: d
Explanation: Plinth is a line between sub and superstructure. If D.P.C. is laid on top of plinth level, moisture penetration to the superstructure can be avoided.
3. Floor in a building
a) Separates levels
b) Is laid below plinth
c) Contains R.C.C.
d) Has thickness of 10cm
Answer: a
Explanation: Floor is laid above plinth level. It is used to tread on, keep furniture, household, other items. It also demarcates levels of a building. P.C.C. is done on flooring and it is usually 4cm thick.
4. Which of the below is constructed above doors, windows?
a) Joist
b) Purlin
c) Lintel
d) Arch
Answer: c
Explanation: Windows and doors are openings in a wall. To support the overlying bricks, a structure is built on top of the opening. It is called lintel.
5. What is the level below window called?
a) Pane level
b) Lintel level
c) Sill level
d) Plinth level
Answer: c
Explanation: The wall below window needs to support the weight of the window or opening and keep it steady. This level is called as sill level.
6. Wall is mainly of how many types?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the capacity of walls to carry a load, it is of 2 types. Load bearing walls and non load bearing walls are the two categories.
7. ___________ wall is used to resist lateral forces like severe wind.
a) Knee wall
b) Cavity wall
c) Infill wall
d) Shear wall
Answer: d
Explanation: Shear wall is a long continuous structure, just like that surrounding an elevator. It has excellent strength and can withstand heavy winds, earthquakes.
8. Building finishes are not considered as components of a building.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Building finishes are also part of the building. Finishing works include plastering, whitewashing, painting, flooring, roofing and so on. These all add to the completion of a building.
9. How many types of parapets are there?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: The 4 types are plain, perforated, panelled and embattled. Plain parapet is solid masonry, perforated has holes in different shapes, panel consists of panels joined together and in embattled, they are pierced.
10. Skylight is a type of window.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Skylight is provided on top of sloped roofs to admit light into rooms. It is provided parallel to the sloping surface. They can be opened when required. They perform all the functions of a window.
11. The outer projection on the tread of a stair is:
a) Going
b) Outcrop
c) Bulge
d) Nosing
Answer: d
Explanation: A small projection is provided in the tread of a stair. Tread is the horizontal distance of one step. Nosing is the term used to describe that little projection.
12. ___________ footing is used in load bearing masonry construction.
a) Isolated
b) Strap
c) Strip
d) Pile
Answer: c
Explanation: The strip footing bears a whole load of an entire wall. It is a continuous footing that runs below the wall.
13. How many types of combined footing are possible?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Combined footing is provided when 2 columns are very close by. They can be rectangular or trapezoidal in section.
14. CPRF stands for:
a) Combined Plain Round Foundation
b) Connected Pile Round Foundation
c) Combined Pile Raft Foundation
d) Corrosion Proof Raft Foundation
Answer: c
Explanation: CPRF uses the combination of pile and raft foundation as the name suggests. It is used as a foundation for high rise buildings. It is more powerful, strong, load bearing, safe than raft or pile when used.
15. Micropiles find its main application in retaining walls.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Micropiles are used for under pinning. They are used in highways, bridges and transmission tower projects. Sheet piles are extensively used in retaining walls.
16. Steining is a component of which of the below type of foundation?
a) Pile
b) Strap
c) Isolated
d) Well
Answer: d
Explanation: Well foundation is a type of deep foundation. It is shaped like a well. The well is dug, filled with sand/concrete. Steining is the wall provided to the well and it is built over a wedge shaped portion, called well curb.
17. Pier foundation is also called:
a) Caisson
b) Box
c) Bridge
d) Girder
Answer: a
Explanation: Caisson foundation is often used in the construction of bridge piers, hence it is also called pier foundation. Caisson can be floated to the site and sunk to the required position. It is used under water also.
18. A _________ is a sloping surface and it is adopted as a substitute for stair for easy connection between the floors.
a) Rise
b) Pitch
c) Ramp
d) String
Answer: c
Explanation: The usual slope of ramp is 1 in 15. But a slope of 1 in 10 is desirable. This indicates that the ramp requires more space. For instance, total length of 45 M of ramp will be required to connect the floor of height of 3 m with slope and 1 in 15.
19. In ________ all steps lead in one direction only.
a) Turning steps
b) Circular steps
c) Straight steps
d) Geometrical steps
Answer: c
Explanation: Straight steps consist of one or more flights and they are used when the space available for staircase is long but narrow in width.
20. A Stair turning through one right angle is known as a _______ stair.
a) Quarter- turn
b) Half-turn
c) Dog-legged
d) Open navel
Answer: a
Explanation: Quarter Turn steps are commonly used in public buildings near their entrance hall. The stairs has a wider flight at the bottom which bifurcates into two narrower flights at the landing, one turning to the left and other to the right.
21. A Stair turning through two right angles is known as a _________ stair.
a) Straight
b) Geometrical
c) Spiral
d) Dog-legged
Answer: d
Explanation: In case of Dog-legged stairs, the flight run in opposite directions and there is no space between them in plan. These stairs are useful where the total width of space available for the staircase is equal to twice the width of the steps.
22. In case of _______ stair, there is a well or hole or opening between the flights in the plan.
a) Spiral
b) Three Quarter Turn
c) Open Newel
d) Dog-legged
Answer: c
Explanation: In Open Newel stair, the well maybe rectangular or of any geometrical shape and it can be used for fixing lifts. These stairs are useful where the available space for staircase has a width greater than twice the width of the steps.
23. A Stair turning through three right angles is known as a ________ stair.
a) Three Quarter Turn
b) Two Quarter Turn
c) Four Quarter Turn
d) Single Quarter Turn
Answer: a
Explanation: In Three Quarter Turn, an open well is formed. This type of stair is used when the length of the stairs Limited and when the vertical distance between the two floors is quite large.
24. In ___________ types of stairs, the steps radiate from the centre and they do not have either any landing or any intermediate Newel post.
a) Helical
b) Geometrical
c) Turning
d) Straight
Answer: a
Explanation: In Circular or Helical or spiral types of stairs, the flight consists of winders only and they may be continued through any design number of turns. A spiral stair may be constructed of cast iron, mild steel or concrete.
25. The ___________ stairs are useful where the space available is limited and where the traffic is less.
a) Straight
b) Turning
c) Spiral
d) Geometrical
Answer: c
Explanation: The core of spiral stair maybe solid and hollow and the stair may be provided with cut or closed strings. The height of the floor and riser respectively 3.68 M and 160 mm.
26. _________ stairs have any geometrical shape and they require no newel posts.
a) Helical
b) Circular
c) Dog-legged
d) Geometrical
Answer: d
Explanation: The handrail of a geometrical stair continuous without interruption and without any angular turns. The construction of geometrical stairs required considerable skill and it is found that geometrical stairs weaker than corresponding open newel stairs.
27. The stairs which are kept in motion by a revolving drum is known as a _______
a) Escalator
b) Revolving Stairs
c) Lift
d) Elevator
Answer: a
Explanation: These stairs are known as the escalators a were moving flights of electrically operated stairs. A few steps at top and bottom are kept level through moving individually. The only thing a person has to do is to occupy a step of the escalator for his upward and downward motion.
28. In __________ roofs, the common Rafter are provided to itself without any intermediate support.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Purlin
d) Trussed
Answer: a
Explanation: Lean on roof, couple roof, couple close roof, collar beam roof and collar & Scissors roof are the some varieties of a single roof.
29. ______________ is the simplest form of a pitched roof and it is also known as pent roof.
a) Collar beam roof
b) Collar and scissor roof
c) Couple roof
d) Lean on roof
Answer: d
Explanation: In Lean-on roofs, one wall is carried up sufficiently higher than the other one to give necessary look to the roof. The Rafters are suitably secured on the wall plates and eave boards, battens and roof covering are provided.
30. In ________________ roof, the common rafter slope upward from the opposite wall and they meet on a Ridge piece in the middle.
a) Couple-close roof
b) Lean-on roof
c) Collar beam
d) Couple
Answer: d
Explanation: In Couple roofs, the common rafters are firmly secured in position at both the ends, one in being on the ridge piece and the other on the wall plate. Such a roof is not very much favoured because it has the tendency to spread out at the feet.
31. __________________ roof is just similar to a couple roof except that the legs of the common after are connected by tie beam.
a) Collar and scissor
b) Collar beam
c) Couple-close
d) Couple
Answer: c
Explanation: In Couple-close beam, the tie beam prevents the tendency of rafter to spread out and thus the danger of overturning of the wall is avoided. The tie beam can also be used as a ceiling joists when required.
32. __________________ roof is a variation of a couple close roof.
a) Collar beam
b) Collar and scissor
c) Tie beam
d) Lean on
Answer: a
Explanation: The tie beam is then known as a Collar or collar beam. A collar beam roof is adopted to economise the space and to increase the height of the roof. The collar beam is usually fixed at one third to one half the vertical height from the wall to the Ridge.
33. ____________________ roof is similar to the collar beam roof accept that two collar beams which are crossing each other to present an appearance of scissors are provided.
a) Collar and scissor
b) Collar beam
c) Tie beam
d) Lean on
Answer: a
Explanation: Whereas, Lean-on roof is generally used for sheds, out houses attached to main buildings, varandahs, etc. It is suitable for a maximum span of 2.4 metres.
34. In order to reduce the size of rafters, the intermediate support, called the ___________ are introduced under the rafters.
a) Couple roofs
b) Purlins
c) Tie beam
d) Collar beam
Answer: b
Explanation: When the span exceeds about 2.4 meters, the necessary size for the rafters become economical. Hence double or Purlin roofs are provided in such cases.
35. When the span exceeds 4.8 M and when there is no inside supporting walls for Purlins, the frame structures adopted, known as the _____________
a) Single roofs
b) Purlin roofs
c) Double roofs
d) Trussed roofs
Answer: d
Explanation: The spacing of Trusses depend upon the load on the roof, position of cross walls, span and materials on the trust. But the spacing is generally 3M for wooden Trusses. The Trusses carry the ridge pieces and Purlins on which the common rafters rest.
36. In this type of truss, the centre post, known as ___________ form a support for the tie beam.
a) Queen post truss
b) King post truss
c) Mansard truss
d) Truncated truss
Answer: b
Explanation: A King post truss is suitable for roofs of span varying from 5 m to 8 meters. The incline members, known as the Struts, prevent the principal rafter from bending in the middle.
37. _______________ truss differs from King post Truss in having two vertical members.
a) Composite truss
b) Mansard truss
c) Truncated truss
d) Queen post truss
Answer: d
Explanation: A Queen post Truss roof is suitable for roof of span varying from 8 meters to 12 meters. A straining sill is introduced under tie beam known as a straining beam, between the queen post to counteract the thrust of struds.
Module-3
1. When an object has its one or more faces parallel to the picture plane, its perspective is called ___________ perspective also called one point perspective.
a) parallel
b) oblique
c) vanishing
d) angular
Answer: a
Explanation: When an object has its one or more faces parallel to the picture plane, its perspective is called parallel perspective also called one point perspective as the edges converge to a single vanishing point of the parallel faces.
2. When an object has its two faces inclined to the picture plane, its perspective is called _________ perspective also called two point perspectives.
a) parallel
b) oblique
c) vanishing
d) angular
Answer: d
Explanation: When an object has its two faces inclined to the picture plane, its perspective is called angular perspective also called two point perspectives as the edges of the object converge to two vanishing points.
3. When an object has its three faces inclined to the picture plane, its perspective is called _________ perspective also called 3 point perspective.
a) parallel
b) oblique
c) vanishing
d) angular
Answer: b
Explanation: When an object has its three faces inclined to the picture plane, its perspective is called oblique perspective also called 3 point perspective as edges of the object converge to three vanishing points.
4. Vanishing points for all horizontal lines are inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane are given special name of _________ points.
a) vanishing
b) far
c) distance
d) distant
Answer: c
Explanation: Vanishing points for all horizontal lines are inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane are given special name of distance points on account of their definite positions. They are equidistant from the center of vision.
5. Which are equidistant from the center of vision?
a) Station point
b) Ground point
c) Distance point
d) Vanishing point
Answer: c
Explanation: The distance points are equidistant from the center of vision the distance of each from the centre of vision being equal to the distance of the station point from the picture plane the perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the horizon line.
6. The distance of which points from the centre of vision being equal to the distance of the station point from the picture plane?
a) Station point
b) Ground point
c) Distance point
d) Vanishing point
Answer: c
Explanation: The distance points are equidistant from the center of vision the distance of each from the centre of vision being equal to the distance of the station point from the picture plane the perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the horizon line.
7. The perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at ___ degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the horizon line.
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90
Answer: b
Explanation: The distance points are equidistant from the center of vision the distance of each from the centre of vision being equal to the distance of the station point from the picture plane the perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the horizon line.
8. The perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the _______________
a) ground line
b) perpendicular axis
c) horizon line
d) center of vision
Answer: c
Explanation: The distance points are equidistant from the center of vision the distance of each from the centre of vision being equal to the distance of the station point from the picture plane the perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the horizon line.
9. The perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a ________ points on the horizon line.
a) vanishing
b) far
c) distance
d) distant
Answer: c
Explanation: The distance points are equidistant from the center of vision the distance of each from the centre of vision being equal to the distance of the station point from the picture plane the perspectives of all horizontal lines inclined at 45 degrees to the picture plane converge to a distance points on the horizon line.
10. The measuring line or the line of heights is the trace or the line of intersection with the _________ plane, of the vertical plane containing the point or points whose heights are to be determined.
a) ground plane
b) picture plane
c) horizontal plane
d) central plane
Answer: b
Explanation: The measuring line or the line of heights is the trace or the line of intersection with the picture plane, of the vertical plane containing the point or points whose heights are to be determined. Heights of points lying in the different vertical plane can be measured from their respective line of heights.
11. Heights of points lying in different ___________ can be measured from their respective line of heights.
a) ground plane
b) picture plane
c) vertical plane
d) central plane
Answer: c
Explanation: The measuring line or the line of heights is the trace or the line of intersection with the picture plane, of the vertical plane containing the point or points whose heights are to be determined. Heights of points lying in different vertical plane can be measured from their respective line of heights.
12. The measuring line or the line of heights is the trace or the line of intersection with the picture plane, of the ____________ plane containing the point or points whose heights are to be determined.
a) ground plane
b) picture plane
c) vertical plane
d) central plane
Answer: c
Explanation: The measuring line or the line of heights is the trace or the line of intersection with the picture plane, of the vertical plane containing the point or points whose heights are to be determined.
13. In perspective projection, the eye is assumed to be situated at a _______ position relative to the object. The ______ is placed between ____ and the _________
a) definite, picture plane, eye, object
b) indefinite, object, eye, picture plane
c) indefinite, picture plane, eye, object
d) indefinite, object, picture plane, eye
Answer: a
Explanation: In perspective projection, the eye is assumed to be situated at a definite position relative to the object. The picture plane is placed between eye and the object and the object can also placed between the eye and picture plane.
14. In perspective projection the projectors are _________ to each other and ________ to picture plane.
a) parallel, perpendicular
b) not parallel, inclined
c) parallel, inclined
d) not parallel, perpendicular
Answer: b
Explanation: In perspective projection, the projectors are not parallel to each other and inclined to picture plane. In orthographic view the projector are parallel to each other and perpendicular to plane of projection.
15. In perspective projection, the horizontal plane in which the object is assumed to be situated is called ______________
a) horizontal plane
b) picture plane
c) ground plane
d) auxiliary ground plane
Answer: c
Explanation: In perspective projection, the horizontal plane in which the object is assumed to be situated is called ground plane. And the imaginary plane is at the level of the eye above the ground plane and at right angles to the picture plane is called the horizontal plane.
16. In perspective projection, the point where the eye of the observer is located while viewing the object is called ____________
a) ground point
b) horizon point
c) center of vision
d) station point
Answer: d
Explanation: In perspective projection, the point where the eye of the observer is located while viewing the object is called station point and the distance of the station point from the picture plane, when taken equal to about twice the greatest dimension of the object gives the good view in the perspective.
17. In perspective projection, the point in which the perpendicular axis pierces the picture plane and lies on horizon line is called _____________
a) ground line
b) horizon line
c) center of vision
d) station line
Answer: c
Explanation: In perspective projection, the point in which the perpendicular axis pierces the picture plane and lies on horizon line is called center of vision. And the line in which the horizon plane intersects the picture plane is called horizon line. It is parallel to ground line.
18. In perspective projection, the imaginary plane is at the level of the eye above the ground plane and at right angles to the picture plane is called ______________
a) horizontal plane
b) picture plane
c) ground plane
d) auxiliary ground plane
Answer: a
Explanation: In perspective projection, the imaginary plane is at the level of the eye above the ground plane and at right angles to the picture plane is called the horizontal plane. And the horizontal plane in which the object is assumed to be situated is called ground plane.
19. In perspective projection, the imaginary vertical plane which passes through the station point and the center of vision. It contains the perpendicular axis. It is perpendicular to both the picture plane and ground plane. It is called ____________
a) central plane
b) picture plane
c) ground plane
d) auxiliary ground plane
Answer: a
Explanation: In perspective projection, the imaginary vertical plane which passes through the station point and the center of vision. It contains the perpendicular axis. It is perpendicular to both the picture plane and ground plane. It is called central plane.
20. In perspective projection, the line drawn through the station point and perpendicular to the picture plane is sometimes called the line of sight or axis of vision is called _________
a) ground line
b) horizon line
c) perpendicular line
d) station line
Answer: c
Explanation: In perspective projection, the line drawn through the station point and perpendicular to the picture plane is sometimes called the line of sight or axis of vision is called perpendicular line.
21. In perspective projection, the horizontal plane placed above the horizon plane on which the top view of the object and of the perspective elements is projected is called ____________
a) horizontal plane
b) picture plane
c) ground plane
d) auxiliary ground plane
Answer: d
Explanation: In perspective projection, the horizontal plane placed above the horizon plane on which the top view of the object and of the perspective elements is projected is called auxiliary ground plane.
22. In which method, points on the perspective are obtained by projecting the top view and either the front view or the side view of visual rays?
a) Watching method
b) Vanishing point method
c) Visual-ray method
d) Perspective method
Answer: c
Explanation: In visual-ray method, points on the perspective are obtained by projecting the top view and either the front view or the side view of visual rays. In addition to the top view of the visual rays, use of vanishing points of straight lines is made in Vanishing point method.
23. In addition to the top view of the visual rays, use of vanishing points of straight lines is made in this method. What is this method?
a) Watching method
b) Vanishing point method
c) Visual-ray method
d) Perspective method
Answer: b
Explanation: In a visual-ray method, points on the perspective are obtained by projecting the top view and either the front view or the side view of visual rays. In addition to the top view of the visual rays, use of vanishing points of straight lines is made in Vanishing point method.
24. In perspective projection, the line in which the horizon plane intersects the picture plane is called ______________ and it is parallel to ground line.
a) ground line
b) horizon line
c) center of vision
d) station line
Answer: d
Explanation: In perspective projection, the line in which the horizon plane intersects the picture plane is called horizon line. It is parallel to ground line. And the point in which the perpendicular axis pierces the picture plane and lies on horizon line is called center of vision.
25. The perspective view of a circle in any type of typical position be_________
a) circle
b) ellipse
c) oval
d) lemniscate
Answer: b
Explanation: The station point in anywhere from the picture plane if a circle is placed in any angle with the ground plane in the maximum possible critical position the perspective of the circle will always be an ellipse.
26. To draw the perspective view of a circle the circle should be enclosed in _______ and then pointing points and next steps goes on.
a) square
b) rectangle
c) rhombus
d) parallelogram
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain points on an ellipse, the circle should be enclosed in a square and mid points of sides and intersection of diagonals with the circle are 8 points. Lines are drawn through these points, parallel to the sides of the square.
27. The perspectives of concentric circles are not concentric __________
a) circles
b) ellipses
c) spheres
d) ellipsoids
Answer: b
Explanation: Perspectives of concentric circles are not concentric ellipses. Though the both circles give ellipses but inner ellipse might be closer to one of side of outer ellipse and also might be closer to only one side of outer ellipse.
28. Curve of any shape can be drawn in perspective by enclosing it in a ___________
a) rectangle
b) cube
c) cylinder
d) square
Answer: a
Explanation: Curve of any shape can be drawn in perspective by enclosing it in a rectangle and then drawing horizontal and vertical lines through a number of points on the curve similar to a circle which is enclosed in square.
29. The perspective will remain same even if the station point changes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The position of the station point is of great important. Upon its position, the general appearance of the perspective depends. Hence, it should be so located as to view the object in the best manner.
30. For large objects such as buildings, the station point is usually taken at the eye level of a person of normal height that is about _____ meters.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
Answer: d
Explanation: For large objects such as buildings, the station point is usually taken at the eye level of a person of about 1.8 meters. For small objects, the station point should be fixed at such a height which gives good view of top faces and side faces.
31. The position of picture plane relative to the object is independent of a size of perspective view.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The perspective will show the object reduced in size when it is placed behind the picture plane. If the object is moved nearer the picture plane the size of the perspective will increase and vice versa.
32. The perspective will show the object _________ in size when it is placed behind the picture plane. If the object is moved nearer the picture plane the size of the perspective will ___________
a) reduced, decrease
b) reduced, increase
c) increased, reduce
d) increased, increase
Answer: b
Explanation: The perspective will show the object reduced in size when it is placed behind the picture plane. If the object is moved nearer the picture plane the size of the perspective will increase and vice versa.
33. The perspective will show the object _________ in size when it is placed in front of the picture plane. If the object is moved nearer the picture plane the size of the perspective will ___________
a) reduced, decrease
b) reduced, increase
c) increased, reduce
d) increased, increase
Answer: c
Explanation: The perspective will show the object increased in size when it is placed in front of the picture plane. If the object is moved nearer the picture plane the size of the perspective will reduce and vice versa.
Module-4
1. _________ is a form of overhead irrigation.
a) Centre Pivot irrigation
b) Sprinkler irrigation
c) Terraced irrigation
d) Drip irrigation
Answer: a
Explanation: In centre pivot irrigation, steel/Al pipes are joined together, supported by trusses and mounted on wheeled towers.
2. Inundation irrigation system is functional all through the year.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Inundation canal gets water which flows from a flooded river only. These are then discharged into the fields. Only if rivers are flooded (rainy season), these are functional.
3. Surface irrigation is again subdivided into:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types are furrow, border strip and basin irrigation. It is also called flood irrigation when the field is immersed in water completely.
4. Tank water irrigation system is common in:
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: d
Explanation: In Southern states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu; rain water harvesting and storage of water is done using tanks. The water is then fed to fields via a canal.
5. The field water efficiency of trickle irrigation is:
a) 50-55%
b) 55-85%
c) 80-90%
d) 60-70%
Answer: c
Explanation: Drip irrigation is also called trickle irrigation. If this system is managed correctly, the field water efficiency can be as high as 80-90%.
6. Sub-irrigation is used in areas with:
a) Low water table
b) High water table
c) Sloping terrain
d) Flat terrain
Answer: b
Explanation: Sub-irrigation is a method of artificially raising water table to allow the soil to be moistened from below plant’s root zone. It is also used in commercial greenhouse production.
7. Water for irrigation can come from ____________ sources.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The sources of water for irrigation can be ground water, surface water and non-conventional sources. The non-conventional sources are treated wastewater, drainage water, fog collection, etc.
8. Fertigation is a process in ___________ irrigation.
a) Sprinkler
b) Surface
c) Drip
d) Centre pivot
Answer: c
Explanation: In drip irrigation nowadays, a plastic mulch is incorporated which reduces evaporation and is a means of delivering fertilizers. Hence, the process fertigation.
9. The field water efficiency is determined by:
a) Water transpired by crop – water applied to a field
b) (Water absorbed by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
c) Water absorbed by crop – water applied to a field
d) (Water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
Answer: d
Explanation: The field water efficiency is the way to determine if the method of irrigation is efficient. It is determined by using the formula (water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%. It is expressed in %.
10. Spate irrigation is a special form of irrigation using surface water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also called flood water harvesting. In this case, water is diverted to normally dry river beds using a network of dams, gates and channels and are spread over large areas.
11. Micro-irrigation is also called:
a) Nano-irrigation
b) Petite irrigation
c) Localized irrigation
d) Flood irrigation
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a system where water is distributed under low pressure through the piped network in a pre-determined pattern and applied to each plant. Hence, it is called localized irrigation.
12. Tube wells are not used in:
a) UP
b) Haryana
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
Answer: d
Explanation: In Rajasthan and Maharashtra artesian wells are used. Tube well can be installed near agricultural land. A deep tube well, worked by electricity can irrigate a large area.
13. How many types of land use patterns are there?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The land use pattern shows how the land is used for various purposes in the development of housing/commercial/industrial areas. There are widely 10 land use patterns; radio centric (a large circle with development starting from centre), rectilinear (2 areas crossing centre), star (open spaces in star shape), ring (areas in circle with open space in centre), linear (along topography contours), branch (with connecting areas), sheet (spread out), articulated sheet (central and sub clusters), constellation (equal size areas nearby) and satellite (constellation around main area).
14. General land use planning deals with:
a) Residential
b) Institutional
c) Forests
d) Commercial
Answer: c
Explanation: The general land use planning deals with the non-urban large scale areas like forests, croplands, swamplands, etc. and they are used primarily for agriculture, forest or special uses. The other 3 options come under urban land use planning.
15. The land supply for urban expansion can be determined by:
a) TLA – (PCA+BU)
b) PCA – (TLA+BU)
c) BU – (PCA+TLA)
d) BU – (TLA-PCA)
Answer: a
Explanation: The total land area of a city (TLA) which is available for expansion is found out by deducting the total area of protected/conservation areas (PCA) and the existing built-up areas (BU). All these are taken in hectares.
16. Urbanisation and occupation of river banks and flood plains lead to:
a) Periodic exposure to inundation
b) Greater flow velocity
c) High run off
d) Increased soil erosion
Answer: a
Explanation: The population of town on river banks are periodically exposed to inundation from the rivers. Then slowly these extensions increase as there is less space for water to flow. Removal of natural vegetation leads to the other 3 options.
17. A non-structural measure in flood control management is:
a) Canalisation
b) Polders and dikes
c) Flood proofing construction
d) Retention ponds
Answer: c
Explanation: The aim of a non-structural flood control management is to reduce the population and properties exposure to the floods. Use of flood proofing in construction is one of the ways.
18. Which of the following is not a flood proofing measures for houses?
a) Elevation
b) Floodwalls
c) Dry flood proofing
d) Detention basin
Answer: d
Explanation: The buildings which are in flood prone areas can be flood proofed by elevation (raise a building), floodwalls (a wall built to keep water away) and dry flood proofing (making walls of building watertight).
19. Noise map is an excellent tool for urban planning.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: These maps help to quantify the noise of a region and evaluate the population exposed to it. They help to create a database for the planning of zones accordingly (noisy activities/sensible, etc) and to predict the impact of noise in the predicted urban infrastructure.
20. How many number of source types of noise are there?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 sources type noise propagation. They are point source (loudspeakers, vehicles, industrial equipment, etc.), line source (road, railways, etc) and area source (parking lot, functions, opening of tunnels, etc).
21. Optimization of urban mobility can be intervened at the infrastructure level by use of:
a) SUV lanes
b) HOV lanes
c) Toll free lanes
d) Slow lanes
Answer: b
Explanation: The HOV (High Occupancy Vehicles) lane optimizes the existing roads by allowing vehicles with 2,3 or more occupants to use these lanes exclusively. So, it promotes people to use car pools to reach the destination faster, reducing the number of vehicles on road.
Module-5
1. Carbon footprint can be measured by:
a) Carbon dating
b) Instruments
c) Carbon accounting
d) Formula
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual, event, organisation or product. It is expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent. It can be measured by assessment of GHG (greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon accounting.
2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show bio productivity at each trophic level. The three types are the pyramid of energy, pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.
3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to environment is:
a) BEA
b) BA
c) MA
d) MEA
Answer: d
Explanation: MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is between 2 nation states, it is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement. These are predominantly produced by the United Nations.
4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable development.
a) GHG indicator
b) Agenda 21
c) IPCC
d) UNEP
Answer: b
Explanation: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by governments of member nations of UN and those major groups in every area in which humans impact on the environment.
5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?
a) 40-49
b) 60-79
c) 50-59
d) 80-110
Answer: b
Explanation: LEED is Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It has four levels – certified (40-49 points), silver (50-59), gold (60-79) and platinum (80-110 points).
6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
Answer: d
Explanation: This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low energy materials, thus reducing carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has access to natural daylight.
7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.
a) Tidal wave
b) Currents
c) Water
d) Ripples
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydel power is obtained from a high velocity of running water. It is abundantly present. It is used for a longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional energy.
8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:
a) 1992
b) 1990
c) 1993
d) 1994
Answer: a
Explanation: William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The concept and calculation was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis Wackernagel under Rees’ supervision from 1990-1994.
9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?
a) Eutrophication
b) Regional ozone
c) Climate change
d) Pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional and global. Climate change, global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc. are all issues at a global level.
10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:
a) Biomass
b) Biofuel
c) Bioenergy
d) Bio carbon
Answer: a
Explanation: It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades in the form of biomass. The carbon from these are released into the atmosphere on decomposition.
11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
a) Propene
b) Copper
c) Graphene
d) Potassium
Answer: c
Explanation: Graphene quantum dots can recycle waste CO2 to fuel. Scientist Pulickel Ajayan has shown the conversion of CO2 into ethylene and ethanol using electro catalysis in lab conditions.
12. A nutrient cycle is also called as __________
a) Atmospheric cycle
b) Atmospheric recycling
c) Ecological recycling
d) Ecological chain
Answer: c
Explanation: A nutrient cycle occurs within ecosystems and it is the movement of organic and inorganic matter between different members of the ecosystem. This is regulated by the food chains that use these for production and release them into the atmosphere on decomposition.
13. Living organisms can use Nitrogen (N2) as it occurs in the atmosphere.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The living organisms cannot use N2 to synthesise organic compounds. N2 is converted to NH3 by nitrogen fixing bacteria and then to nitrate by nitrifying bacteria which can then be used by organisms.
14. The major source of Nitrogen deposition is:
a) Fertilizers
b) Deforestation
c) Factories
d) Household waste
Answer: a
Explanation: Nitrogen rich fertilizers are often overused. As a result, nitrogen gets into the soil, favouring growth of weeds. It is also washed into waterways, where again it causes a growth of aquatic weeds.
15. Which of the following cycle does not have a gaseous state?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon
d) Phosphorous
Answer: d
Explanation: Phosphorous is present as inorganic phosphate PO43-. It is released from rocks and sediments. It is absorbed by plants and is incorporated into the nucleic acids.
16. In water cycle, the process can be explained in equation form as Evaporation + __________ = Precipitation
a) Infiltration
b) Ground water
c) Transpiration
d) Run-off
Answer: d
Explanation: Water cycle has three components – evaporation, run-off and precipitation. Transpiration is included in evaporation. Run-off is that part of the water which is not evaporated.
17. How many steps are involved in the sulphur cycle?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: The steps are assimilative sulphate reduction, desulphurization, oxidation of hydrogen sulphide, oxidation of elemental sulphur, dissimilative sulphur reduction and dissimilative sulphate reduction.
18. In the marine nitrogen cycle, _________ performs nitrogen fixation.
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Nitrobactor
c) Pseudomonas
d) Diazotrophs
Answer: a
Explanation: Diazotrophs are used to perform nitrogen fixation in normal nitrogen cycle. Nitrobactor is used for nitrification and Pseudomonas for denitrification.
19. In hydrogen cycle _________ is a sink used.
a) Ocean
b) Fossil fuels
c) Microbial soil uptake
d) Nitrogen fixation
Answer: c
Explanation: There are mainly 2 sinks used in hydrogen cycle – oxidation by hydroxyl radicals and microbial soil uptake. The rest of the options are sources.
20. Denitrification in nitrogen cycle happens in __________ conditions.
a) Aerobic
b) Humid
c) Anaerobic
d) Cold
Answer: c
Explanation: Denitrification refers to the process of reduction of nitrates back to nitrogen gas. Pseudomonas bacteria makes this happen. It uses nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and consequently, produce nitrogen gas.
21. How many reservoirs are there in the oxygen cycle?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The three main reservoirs are the atmosphere (air), biosphere (the global sum of all ecosystems) and Earth’s crust.
22. An analogous process for organic nitrogen compounds to desulphurisation in the sulphur cycle is:
a) Transnitrification
b) Denitrification
c) Deamination
d) Assimilation
Answer: c
Explanation: Deamination is the process of removal of amino group from an organic molecule. The enzymes which catalyse this reaction are deaminases.
Module-6
1. The computer-aided design (CAD) hardware doesn’t include.
a) Graphic display terminals
b) Computer
c) Computer programmes
d) Keyboard
Answer: c
Explanation: CAD has both hardware and software components. The hardware components are Graphic display terminals, Computer and Keyboard. The software components include all computer programmes that implement computer graphics.
2. How many types of CAD are there?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: The five types are 2D CAD (flat drawings of product), 2.5D CAD (Prismatic models), 3D CAD (3D objects), 3D wireframe and surface modelling (skeleton like inner structure) and solid modelling (solid geometry).
3. Modem CAD systems are based on:
a) ICG
b) GCI
c) GIF
d) IFG
Answer: a
Explanation: ICG is interactive computer graphics. It denotes a user-oriented system in which computer is used to create, transform and display data in pictorial or symbolic forms.
4. The computer communicates with the user via:
a) CPU
b) CRT
c) Graphics
d) Display button
Answer: b
Explanation: Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) screen gives the user the design created as an image. It is done by entering commands to get specific functions performed.
5. The process of designing consists of __________ identifiable steps.
a) 8
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: d
Explanation: The six steps are recognition of need, the definition of a problem, synthesis, analysis & optimization, evaluation and presentation.
6. Implementing CAD improves communications.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The use of CAD system provides the better understanding of engineering drawings by standardising them. It has fewer errors, proper documentation and greater legibility.
7. The functionality areas of CAD application can be grouped into __________ categories.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The four categories are geometric modelling, engineering analysis, design review and evaluation and automated drafting.
8. The colour on CRT screen is obtained by the combination of:
a) Red, yellow, blue
b) Red, green, blue
c) Green, black, yellow
d) Red, black, yellow
Answer: b
Explanation: The three primary colour red, green and blue are combined to produce variety of colours. Colour CRT uses electron beams of these triad colours on phosphor screen to display objects.
9. Who formulated the six ground rules to be considered in designing graphics software?
a) Newman and Sproull
b) Schaffer G
c) Fitzgerald W
d) Krouse and Lerro
Answer: a
Explanation: They gave six ground rules which were simplicity, consistency, completeness, robustness, performance and economy.
10. The input devices in CAD can be divided into:
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: The input devices can be divided into three general categories. These are cursor control devices (direct keys on keyboard, joysticks, tracker ball, etc.), digitizers (large smooth board with an electronic tracking device) and alphanumeric and other keyboard terminals.
11. The typical ICG system consists of software component.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: It consists of both hardware and software. Hardware includes CPU, workstations and peripheral devices. Software consists of computer programmes required to implement graphics.
12. ____________ is a rectangular pattern of lines or dots which covers in the entire XY plane of user coordinate system.
a) Ortho
b) Grid
c) Snap
d) Tolerance
Answer: b
Explanation: Grid is used to inhance the drawing speed and efficiency with specified spacing, angle and alignment. Snap restricts the movement of the crosshairs to intervals that you define.
13. Which command converts discrete object in polyline?
a) Merge
b) Union
c) Join
d) Add
Answer: c
Explanation: Some reasons you may choose to use polylines include the following:
• Vertices remain joined even after grip editing
• Absolute line width (as an alternative to relative line weight) that can be constant or tapered across a segment
• Move and copy a polyline as a unit
• Easily create rectangles and polygons as single objects
• Smart application of non-continuous line types across vertices
• Easy extrusion for 3D solids in AutoCAD.
14. The offset command cannot be used to create__________
a) Concentric circles
b) Vertical straights
c) Three parallel lines
d) Parallel arcs
Answer: b
Explanation: To offset an object, select the source object; click the offset button from the Edit Object Toolbar. Specify a point on canvas to offset through using tap or drag.
The Offset command creates a new object whose shape is parallel to that of the selected object. The Offset button is located in the Edit Object toolbar when tapping on any editable shape.
After the offset distance was specified, you can set it manually by inserting a value to the units bar (by tapping on the input box). Tap “Done” (“V” button) to finish specify the distance.
15. Which axis is not used when working in 2-D frame?
a) Z-axis
b) Y-axis
c) X-axis
d) WCS
Answer: a
Explanation: The User Coordinate System defines
• The XY plane, also called the work plane, on which objects are created and modified
• The horizontal and vertical directions used for features like Ortho mode, polar tracking, and object snap tracking
• The alignment and angle of the grid, hatch patterns, text, and dimension objects
• The origin and orientation for coordinate entry and absolute reference angles
• For 3D operations, the orientation of work planes, projection planes, and the Z axis for vertical direction and axis of rotation
You can change the location and orientation of the current UCS by clicking the UCS icon and using its grips, or with the UCS command.
Display options for the UCS icon are available with the UCSICON command.
16. Which is corresponded to zoom mouse wheel?
a) Extend/all
b) Zoom in/ Zoom out
c) Pan and scan
d) Scale
Answer: b
Explanation: To use the Zoom command’s Window option, you click one corner, release the mouse button, and then click the other corner. Realtime: Enables you to zoom in and out by starting a realtime zoom and then dragging the magnifying-glass cursor up (to zoom in) or down (to zoom out).
17. What setting gradient allows us to fill an open area?
a) Gap
b) Tolerance
c) Transparency
d) Open
Answer: b
Explanation: For adding tolerance in AutoCAD dimensions, you can create a new dimension style with tolerance values and settings. This dimension style containing tolerance values can be applied wherever tolerances are required.
To make a dimension style with tolerances, type “D” or “DIMSTYLE” on the command line and press Enter. The Dimension Style Manger window will pop up. Click on the New button from this window, give your new dimension style a name and click on the Continue button. For example, I will name this dimension style “Tolerance Dim.”
18. Which of the following is not a unit of length measurement?
a) Yards
b) Parsecs
c) Microns
d) Grads
Answer: d
Explanation: The gradian is a unit of measurement of an angle, equivalent to 1/400 of a turn, 9/10 of a degree, or π/200 of a radian.
It is also known as gon (from Greek γωνία/gōnía for angle), grad, or grade. In continental Europe, the French term centigrade was in use for one hundredth of a grad. This was one reason for the adoption of the term Celsius to replace centigrade as the name of the temperature scale.
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