1. Hydraulic energy is converted into another form of energy by hydraulic machines. What form of energy is that?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Electrical Energy
c) Nuclear Energy
d) Elastic Energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic machines firstly convert the energy possessed by water into mechanical energy. Later it can be transformed into electrical energy.

2. In hydraulic turbines, inlet energy is greater than the outlet energy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The operating member which receives energy at the inlet should be more compared to energy at the outlet.

3. Which principle is used in Hydraulic Turbines?
a) Faraday law
b) Newton’s second law
c) Charles law
d) Braggs law
Answer: b
Explanation: A Hydraulic Machine uses the principle of momentum which states that a force is generated which is utilized in a turbine.

4. Buckets and blades used in a turbine are used to:
a) Alter the direction of water
b) Switch off the turbine
c) To regulate the wind speed
d) To regenerate the power
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbines use blades and buckets to alter the direction of water. It is used to change the momentum of water. As momentum changes, force is produced to rotate the shaft of a hydraulic machine.

5. _______________is the electric power obtained from the energy of the water.
a) Roto dynamic power
b) Thermal power
c) Nuclear power
d) Hydroelectric power
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy from the energy of water is also called hydro power. The electric power so obtained is known as hydroelectric power.

6. Which energy generated in a turbine is used to run electric power generator linked to the turbine shaft?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Potential Energy
c) Elastic Energy
d) Kinetic Energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinetic and potential energies produced are converted to some useful mechanical energy. This part of energy is available to the turbine shaft.

7. Hydraulic Machines fall under the category :
a) Pulverizers
b) Kinetic machinery
c) Condensers
d) Roto-dynamic machinery
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic Machines use the principle of rotation of blades to alter the speed of water. Hence fall under roto dynamic machinery.

8. Which kind of turbines changes the pressure of the water entered through it?
a) Reaction turbines
b) Impulse turbines
c) Reactive turbines
d) Kinetic turbines
Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction turbines which act on water try to change the pressure of the water through its motion.

9. Which type of turbine is used to change the velocity of the water through its flow?
a) Kinetic turbines
b) Axial flow turbines
c) Impulse turbines
d) Reaction turbines
Answer: c
Explanation: In Impulse turbines, potential energy is utilized to convert as kinetic energy thereby changing the velocity of the water through its process.

10. Which type of turbine is a Francis Turbine?
a) Impulse Turbine
b) Screw Turbine
c) Reaction turbine
d) Turgo turbine
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is a reaction turbine as it changes the pressure of water through its process. Hence it cannot be an impulse turbine.

11. Among the following which turbine requires more head?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Tube Turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: Except Pelton remaining are reaction turbines, in impulse pressure energy is constant and only available energy is kinetic energy which is directly proportional to head.

12. Total head of turbines is_______
a) Pressure head + Static head
b) Kinetic head + Static head
c) Static head + Pressure head
d) Pressure head + Kinetic head + Static head
Answer: d
Explanation: Generally total is calculated as sum of pressure head, static head and kinetic head.

13. Head under which Kaplan turbine is operated______
a) 10-70 meters
b) 70 -100 meters
c) 100-200 meters
d) Above 200 meters
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is reaction turbine and it operates at low head 10-70 meters and output power is 5-200 MW.

14. Head under which Francis turbine is operated?
a) 10-70 meters
b) 70-100 meters
c) 100-200 meters
d) 40-600 meters
Answer: d
Explanation: Francis turbine is also reaction turbine but pressure energy is less when compared with Kaplan turbine. Hence head is between 40 and 600 meters.

15. The turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water?
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Tube turbine
d) Francis turbine
Answer: b
Explanation: Kaplan is reaction turbine and its range of operation is between 10-70 meters which has output range between 5-200 MW.

16. Under what head is Pelton turbine operated?
a) 20-50 meters
b) 15-2000 meters
c) 60-200 meters
d) 50-500 meters
Answer: b
Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine only energy available is kinetic energy which is proportional to head, hence it requires high head. Theoretically there is no limit to max value of head.

17. _____________ is difference between head race and tail race.
a) Gross head
b) Net head
c) Net positive suction head
d) Manometric head
Answer: a
Explanation: Gross head is the difference in elevation of water levels of fore bay and tail race.

18. The head available at inlet of turbine is ____________
a) Net positive suction head
b) Gross head
c) Net head
d) Manometric head
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the available effective head used for production. This is also called as static gross head.

19. Head lost due to friction is given by k*f*L*v*v/D*2g where f- friction coefficient, L- length of pen stock, D- diameter of penstock and” k” is constant and its value is ____________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The constant determined from the given formula is 4.

20. The difference between gross head and friction losses is ____________
a) Net head
b) Gross head
c) Manometric head
d) Net positive suction head
Answer: a
Explanation: Net head is the effective head used to calculate power production. It includes the elimination of frictional losses from the gross head.

21. _____________ is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner and power supplied at inlet of turbine.
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is defined as ratio between power given by water to runner of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine.

22. Which among the following which is not an efficiency of turbine?
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Electrical efficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrical efficiency is ratio of work output and electrical power input to electrical machine but turbine is a hydraulic machine which consists of only mechanical, volumetric and hydraulic efficiencies.

23. The ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power delivered by water to runner is known as?
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to mechanical losses, power available at shaft of turbine is less than power delivered to the runner of turbine. Hence ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power delivered by water to runner is known as mechanical efficiency.

24. The product of mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known as?
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: Overall efficiency is defined as ratio of power available at shaft of turbine to power supplied at the inlet of turbine which is also product of mechanical and hydraulic efficiency.

25. Among the following which turbine has highest efficiency?
a) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan is inward flow reaction turbine and is operated under head less than 60 meters. The vanes attached to hub are adjustable and Kaplan is mainly operated in location where large quantity of water at low head is available.

26. _____________ is ratio of volume of water actually striking the runner and volume of water supplied to turbine.
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: Volumetric efficiency is ratio between volume of water actually striking the runner of turbine and volume of water supplied to the turbine.

27. In the expression for overall efficiency of turbine, which is p/(k*g*q*h), where “k” is known as ___________
a) Density of liquid
b) Specific density of liquid
c) Volume of liquid
d) Specific gravity of liquid
Answer: a
Explanation: Overall efficiency is defined as ratio of power available at shaft of turbine to power supplied at the inlet of turbine which is also product of mechanical and hydraulic efficiency. Its expression is given by p/(k*g*q*h) where k is density of liquid.

28. The expression for maximum hydraulic efficiency of pelton turbine is given by?
a) (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
b) (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
c) (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
d) (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is defined as ratio between power given by water to runner of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. Its maximum value is obtained by replacing u=v/2 and it is (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle.

29. To obtain maximum hydraulic efficiency of pelton turbine, blade velocity should be ___________ Times the inlet velocity of jet.
a) Half
b) One quarter
c) Twice
d) Thrice
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is defined as ratio between power given by water to runner of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. This efficiency will be maximum when differentiating it with “u” and it is obtained as u=v/2.

30. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine, where there is no theoretical limit for head due to high head there is loss due to friction when water passing through penstocks hence its efficiency is less.

31. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of________
a) Energy absorbing machines
b) Energy generating machines
c) Power absorbing machines
d) Energy transfer machines
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic coupling is a device used for transmitting rotation between shafts by means of acceleration and deceleration of hydraulic fluid.

32. The electric power which is obtained from hydraulic energy____________
a) Thermal power
b) Mechanical power
c) Solar power
d) Hydroelectric power
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydroelectric power is generated by using hydraulic machines. Potential energy of water is converted to mechanical energy which is connected to dynamo to generate electrical energy.

33. At present which is cheapest means of generating power_____________
a) Thermal power
b) Nuclear power
c) Hydroelectric power
d) Electric Power
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic energy is renewable source of energy in which Potential energy of water is converted to mechanical energy which is connected to dynamo to generate electrical energy.

34. Pipes of largest diameter which carry water from reservoir to the turbines is known as_____________
a) Head stock
b) Tail race
c) Tail stock
d) Pen stock
Answer: d
Explanation: Penstocks are channels which transport water from reservoir to turbines which are usually made up of cast iron or concrete.

35. Pen stocks are made up of _____________
a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Wrought iron
Answer: a
Explanation: Penstocks are channels which transport water from reservoir to turbines which are usually made up of cast iron or concrete.

36. ____________ is an inward radial flow reaction turbine.
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: c
Explanation: Kaplan and propeller are outward axial flow reaction turbines but Francis is outward radial flow reaction turbine.

37. The important type of axial flow reaction turbines are ______________
a) Propeller and Pelton turbines
b) Kaplan and Francis turbines
c) Propeller and Francis turbines
d) Propeller and Kaplan turbines
Answer: d
Explanation: Axial flow turbine is a turbine in which water flows axially outwards and turbines fall into this category are propeller and Kaplan turbines.

38. ______________ is a axial flow reaction turbines, if vanes are fixed to hub of turbine.
a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: Axial flow turbine is a turbine in which water flows axially outwards, if vanes are fixed to hub of turbine it is known as Propeller turbine but if vanes are free to move it is known as Kaplan Turbine.

39. Francis and Kaplan turbines are known as _______
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Axial flow turbine
d) Mixed flow turbine
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis and Kaplan are reaction turbines because pressure energy of water changes when it enters the rotor.

40. Specific speed of reaction turbine is between?
a) 5 and 50
b) 10 and 100
c) 100 and 150
d) 150 and 300
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific turbines of reaction turbines such as Francis and Kaplan lie under the range 10-100.

41. Draft tube is also called_______
a) Straight divergent tube
b) Simple elbow tube
c) Thermal tube
d) Elbow tube with varying cross section
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube is one of the most commonly used in the Kaplan turbine. It works as an outlet at the Kaplan turbine. Draft tube is also called straight divergent tube.

42. A draft tube helps in converting kinetic energy into________
a) Electrical work
b) Mechanical work
c) Chemical work
d) Thermal work
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Steam turbine converts energy into mechanical work by extracting thermal energy from pressurized steam.

43. Most common application of the draft tube is ______
a) Rotor
b) Motor
c) Pump
d) Filter
Answer: c
Explanation: Most common application of the draft tube is different types of pumps. It plays an important role in the putlet of the pump and the turbine.

44. Draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of______
a) 10 deg
b) 20 deg
c) 30 deg
d) 40 deg
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of 10 degrees with respect to its position, Draft tubes are situated in the outlet of the turbine.

45. What is the purpose of a Draft tube?
a) To prevent flow separation
b) To avoid Pressure drag
c) To prevent rejection of heat
d) To increase efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube in a turbine and pumps helps to prevent flow separation in order to increase the turbine efficiency and increase its performance.

46. What is the maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube?
a) 100
b) 50
c) 90
d) 40
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube is 90 percent. It cannot exceed more than 90 percent because of the heat losses due to flow of fluid.

47. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the_______
a) Head race
b) Tail race
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail race of the turbine.

48. Turbine that consists of draft tubes is called as__________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Reaction turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: A turbine that consists of draft tubes is called as a reaction turbine. Reaction turbines make maximum use of the draft tubes for improving its performance characteristics.

49. Which of the following is a 50 percent reaction turbine?
a) Parsons turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Pelton wheel
Answer: a
Explanation: A turbine that consists of moving nozzles which are alternating with the fixed nozzles is called as a reaction turbine. When the steam hits the nozzle, the pressure is decreased and the temperature is increased. It is also called as Parson’s turbine.

50. The simple elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail race of the turbine.

51. The efficiency of the draft tube is ratio of ________
a) Pressure energy by kinetic energy
b) Kinetic energy by Pressure energy
c) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy
d) Pressure into mechanical
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of kinetic energy into the pressure energy. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at the inlet of the draft tube.

52. Draft tubes are not used in which of the following turbines?
a) Francis
b) Reaction
c) Kaplan
d) Pelton
Answer: d
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. Draft tubes are not used in Pelton wheels. Draft tube is a tube that is installed in power turbines.

53. The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the _______
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Volume of the flow
d) Density of flow
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the pressure in the fluid. It increases it at the expense of its velocity. This means that the turbine can reduce its pressure without fear of back flow to the tail race.

54. Efficiency of a draft tube gives __________
a) Temperature difference
b) Pressure difference
c) Kinetic energy difference
d) Density of flow
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube gives difference of the kinetic energy between the inlet and the outlet tube losses. The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of kinetic energy into the pressure energy.

55. Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when _______
a) Temperature difference
b) Pressure drop
c) Kinetic energy difference
d) Density of flow
Answer: b
Explanation: Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place. The absolute pressure falls below the saturated vapour pressure of the water for the given temperature.

56. Which among the following is an important parameter to avoid cavitation?
a) Tail race length
b) Head race length
c) Height of draft tube
d) Pump
Answer: c
Explanation: Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place. The absolute pressure falls below the saturated vapour pressure of the water for the given temperature. Height of the draft tube is an important parameter to avoid cavitation.

57. The draft tube is situated in the _______
a) Inlet
b) Outlet
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the inlet of the turbine. It consists of an extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail race of the turbine.

58. Which equation is applied to determine the flow?
a) Newtons equation
b) Rutherford’s equation
c) Bernoulli’s equation
d) Faradays equation
Answer: c
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation is used to determine the flow of the fluid from inlet to the outlet. It also helps in avoiding cavitation. Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place.

59. Height of the draft tube is denoted by _____
a) H
b) h
c) z
d) x
Answer: c
Explanation: Height of the draft tube is denoted by ‘z’. It is equated to z2, which is attached at the outlet of the turbine. Thus, the universal symbol to denote height of the draft tube is ‘z’.

60. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The draft tube is placed close to the tail race. The turbine pressure head is increased by decreasing the velocity at the draft tube. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.

61. The efficiency of the draft tube depends on the ______
a) Heat
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Pressure and temperature
Answer: d
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of kinetic energy into the pressure energy. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at the inlet of the draft tube.

62. Draft tubes have _________ shafts
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Circular
d) Cross sectional
Answer: b
Explanation: Draft tubes have vertical shafts. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at the inlet of the draft tube.

63. Draft tubes are situated at the outlet in____________
a) Pelton
b) Reaction
c) Kaplan
d) Francis
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. Draft tubes are not used in Pelton wheels. Draft tube is a tube that is installed in power turbines.

64. Efficiency of a draft tube is directly proportional to its __________
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Velocity
d) Density
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube gives difference of the kinetic energy between the inlet and the outlet tube losses. It is directly proportional to its velocity.

65. Z is a draft tube is _______
a) Temperature difference
b) Pressure drop
c) Kinetic energy difference
d) Datum head
Answer: d
Explanation: Height of tail race which is referenced as datum line is equal to zero. It is denoted as ‘Z’. It plays an important role to determine its efficiency.

66. Draft tube operates at ______
a) Same efficiency
b) Different efficiency
c) Turbine
d) Pump
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft Tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race and simultaneously allows it to operate at the same efficiency if it was placed at the tail race.

67. The draft tube is an ________
a) Interior tube
b) Exterior tube
c) Tank depth alternator
d) Nozzle tube
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail race of the turbine.

68. What type of pressure does the draft tube depend upon?
a) Gauge pressure
b) Atm pressure
c) Normal pressure
d) Normal and Atm pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube is mainly used to determine the gauge pressure of the turbine and pumps and is located at the inlet of the turbine.

69. Gauge pressure of the draft tube is denoted by _____
a) P
b) h
c) z
d) x
Answer: a
Explanation: Gauge pressure of the draft tube is denoted by ‘P’. It helps to determine the pressure of the fluid in the draft tube.

70. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed below the tail race.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The draft tube is placed close to the tail race. The turbine pressure head is increased by decreasing the velocity at the draft tube. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.

71. The formation of vapour cavities is called _____
a) Static pressure drop
b) Cavitation
c) Isentropic expansion
d) Emulsion
Answer: b
Explanation: The formation of vapour cavities is called cavitation. It is formed due to the presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of different layers of forces acting on them.

72. What is the degree of reaction denoted as?
a) D
b) R
c) r
d) d
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.

73. Voids are created due to ______
a) Reaction ratio
b) Pressure ratio
c) Liquid free layers
d) Volumetric layers
Answer: c
Explanation: Voids in a turbine or pump is created due to the presence of liquid free layers. It is formed due to the presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of different layers of forces acting on them.

74. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in ________
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Heat
Answer: a
Explanation: Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the overall performance.

75. Degree of reactions are most commonly used in ________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is most commonly used in turbomachinery. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.

76. At high pressure, the voids can generate ______
a) Drag force
b) Mass density
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
Answer: c
Explanation: At high pressure, the voids can generate shock waves. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the overall performance.

77. Voids that implode near metal surface develops a_______
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed

78. Internal cavitation occurs due to __________
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
Answer: c
Explanation: At high pressure, the voids can generate shock waves. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the overall performance.

79. Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate. It oscillates in a different size or shape due to some form of energy called the acoustic field.

1. Centrifugal pump is a_________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Flow regulating device
c) Drafting device
d) Intercooling device
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.

2. Turbomachines work under ________
a) Newtons first law
b) Newtons second law
c) Newtons third law
d) Kepler’s law
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbomachines work under Newtons second law. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.

3. The main function of nozzle is to __________
a) Varying temperatures
b) Pressure variations
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of nozzle is to vary the pressure of fluid passing through the nozzle. It is done by opening and shutting the sets of nozzles. Thus, its main function is to regulate pressure of the fluid.

4. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to ________
a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.

5. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______
a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.

6. Which among the following control the flow rate?
a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate of the tank is controlled by the valve. The actuation of individual valve closes. This corresponds to the set of nozzle thereby controlling the actual flow rate of the fluid passing through the valve.

7. Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while centrifugal pump transfers energy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while centrifugal pump transfers energy. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.

8. The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by ________
a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by the gate opening. The gate opening is an opening that sends only a percentage of fluid through the inlet passages for water to enter to the turbine.

9. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to transfer energy.

10. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport ________
a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery.

11. The fluid gains _________ while passing through the impeller.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Velocity and pressure
Answer: d
Explanation: The fluid gains both velocity and pressure while passing through the impeller. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors.

12. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?
a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
Answer: b
Explanation: The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped. It is made into that shape as it allows the device to scroll up and down. Due to this, the casing decelerates the flow.

13. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: a
Explanation: When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, pressure in the turbine increases. The diffuser helps this happen. The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped.

14. The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into _________
a) Pressure energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Momentum
d) Potential energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into pressure energy. It is in accordance with the Newtons second law.

15. The consequence of Newtons second law is_________
a) Conservation of angular momentum
b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular momentum. This, in accordance with newtons second law, provides the basic details to define parameters in the centrifugal pump.

16. Change of angular momentum is equal to ________
a) Sum of external moments
b) Sum of their potential energies
c) Sum of their kinetic energies
d) Sum of their pressures
Answer: a
Explanation: Change of angular momentum is equal to Sum of external moments. This is in accordance with Newtons second law. The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular momentum.

17. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal pumps.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal pumps.

18. What is a major advantage of centrifugal pump?
a) Cost
b) Simple in construction
c) Efficiency
d) Pump parameters
Answer: b
Explanation: The major advantage of the centrifugal pump is that it has got a simple construction when compared to other types of centrifugal pumps.

19. ‘Ht’ means _______
a) Tangential head
b) Horizontally head
c) Theory head pressure
d) Radially head pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Ht’ in the context of centrifugal pump means theory head pressure. It is used in a centrifugal pump equation that was derived by Euler. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal pumps.

20. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport ________
a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery.

21. What is the unit of flow rate?
a) kg.m
b) kg/m
c) m3/s
d) /s
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.

22. With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency ______
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency increases. The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.

23. Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of ___________
a) Pressure to temperature
b) Temperature to pressure
c) Water horsepower to pump horsepower
d) Pump horse power to water horse power
Answer: c
Explanation: Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of water horsepower to the pump horsepower. The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.

24. The difference in the total head of the pump is called _______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
Answer: a
Explanation: The difference in the total head of the pump is called manometric head. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors.

25. The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called _______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called Euler head. It is also called as manometric efficiency.

26. What is the unit of energy head?
a) m
b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) /s
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.

27. With the increase in energy head, efficiency ________
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in energy head, efficiency increases. Since energy is directly proportional to the efficiency of the turbine. The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.

28. The head added by the pump is a sum of _________
a) Pressure
b) Static lift
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: b
Explanation: The head added by the pump is a sum of static lift. With the increase in energy head, efficiency increases. Since energy is directly proportional to the efficiency of the turbine. The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.

29. Power is most commonly expressed as ________
a) m
b) kW
c) m3/s
d) /s
Answer: b
Explanation: Power is most commonly expressed as kilo watts. One kilo watts is equal to 0.746 horse power. It plays an important role in determining the efficiency of the turbine.

30. PHE stands for __________
a) Pump Hydraulic efficiency
b) Pressure Hydraulic efficiency
c) Power Hydraulic efficiency
d) Pump hydraulic engine
Answer: a
Explanation: PHE stands for Pump hydraulic efficiency. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies.

31. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as ________
a) Froth pumps
b) Multistage pumps
c) Cantilever pumps
d) Magnetic pumps
Answer: c
Explanation: Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. They utilize a unique shaft and bearing support for configuration. Thus, it is called as cantilever pumps.

32. Vertical pump uses _______
a) Draft tube
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Interlining
Answer: b
Explanation: Vertical pumps use throttle bush. They do not use stuffing box. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. They utilize a unique shaft and bearing support for configuration. Thus, it is called as cantilever pumps.

33. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: a
Explanation: When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, pressure in the turbine increases. The diffuser helps this happen. The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped.

34. The maximum volumetric efficiency of a pump(100cc) is ________
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.

35. The most common application of vertical centrifugal pump is used in _______
a) Parts washer
b) Mineral industry
c) Paper plating
d) Jukebox
Answer: a
Explanation: The most application of the vertical centrifugal pump is used in parts washer. Vertical pumps use throttle bush. They do not use stuffing box. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps.

36. What does BEP stand for?
a) Best efficiency point
b) Brake ejection point
c) Break effect point
d) Best effect point
Answer: a
Explanation: BEP stands for Best efficient point. It is a point at which Shut off and Run out point. It helps to identify the pumps performance.

37. The height of a column in a pump is called as _______
a) Vertical head
b) Horizontal head
c) Static head
d) Multi head
Answer: c
Explanation: In a centrifugal pump, the height of the column is called as a static head. Static head corresponds to the pressure depending on the weight.

38. The centrifugal pump has varying flow depending on the _________
a) Pressure
b) Static lift
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to pressure variations there are changes that take place in the centrifugal pump. Thus, the flow keeps varying.

39. What is purpose of froth in froth pumps?
a) Separates rich minerals
b) Mixes rich minerals
c) Removes ores
d) Detects oil
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the sand and the clays.

40. Froth contains air that blocks the pumps.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Froth contains air that blocks the pumps. The main function of the froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the sand and the clays.

41. The energy usage of a pump is determined by _______
a) Adiabatic expansion
b) Power required
c) Adiabatic compression
d) Isentropic expansion
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy usage of a pump is determined by power required. Thus, it plays an important role in determining the amount of energy that a pump dissipates during its operation. It is with respect to the length of time.

42. For an oil field to have solid control, it needs _______
a) Draft tubes
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Centrifugal pumps
Answer: d
Explanation: For an oil field to have solid control, it needs centrifugal pumps. At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. This makes it more efficient in operating a large oil field.

43. If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation ________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation decreases. This happens as the NPSH value reaches a safety margin.

44. Which among the following is not a centrifugal pump?
a) Sand pumps
b) Froth pumps
c) Slurry pumps
d) Energy pumps
Answer: d
Explanation: From the above, Energy pumps are not a type of centrifugal pump. At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus, it is not a suitable option.

45. Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their _______
a) Working
b) Functions
c) Dimensions
d) Impeller
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their functions. At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.

46. If we raise the liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation ______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: If we raise the liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation decreases. This happens as the NPSH value reaches a safety margin.

47. Magnetic coupled pumps are also called as _________
a) Series pumps
b) Parallel pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
Answer: d
Explanation: Magnetic coupled pumps are also called a magnetic drive pumps. They show a lot of difference in their traditional pumping style. It is connected by means of direct mechanical shaft.

48. Magnetic coupled pumps works via ________
a) Antiferromagnet
b) Drive magnet
c) Pump magnet
d) Ferromagnet
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetic coupled pumps works via drive magnet. Magnetic coupled pumps are also called a magnetic drive pumps. They show a lot of difference in their traditional pumping style. It is connected by means of direct mechanical shaft.

49. When we change the pump, the cavitation ______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: By changing the pump we can decrease the cavitation in the pump by bringing the NPSH value to a safety margin.

50. If we reduce the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation _______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: If we reduce the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation decreases. This can be done by setting the NPSH value in the safety limit.

51. The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots ______ required by the pump.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) NPSH
d) Velocity and pressure
Answer: c
Explanation: The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots net positive suction head required by the pump. These curves play an important role in determining the efficiency of a centrifugal pump.

52. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?
a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
Answer: b
Explanation: The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped. It is made into that shape as it allows the device to scroll up and down. Due to this, the casing decelerates the flow.

53. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
Answer: a
Explanation: When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, pressure in the turbine increases. The diffuser helps this happen. The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped.

54. Which among the following is not a characteristic curve for the centrifugal pumps?
a) Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure
b) Head vs Flow rate
c) Power input vs pump efficiency
d) Specific speed vs pump efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure is not considered as a correct characteristic curve.

55. The consequence of Newtons second law is _________
a) Conservation of angular momentum
b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular momentum. This, in accordance with newtons second law, provides the basic details to define parameters in the centrifugal pump.

56. Which of the following is taken into account during a characteristic curve?
a) Flow rate
b) Cavitation
c) Tolerances
d) Casing
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate is an important parameter that is taken into account for a characteristic curve. These curves play an important role in determining the efficiency of a centrifugal pump.

57. The normal operating range of centrifugal pump is sufficient to plot the characteristic curve.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal operating range of centrifugal pump is sufficient to plot the characteristic curve. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies.

58. The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by ________
a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by the gate opening. The gate opening is an opening that sends only a percentage of fluid through the inlet passages for water to enter to the turbine.

59. As the specific speed increases, the slope of HQ curve _______
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Independent
d) Remains the same
Answer: c
Explanation: As the specific speed increases, the slope of HQ curve increases. It becomes steeper with the corresponding increase in the specific speed.

60. The primary selection tool is called as _______
a) Pump curve
b) Speed curve
c) Power curve
d) Fluid curve
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary selection tool is called as pump curve. It plays an essential role in determining efficiency.

1. In a hydraulic lift ______ is fixed on the crown of the sliding ram where the carried load is located.
a) Cage
b) Wire rope
c) Pulleys
d) Jiggers
Answer: a
Explanation: Cage is present at the crown of the sliding ram where the carried load is placed. A cage is robust and sturdy. It will provide the required mechanical support for the carried load.

2. When fluid is subjected to _______ it is pushed into the cylindrical chamber which gives the ram gets a push in the upward direction.
a) Pressure
b) Force
c) Momentum
d) Acceleration
Answer: a
Explanation: When high pressure is applied to the fluid, it is pushed into the cylinder. This high pressure is responsible for providing the required thrust to the ram in the upward direction. As a result, the working fluid is always placed under high pressure.

3. ______ is attached to the fixed cylindrical chamber which moves in the upward or downward direction.
a) Jiggers
b) Sliding Ram
c) Crown
d) Pulley
Answer: b
Explanation: Sliding ram Is attached to the fixed cylinder. It enables the cylinder to move in the upward or downward direction. It also has a cage attached to it for mechanical robustness.

4. The two types of pulleys in a hydraulic lift are ______ and ______
a) fixed, fixed
b) movable, fixed
c) movable, movable
d) semi-movable, movable
Answer: b
Explanation: The two types of pulleys available are fixed pulley and movable pulley. The one end of both the pulleys is connected to the sliding ram. The other end of the pulleys is connected to the fixed cylinder.

5. _________ is attached to the wall of the floor, where the sliding ram moves upwards or downwards depending on how the pressure is applied.
a) Cage
b) Fixed cylinder
c) Pulleys
d) shaft
Answer: b
Explanation: The fixed cylinder is attached to the wall of the floor. It is connected to the sliding ram. This cylinder is stationary, whereas the sliding ram can reciprocate depending on how the pressure is applied.

6. Working period is defined as the ratio of the height of lift to the ___________
a) acceleration of the lift
b) pressure of the lift
c) velocity of the lift
d) displacement of the lift.
Answer: c
Explanation: The reciprocal of the ratio of the velocity of the lift to the height of the lift is defined as the working period. This implies that the ratio of the height of the lift to the velocity of the lift is the working period. The greater the working period, the lesser is the velocity of the lift and vice versa.

7. Idle period of lift is defined as the difference of the total time taken for one operation and the _____ of the lift.
a) Working period
b) Stationary period
c) Active period
d) Passive period
Answer: a
Explanation: Idle period of a lift is defined as the difference of the total time taken for a single operation and the working period of the lift. For a constant time, the greater the working period, the lesser is the idle period. The ratio of the height of the lift to the velocity of the lift is the working period.

8. Due to the arrangement of hydraulic jigger, the ________ rotates
a) Fixed cylinder
b) Sliding contact
c) Fluid
d) Pulley
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulley rotates because of the arrangement of the jiggers. The fixed cylinder, as the name suggests, is stationary. The sliding contact is only capable of translatory motion, and not rotatory. The fluid doesn’t rotate. Hence, the answer is narrowed down to pulley.

9. In a hydraulic system the development of pressure is by variable displacement pump and _____
a) stationary pump
b) fixed pump
c) gear pump
d) motor pump
Answer: c
Explanation: The two pumps in a hydraulic crane are variable displacement pump and gear pump. The most commonly used pumps in hydraulic cranes are two gear pumps. They provide the required pressure to pressurize the fluid.

10. In a hydraulic crane __________ is the component mainly responsible for lifting.
a) Boom
b) Counter-weights
c) Jib
d) Rotex Gear
Answer: a
Explanation: Boom is the main component for lifting in hydraulic cranes. It is mechanically robust and strong. It provides the adequate support needed for lifting objects. It is designed so as to withstand heavy weights.

11. ________ helps in indicating the maximum lifting limit of the crane.
a) Jib
b) Gear
c) Shaft
d) Load moment indicator
Answer: d
Explanation: Load moment indicator helps in indicating the maximum lifting limit of the crane. It is a set of lights. These lights start flashing when the maximum limit is reached, thereby indicating a precaution.

12. Out of the ________ a lattice structure called jib projects out.
a) Boom
b) Pump
c) Gear
d) Out-triggers
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of the boom, the jib projects out. It is a lattice structure that provides support to the boom. It is an essential component of the boom.

13. ________ allows the rotation of the boom.
a) Rotex gear
b) Jib
c) Motor
d) Pump
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotex gear allows the rotation of the boom. It is a very large sized gear that is placed under the cab. It provides mobility to the boom.

14. _______ restricts the crane from tipping.
a) Gear
b) Indicator
c) Counterweights3
d) Boom
Answer: c
Explanation: Counterweights restricts the crane from tipping when the lifts take place. They are multi-ton weights. They are usually positioned in the rear side of the cab.

15. The pressure generated by a counterweight gear pump is ______
a) 1200 psi
b) 1300 psi
c) 1400 psi
d) 1500 psi
Answer: c
Explanation: The pressure given out by a counterweight gear pump is 1400 psi. The counterweights are installed to restrict the crane from tipping. A hydraulic lift is used to add or remove them from their place.

16. A __________ is a hydraulic machine for converting hydraulic power at low pressure into a reduced volume at higher pressure.
a) Hydraulic Ram
b) Hydraulic crane
c) Hydraulic Intensifier
d) Hydraulic accumulator
Answer: c
Explanation: A hydraulic intensifier is a hydraulic machine for converting hydraulic power at low pressure into a reduced volume at higher pressure. The working volume of the intensifier is limited by the stroke of the piston. This in turn limits the amount of work that may be done by one stroke of the intensifier.

17. If the diameters of the two pistons used in the arrangement are different, the _______ in each cylinder will vary.
a) Hydraulic velocities
b) Hydraulic acceleration
c) Hydraulic pressure
d) Hydraulic force
Answer: c
Explanation: If the diameters of the two pistons used in the arrangement are different, the hydraulic pressure in each cylinder will vary. The hydraulic pressure in both the cylinders will change in the same ratio as their areas. The smaller piston will give rise to a higher pressure.

18. The working volume of the intensifier is restricted by the stroke of the ________
a) Piston
b) Shaft
c) Jack
d) Cylinder
Answer: a
Explanation: The working volume of the intensifier is restricted by the stroke of the piston. As a result of this the amount of work that may be done by one stroke of the intensifier is controlled. These are not reciprocating machines.

19. Intensifiers are employed as a part of machines such as ________
a) Hydraulic presses
b) Hydraulic Crane
c) Hydraulic accumulator
d) Hydraulic Ram
Answer: a
Explanation: Intensifiers are employed as part of machines such as hydraulic presses. Here, a higher pressure is required. Also,a suitable supply is made sure to be already available.

20. Small intensifiers usually have a ________ in their basic system.
a) Stepped piston
b) Stepped cylinder
c) Accumulator
d) Stepped presses
Answer: a
Explanation: Small intensifiers have been constructed with a stepped piston. It is usually a double-ended piston. It consists of two unique diameters where each end works in a different cylinder.

21. Most commonly used hydraulic intensifier for water jet cutting is _________
a) Inline hydraulic intensifier
b) Parallel hydraulic intensifier
c) Pressed hydraulic intensifier
d) Casting hydraulic intensifier
Answer: a
Explanation: Most commonly used hydraulic intensifier for water jet cutting is inline hydraulic intensifier. It is more reliable. Also, it causes the efficiency to be improved.

22. When the intensifier is placed outside its jack, it produces higher ________
a) Pressure
b) Force
c) Displacement
d) Momentum
Answer: a
Explanation: When the intensifier is placed outside its jack, it produces higher pressure. As a result, a smaller cylinder can be used to lift the same force. They are often employed with a powerful hydraulic jack.

23. A ________ is a cyclic water pump that derives its power from hydroelectric sources.
a) Hydraulic crane
b) Hydraulic Ram
c) Hydraulic Accumulator
d) Hydraulic presses
Answer: b
Explanation: A hydraulic ram is a cyclic water pump that derives its power from hydroelectric sources. It is also known as hydram. It takes in water at a particular pressure and flowrate and delivers it at higher pressure and flowrate.

24. A hydraulic ram uses the _______ effect to develop pressure.
a) Water hammer
b) Pascal’s law
c) Bernouille’s
d) Toricelli’s
Answer: a
Explanation: A hydraulic ram uses the water hammer effect to develop pressure. This effect permits a portion of the input water to power a pump. This pump is then lifted to a point higher than where the water originally started.

25. Hydraulic Ram is used in areas where there is a source of ________ power.
a) Thermal
b) Hydroelectric
c) Biogas
d) Solar
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic Ram is used in areas where there is a source of hydroelectric power. There should also be a necessity for pumping water to a destination higher in height than the source. it doesn’t need any any outside source of power than the kinetic energy of flowing water.

26. The hydraulic press is also known as _________ press.
a) Pascal
b) Toricelli
c) Bernouille
d) Bramah
Answer: d
Explanation: The hydraulic press is also known as Bramah’s press. It was invented by Joseph Bramah, from England. Hence, it was named after him.

27. The underlying principle behind a hydraulic press is based on ______ principle.
a) Bramah’s
b) Pascal’s
c) Stoke’s
d) Newton’s
Answer: b
Explanation: The underlying principle behind a hydraulic press is Pascal’s principle. It states that the pressure throughout a closed system is constant. This pressure is applied with an equal force on equal areas and at right angles to the container wall.

28. In a hydraulic press, the pump acts as a _________
a) Piston
b) Motor
c) Tubing
d) Cylinder
Answer: a
Explanation: In a hydraulic press, the pump acts as a piston. It will have a considerable mechanical force acting on a small cross-sectional area. The other part is a piston is large area which will deliver a higher mechanical force.

29. A hydraulic press makes use of a _________
a) hydraulic pump
b) hydraulic cylinder
c) hydraulic accumulator
d) hydraulic shaft
Answer: b
Explanation: A hydraulic press utilizes a hydraulic cylinder. This cylinder is used to generate a compressive force. It’s working is similar to that of a hydraulic lever.

30. In a hydraulic press, the metal can be _______
a) Crushed
b) Straightened
c) Molded
d) Crushes, straightened and molded
Answer: d
Explanation: The metallic material placed in a hydraulic press can be crushed, straightened and molded. These are some of the crucial features of a hydraulic press. It consists of a bed or plate on which this metal is placed for the action to take place.

31. The cylinder with the smaller diameter Is called _________
a) Slave cylinder
b) Master cylinder
c) Working cylinder
d) Casting Cylinder
Answer: a
Explanation: The cylinder with the smaller diameter is called the slave cylinder. The hydraulic press consists of 2 cylinders. These are classified as master and slave cylinder depending on their diameters.

32. A ________ is the main essence of a car crushing system.
a) hydraulic press
b) hydraulic cylinder
c) hydraulic crane
d) accumulator
Answer: a
Explanation: The main essence of a car crushing system is a hydraulic press. In this process, a hydraulic motor applies a large pressure on the fluids into the cylinders. The fluid pressure makes the plates rise and with a large force, the plate is driven on the car thereby crushing it.

33. The cylinder having the larger diameter is called _______ cylinder.
a) Slave
b) Master
c) Cage
d) Pump
Answer: b
Explanation: The cylinder with the larger diameter is called the master cylinder. The hydraulic press consists of 2 cylinders. These are classified as master and slave cylinder depending on their diameters.

34. A ________ is a storage reservoir under pressure where a liquid is held under pressure.
a) Hydraulic accumulator
b) Hydraulic crane
c) Hydraulic gear
d) Hydraulic pump
Answer: a
Explanation: A hydraulic accumulator is a storage reservoir under pressure where a liquid is stored under pressure. The fluid is mostly a non-compressible hydraulic fluid. This pressure is usually applied by an external source.

35. The most frequently used accumulator type is ________
a) Liquid accumulator
b) Solid accumulator
c) Compressed gas accumulator
d) Plasma accumulator
Answer: c
Explanation: The most common accumulator type is compressed gas accumulator. It Is also known as hydro-pneumatic accumulator. They have a wide range of application.

1. The flow characteristics of a channel does not change with time at any point. What type of flow is it?
a) Steady flow
b) Uniform flow
c) Laminar flow
d) Turbulent flow
Answer: a
Explanation: The flow characteristics unchanged with time is a steady flow, characteristics unchanged with space is a uniform flow. Laminar and turbulent flows are classified with reference to Reynolds number.

2. The Reynolds number for a flow in a channel is 1000. What type of flow is it?
a) Laminar
b) Turbulent
c) Transition
d) Steady
Answer: c
Explanation: Reynolds number – 500 to 600 – Laminar flow
Reynolds number – 500 to 2000 – Transition
Reynolds number – > 2000 – Turbulent flow.

3. The ratio of inertia force and gravitational force is called as ______
a) Reynolds number
b) Stokes number
c) Froude’s number
d) Euler’s number
Answer: c
Explanation: Froude’s number is the ratio of inertia forces and gravitational forces. Froude’s number is used to classify the flow into critical, sub critical and super critical.

4. The Froude’s number for a flow in a channel section is 1. What type of flow is it?
a) Sub Critical
b) Critical
c) Supercritical
d) Tranquil
Answer: b
Explanation: Froude’s number = 1 – Critical flow
Froude’s number < 1 – Sub Critical flow
Froude’s number > – Super Critical flow.

5. What is Froude’s number for a channel having mean velocity 4.34 m/s and mean hydraulic depth of 3m?
a) 0.4m
b) 0.6m
c) 0.7m
d) 0.8m
Answer: d
Explanation: Froude’s number (Fr) = V/ (gD2)
= 4.34/ (9.81) (32)
= 0.8m.

6. Calculate the mean hydraulic radius for a channel having 20m2 cross sectional area and 50m of wetted perimeter.
a) 0.4m
b) 0.5m
c) 0.6m
d) 0.7m
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic Radius(R) = A/P
= 20/50
= 0.4m.

7. Calculate the mean hydraulic depth of a channel having top width of 7m and cross sectional area of 35m2.
a) 4m
b) 5m
c) 6m
d) 7m
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic depth (D) = A/T
= 35/7
= 5m.

8. Estimate the section factor for a channel section having cross sectional area of 40m2 and hydraulic depth of 6m.
a) 94.3
b) 95.6
c) 97.9
d) 100
Answer: c
Explanation: Section factor (Z) = A√D
= 40√6
= 97.9.

9. Calculate the Froude’s number for a channel having discharge of 261.03m3/s, cross sectional area of 42m2 and the top width being 6m.
a) 0.65
b) 0.72
c) 0.38
d) 0.75
Answer: d
Explanation: Fr= V⁄√gD
V = Q/A
V = 261.03/42 = 6.215 m/s
D = A/T = 42/6 = 7m
Fr = 0.75 (Subcritical).

10. Calculate the aspect ratio having channel width of 6m and depth of 8m.
a) 0.75m
b) 1.33m
c) 1.50m
d) 1.68m
Answer: b
Explanation: Aspect ratio = Depth / width
= 8/6 = 1.33m.

11. Estimate the type of flow in a channel having cross sectional area of 50m2 and top of the channel is 5m. The mean velocity of flow is 0.1m/s and the absolute viscosity of water is 0.625 N-s/m2.
a) Laminar
b) Turbulent
c) Transition
d) Steady
Answer: c
Explanation: Reynolds number (Re)=1000VD/µ
Re = 1000(0.1) (D)/ 0.625
D = A/T = 50/5 = 10 m
Re = 1000(0.1) (10)/ 0.625
= 1600
Transition flow (500 – 2000).

12. A surface profile is a measure of _______
a) Temperature changes
b) Pressure changes
c) Flow changes
d) Volumetric changes
Answer: c
Explanation: Surface profile is a measure of flow changes that are developed in the fluid body. It is developed longitudinally. Thus, the reason for the surface profile is due to flow changes in the system.

13. The surface profile is classified into normal depth and critical depth.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Surface profile is a measure of flow changes that are developed in the fluid body. It is developed longitudinally. It is divided into normal depth and critical depth. Thus, the answer is true.

14. What is the condition for a normal depth?
a) Water depth remains a constant
b) Temperature of fluid remains a constant
c) Pressure of fluid remains a constant
d) Isentropic and adiabatic flow
Answer: a
Explanation: Normal depth is a depth of flow in the channel. It is created when the slope of the water surface and channel bottom is the same and the water depth remains the same throughout the entire flow.

15. When gravitational force is equal to the friction drag, what type of depth is formed?
a) Critical depth
b) Normal depth
c) Cylindrical depth
d) Conical depth
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal depth is a depth of flow in the channel. It is created when the slope of the water surface and channel bottom is the same and the water depth remains the same throughout the entire flow. It is formed when gravitational force is equal to the friction drag.

16. When the depth is normal, which parameter is zero?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Acceleration
Answer: d
Explanation: Normal depth is a depth of flow in the channel. It is created when the slope of the water surface and channel bottom is the same and the water depth remains the same throughout the entire flow. During a normal formation of a normal depth, there is no acceleration of flow.

17. Which among the following is the Manning’s equation?
a) Q = A/v
b) Q = vA
c) Q = v+A
d) Q = v-A
Answer: b
Explanation: Manning’s equation is one of the most commonly used equations governing the open channel glow. It is an alternative to the Chezy’s equation. It is an empirical equation that applies to uniform flow in open channels.

18. Manning’s equation is not used to calculate_________
a) Normal depth
b) Roughness
c) Critical depth
d) Hydraulic radius
Answer: c
Explanation: Manning’s equation is an empirical equation that applies to uniform flow in open channels. Manning’s equation is used to calculate normal depth, roughness, wetted area and the hydraulic radius.

19. When the energy is at minimum for flow discharge, it is called _________
a) Normal depth
b) Roughness
c) Critical depth
d) Hydraulic radius
Answer: c
Explanation: Critical depth is defined as the depth at which the energy is at minimum for flow discharge. The flow of profile is classified into three zones for a better understanding. Thus, The correct answer is Critical depth.

20. Normal depth occurs only for a uniform and steady flow.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Normal depth occurs only for a uniform and steady flow. Normal depth is a depth of flow in the channel. It is created when the slope of the water surface and channel bottom is the same and the water depth remains the same throughout the entire flow.

21. Subcritical depth occurs when_________
a) Actual water depth > Critical depth
b) Actual water depth < Critical depth
c) Actual water depth = Critical depth
d) They are independent
Answer: a
Explanation: Subcritical depth occurs when actual water depth is greater than the critical depth. It is dominated by gravitational forces and behaves in a slow and stable way.

22. During a subcritical flow, what is value of Froude’s number?
a) Zero
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) Not defined
Answer: c
Explanation: Subcritical depth occurs when actual water depth is greater than the critical depth. It is dominated by gravitational forces and behaves in a slow and stable way. The Froude’s number is less than one during a subcritical flow.

23. Supercritical depth occurs when_________
a) Inertial forces behave as unstable flow
b) Roughness is high
c) Critical depth increases
d) Hydraulic radius expands
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercritical depth occurs when the inertial forces behaves as a rapid and an unstable flow. Supercritical flow transition to subcritical flow takes place through a hydraulic jump due to high energy loss.

24. During a supercritical flow, what is value of Froude’s number?
a) Zero
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) Not defined
Answer: b
Explanation: Supercritical depth occurs when the inertial forces behaves as a rapid and an unstable flow. Supercritical flow transition to subcritical flow takes place through a hydraulic jump due to high energy loss. It has a Froude number greater than one.

25. During a critical flow, what is value of Froude’s number
a) Zero
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) Equal to one
Answer: d
Explanation: Critical flow is a flow in which the control flow possesses the minimum possible energy for a particular flow rate. Critical flow has a Froude’s number equal to one.

26. For a channel to be economic which of the following parameters should be minimum.
a) Wetted perimeter
b) Wetted area
c) Section factor
d) Hydraulic depth
Answer: a
Explanation: If the wetted perimeter is minimum, amount of materials required for construction of the channel is less and hence the channel is more economical.

27. The base width of a most economical rectangular channel is 8m, calculate the hydraulic radius of the channel,
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m
Answer: d
Explanation: B = 2y; y = 4m
R = y/2 = 2m.

28. Calculate the section factor for the most economical rectangular section having a depth of 4m.
a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 256
Answer: b
Explanation: Z = A√D = 2y2 √y = 2y5/2
Z = 64.

1. Hydraulic jump is observed in _______
a) Closed channel flow
b) Open channel flow
c) Flow changes
d) Volumetric changes
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic pump is a phenomenon in science that deals with hydraulics. It is observed in an open channel flow. Some of the examples of open channel flows are rivers and spillways.

2. Hydraulic jump depends upon
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Initial fluid speed
d) Volumetric changes
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic pump is a phenomenon in science that deals with hydraulics. It is observed in an open channel flow. It depends on the initial speed of the fluid. Thus, option Initial fluid speed is the correct answer.

3. In which case is the hydraulic jump not possible?
a) Initial speed > critical speed
b) Initial speed < critical speed
c) Initial speed = critical speed
d) Independent
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. The transition appears as an undulating wave. With the increase in the initial flow, the transition becomes abrupt.

4. Open channel flow takes place _______
a) On a free surface
b) In the pipe
c) Within a cylindrical depth
d) In a pump
Answer: a
Explanation: Open channel flow is a flow that deals with hydraulics in fluid mechanics. It is a type of liquid flow that flows through a free surface. This free surface is called as a channel. And since the channel is free, it is called as an open channel flow.

5. When the hydraulic jump is in a moving form it is called _________
a) Negative surge
b) Positive surge
c) Turbulent surge
d) Accelerated surge
Answer: b
Explanation: When the hydraulic jump is dynamic or in a moving form it is called as positive surge. Hydraulic jump can be stationery or dynamic. Hydraulic jump can be described using the same analytical approaches.

6. Fluid speed before the hydraulic jump is ________
a) Critical
b) Supercritical
c) Subcritical
d) Dynamic
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid speed before the hydraulic jump is supercritical. It is said to be supercritical because it is faster than the wave speed. It is also called as shooting speed or superundal.

7. Fluid height before the hydraulic jump is ________
a) Normal
b) Low
c) High
d) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. The transition appears as an undulating wave. Fluid height before the hydraulic jump is low.

8. Fluid height after the hydraulic jump is ________
a) Normal
b) Low
c) High
d) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. The transition appears as an undulating wave. Fluid height after the hydraulic jump is high.

9. Fluid flow before the hydraulic jump is ______
a) Normal
b) Rough
c) Smooth
d) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. Fluid flow before the hydraulic jump is typically smooth turbulent flow.

10. Fluid flow after the hydraulic jump is ______
a) Normal
b) Rough
c) Smooth
d) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. Fluid flow after the hydraulic jump is typically rough and choppy turbulent flow.

11. During a subcritical flow, what is the value of Froude’s number?
a) Zero
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) Not defined
Answer: c
Explanation: Subcritical depth occurs when actual water depth is greater than the critical depth. It is dominated by gravitational forces and behaves in a slow and stable way. The Froude’s number is less than one during a subcritical flow.

12. Which hydraulic jump occurs in our sink?
a) Inertial forces hydraulic jump
b) Shallow fluid hydraulic jump
c) Critical depth jump
d) Hydraulic radius expands
Answer: b
Explanation: Shallow fluid hydraulic jump takes place during a hydraulic jump that is created in our sink. It will undergo a smooth flow during the hydraulic jump as the flow is shallow.

13. Which of the following provides the third principle in fluid mechanics?
a) Conservation of mass
b) Conservation of linear momentum
c) Conservation of Heat
d) Conservation of volume
Answer: b
Explanation: In fluid mechanics, the third principle is given by the conservation of linear momentum. It is in addition to the continuity of mass and conservation of energy. They are mostly seen in channel flow problems.

14. Momentum principle states that all the forces acting in the system result in a change in momentum.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Momentum principle states that all the forces acting in the system result a change in momentum. It is in addition to the continuity of mass and conservation of energy. Thus, the correct option is “true”.

15. Which among the following is not a force that acts in the downstream of the fluid flow?
a) Pressure
b) Weight
c) Friction
d) Gravity
Answer: c
Explanation: Frictional force is a force that does not act in the downstream of the fluid flow. Friction acts in the upstream direction, as friction always opposes the flow of fluid through a stream developing a viscous flow.

16. Which of the following is present in pipe flow?
a) Viscous force
b) Inertial force
c) Gravity force
d) Pressure force
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure is a force that is applied perpendicular to the surface of an object over a unit area of force. It is defined as the product of pressure intensity and cross-sectional area of the flowing fluid. Pressure force is present in the case of pipe flow.

17. What is momentum?
a) Mass * acceleration
b) Mass * Volume
c) Mass flow rate * velocity
d) Mass flow rate* density
Answer: c
Explanation: Momentum is an expression that is made up of two main functions. These two terms play a significance role in determining the function. The two terms are mass flow rate and velocity. Thus, the final formula is mass flow rate * velocity.

18. A force that is needed to bring back the body to its original position is called as?
a) Viscous force
b) Elastic force
c) Gravity force
d) Pressure force
Answer: c
Explanation: Elastic force is the force that brings a body back to its original position. It is defined as the product of elastic stress and the area of the flowing fluid.

19. What is a specific force denoted as?
a) N
b) F
c) M
d) S
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific force is defined as the force that is expressed in terms of its momentum. It is the momentum of flow passing through a channel of cross section per unit time per unit weight and a second is a force per unit weight. This sum is called the specific force.

20. Energy is not conserved throughout the pipe.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. Though momentum is conserved throughout the hydraulic jump, energy is not conserved.

21. Specific force is __________ to mass flow rate.
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Independent
d) Not proportional
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific force is directly proportional to the mass flow rate. Specific force is defined as the force that is expressed in terms of it momentum. It is the momentum of flow passing through a channel of cross section per unit time per unit weight and a second is the force per unit weight.

22. Specific force is __________ to cross sectional area.
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Independent
d) Not proportional
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific force is inversely proportional to the mass flow rate. Specific force is defined as the force that is expressed in terms of it momentum. It is the momentum of flow passing through a channel of cross section per unit time per unit weight and a second is the force per unit weight.

23. Which of the following assumptions about a GVF is false?
a) Channel is prismatic
b) Pressure distribution is hydrostatic
c) Flow characteristics change with time
d) Roughness co efficient is constant
Answer: c
Explanation: In a GVF, the flow is steady and hence the flow characteristics does not change with time.

24. What is energy per unit head of water called as __________
a) Total energy
b) Specific energy
c) Velocity head
d) Datum head
Answer: a
Explanation: Total Energy = Pressure head + Velocity head + Datum head
Hence energy per unit head is called as total energy.

25. What is the plot between Total energy and channel position called as?
a) Specific grade line
b) Energy grade line
c) Datum line
d) Velocity line
Answer: b
Explanation: The graph between total energy and channel position gives the distribution of energy along the channel and hence the plot is called energy grade line.

26. Which of the following conditions is not true for an uniform flow?
a) y1 = y2
b) S0 = Sf
c) Z1 = Z2
d) V1 = V2
Answer: c
Explanation: In a uniform flow through a channel the depth, slopes and the velocity of flow remains constant throughout the channel but the datum head may or may not be the same.

27. Energy per unit weight of water measured with respect to the datum is called as _______
a) Total energy
b) Specific energy
c) Velocity head
d) Datum head
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific energy is the energy constant throughout the channel and is estimated with respect to the datum.

28. Hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is also called _________
a) Closed channel jump
b) Open channel jump
c) Rectangular jump
d) Shallow fluid jump
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic pump is a phenomenon in science that deals with hydraulics. It is observed in an open channel flow. When it occurs in a rectangular channel. It is known as classical jump. It is a natural phenomenon.

29. Classical jump occurs when________
a) Temperature changes
b) Pressure changes
c) Supercritical to subcritical change
d) Volumetric changes
Answer: c
Explanation: Classical jump is a phenomenon in science that deals with hydraulics. It is observed in an open channel flow. It depends on the initial speed of the fluid. Classical jump occurs due to the change from supercritical to subcritical condition.

30. Which among the following is not the purpose of a hydraulic jump?
a) Mix chemicals
b) Dissipate heat
c) Increasing temperature and pressure
d) Aeration device
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. This transition leads to mixing of chemicals, dissipating heat and used in aeration devices.

31. How do we produce equations describing the jump?
a) Conserving the momentum
b) Conserving the mass
c) Conserving the pressure
d) Conserving the heat
Answer: a
Explanation: In a hydraulic jump, the equations are produced by conservation of the momentum. It is mainly used to apply in equations that have unknown energy losses. Thus, we must develop the equation for a better understanding.

32. An example of common hydraulic jump is________
a) Surge tank
b) Pump
c) Sink
d) Air cooler
Answer: c
Explanation: An example of a common hydraulic jump is a sink. It is used in our day to day life. This sort of jump can be used to form a circular, stationary wave and the inflow of water. Thus, the correct option is Sink.

33. Fluid speed before the hydraulic jump is ________
a) Coagulation chamber
b) Pump
c) Sink
d) Air cooler
Answer: a
Explanation: Fluid speed before the hydraulic jump is a coagulation chamber. The hydraulic jumps made by man have primary focuses. The primary focus that scientists have been focussing on is viscosity.

34. Give an example of man-made hydraulic jumps?
a) Normal
b) Low
c) High
d) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. The transition appears as an undulating wave. Fluid height before the hydraulic jump is low.

35. Energy is not conserved throughout the hydraulic jump.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. Though momentum is conserved throughout the hydraulic jump, energy is not conserved.

36. Length of a hydraulic pump is often difficult to measure due to _________
a) Changes in turbulence
b) Temperature changes
c) Pressure changes
d) Volumetric changes
Answer: a
Explanation: Length of a hydraulic pump is often difficult to measure due to investigations that occur due to sudden changes in turbulence. The length of the hydraulic pump plays an important role in setting up the basins.

37. Height of the hydraulic is similar to its length and is used to know the design of water structures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is not possible when the initial speed is less than the critical speed. There is a transition that is created during the change. Height of the hydraulic is similar to its length and is used to know the design of water structures.

38. During a subcritical flow, what is value of Froude’s number?
a) Zero
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) Not defined
Answer: c
Explanation: Sub critical depth occurs when actual water depth is greater than the critical depth. It is dominated by gravitational forces and behaves in a slow and stable way. The Froude’s number is less than one during a subcritical flow.

39. During a weak jump, the value of Froude lies in between________
a) 1 to 2.5
b) 2.5 to 3.5
c) Less than 1
d) Zero
Answer: a
Explanation: Weak jump is a jump that takes place, when the Froude’s number lies in between 1 to 2.5. The surfaces that result due to weak jump have a very little energy dissipated.

40. During an oscillating jump, the value of Froude lies in between________
a) 1 to 2.5
b) 2.5 to 4.5
c) Less than 1
d) Zero
Answer: a
Explanation: An oscillating jump is a jump that takes place when the Froude’s number is in between 2.5 to 4.5. During this jump, the jet water at the entrance of the jump fluctuates. It fluctuates from the bottom of the channel to the top of the channel.

41. During a steady jump, the value of Froude lies in between________
a) 1 to 2.5
b) 2.5 to 4.5
c) Less than 1
d) 4.5 to 9
Answer: d
Explanation: A steady jump is a jump that takes place when the Froude’s number is in between 4.5 to 9. In this jump the turbulence is confined within the jump and the location of the jump is susceptible to downstream flow.

42. During a strong jump, the value of Froude lies in between________
a) 1 to 2.5
b) Greater than 9
c) Less than 1
d) 4.5 to 9
Answer: b
Explanation: A strong jump is a jump that takes place when the Froude’s number is greater 9. In this jump, there is a large difference in the conjugate depths. They are characterised by different jump actions that result in a high energy dissipation.