1. Tensile test can be performed on _____________
a) Impact testing machine
b) Universal testing machine
c) Rockwell tester
d) Brinell tester
Answer: b
Explanation: Tensile testing, also known as tension testing, is a fundamental material science test in which a sample is subjected to a controlled tension until failure.

2. Which machine records the change in length of specimen?
a) Impact testing machine
b) Universal testing machine
c) Rockwell tester
d) Brinell tester
Answer: b
Explanation: A universal testing machine (UTM), also known as a universal tester, materials testing machine or materials test frame, is used to test the tensile strength and compressive strength of materials.

3. The ability of the material to resist stress without failure is called ________________
a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Stiffness
d) Toughness
Answer: a
Explanation: The ability of the material to resist stress without failure is called as strength.

4. In universal testing machine, for a circular section specimen, the gauge length is taken to be ______________
a) 3.65 √A
b) 4.65 √A
c) 5.65 √A
d) 6.65 √A where A is the area of cross section of the specimen
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the formula to find the gauge length when we have the area of the specimen.

5. The shape of specimen used in compression test is Cube and cylinder.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The shape of specimen used in compression test is Cube and cylinder.

6. During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the _____________
a) Diagonal
b) Surface parallel to load applied
c) Surface perpendicular to load applied
d) Lateral
Answer: a
Explanation: During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the diagonal.

7. The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or scratching is known as ___________
a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Stiffness
d) Toughness
Answer: b
Explanation: The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or scratching is known as hardness.

8. The indenter used in Brinell hardness test is a ____________
a) Ball
b) Cone
c) Cylinder
d) Pyramid
Answer: b
Explanation: The Brinell method applies a predetermined test load (F) to a carbide ball of fixed diameter (D) which is held for a predetermined time period and then removed.

9. For hardness test of copper in Brinell hardness tester, the diameter of ball is ___________
a) 7mm
b) 1mm
c) 5mm
d) 3mm
Answer: c
Explanation: ASTM E-10 is a standard test for determining the Brinell hardness of metallic materials. The load applied in this test is usually 3,000, 1,500, or 500 kgf, so that the diameter of the indentation is 5 mm.

10. In charpy test specimen, the angle of v-notch section is ____________
a) 30 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
Answer: b
Explanation: In charpy test specimen, the angle of v-notch section is 45 degrees and 0.25mm radius along the base.

11. The slump would not exceed 50 mm when compacting concrete with vibrators.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Segregation means concrete cement slurry & fine aggregates &coarse aggregate collapsed & have no slump & after hardening no strength but workability is the checking the concrete how much time used after mixing.

12. When vibrators are used for compaction, the consistency of concrete depends upon the ___________
a) Type of mix
b) Efficiency of vibrator
c) Placing conditions
d) Type of mix, efficiency of vibrator, pacing conditions
Answer: d
Explanation: When vibrators are used for compaction, the consistency of concrete depends upon the Type of mix, efficiency of vibrator, pacing conditions.

13. Which of the following statement is correct while compacting concrete with vibrators?
a) The vibrator should be inserted horizontally
b) The vibrator should not be immersed through a full depth of freshly laid concrete
c) The vibrator should not touch the form surface
d) The vibrator should touch the form surface
Answer: c
Explanation: If there is a considerable amount of time lapse between the placements of subsequent lifts, it may be necessary to re vibrate the previous lift prior to placing additional concrete to minimize the potential for pour lines and cold joints.

14. The levelling operation that removes humps and hollows and give a true, uniform concrete surface is called ____________
a) Screeding
b) Floating
c) Troweling
d) Compacting
Answer: a
Explanation: The levelling operation that removes humps and hollows and give a true, uniform concrete surface is called Screeding.

15. The final operation of finishing the concrete surface is called _____________
a) Screeding
b) Floating
c) Troweling
d) Compacting
Answer: c
Explanation: The final operation of finishing the concrete surface is called Troweling.

16. The process of removing the irregularities from the surface of concrete left after screeding is called floating.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of removing the irregularities from the surface of concrete left after screeding is called floating.

17. The process of hardening the concrete mixes by keeping its surface moist for a certain period is called ____________
a) Curing
b) Floating
c) Troweling
d) Compacting
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of hardening the concrete mixes by keeping its surface moist for a certain period is called curing.

18. After the curing of 28 days, the concrete gains strength upto _____________
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%
Answer: d
Explanation: After the curing of 28 days, the concrete gains strength upto 100 percentage.

19. The construction joints in cement concrete ___________
a) Should be located where bending moment is large
b) Should be located where shear force is large
c) Should not be provided at the corners
d) Should be spaced at a distance of 3 m apart in case of huge structures
Answer: c
Explanation: The construction joints in cement concrete should not be provided at the corners.

20. For compacting large sections of mass concrete in structures, the type of vibrator used is ________________
a) Internal vibrator
b) External vibrator
c) Screed vibrator
d) Internal and Screed vibrator
Answer: a
Explanation: For compacting large sections of mass concrete in structures, the type of vibrator used is internal vibrator.

21. What is flexural strength?
a) The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
b) The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
c) The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n
d) Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture is called flexural strength.

22. What is equivalent flexural load?
a) The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
b) The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
c) The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n
d) Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength
Answer: c
Explanation: The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n is equivalent flexural load.

23. What is equivalent flexural strength?
a) The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
b) The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
c) The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n
d) Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture is called equivalent flexural strength.

24. What is the equivalent flexural strength ratio?
a) The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
b) The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture
c) The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n
d) Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength
Answer: d
Explanation: Equivalent flexural strength ratio is Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength.

25. Calipers, capable of reading the dimensions of test specimens to an accuracy of ____________
a) 1mm
b) .1mm
c) 10mm
d) .5mm
Answer: b
Explanation: Calipers, capable of reading the dimensions of test specimens to an accuracy of 0.1 mm.

26. Rule (ruler/scale), capable of reading the dimensions of test specimens to an accuracy of ________
a) 1mm
b) .1mm
c) 10mm
d) .5mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Rule (ruler/scale), capable of reading the dimensions of test specimens to an accuracy of 1 mm.

27. Load measuring device shall be capable of measuring loads to an accuracy of ___________
a) 1N
b) 10N
c) 1KN
d) 10KN
Answer: b
Explanation: Load measuring device shall be capable of measuring loads to an accuracy of 10N.

28. The tolerances on the cross-section of the test specimens shall be within ± ____________
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 5%
Answer: b
Explanation: The tolerances on the cross-section of the test specimens shall be within ± 2%.

29. The flexural strength (or modulus of rupture) is obtained for the first peak load, Pmax as _______________
a) Pmax * L/bd2
b) Pmax/Ld2
c) Pmax * L/bd
d) Pmax/L/bd2
Answer: a
Explanation: It should be noted that the value obtained may be significantly different from that obtained in a conventional test carried out under load control, where the specimen fails at the peak load.

30. A data acquisition system capable of digitally recording and storing load and deflection data at least ___________
a) 1 times per sec
b) 5 times per sec
c) 10 times per sec
d) 15 times per sec
Answer: c
Explanation: A data acquisition system capable of digitally recording and storing load and deflection data at least 10 times per second (i.e., a sampling frequency of 10 Hz is suitable.

31. Which among the following is not a type of Non-destructive testing?
a) Compression test
b) Visual testing
c) Ultrasonic testing
d) Eddy current testing
Answer: a
Explanation: Compression test is a type of destructive testing. This test is used to determine behavior of metals under compressive load. Visual testing, ultrasonic testing, eddy current testing are types of non-destructive testing.

32. Identify the type of destructive testing ______________
a) Radiographic test
b) Dye penetrant test
c) Creep test
d) Visual testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Creep test is a type of destructive test. It is defined as slow plastic deformation at high temperatures for a longer time under constant stresses. Creep occurs at room temperature and at high temperatures.

33. Which of the following is the last step in magnetic particle test method?
a) Observation and inspection
b) Circular magnetization
c) Demagnetization
d) Magnetization
Answer: c
Explanation: Different steps involved in magnetic particle test are cleaning the surface, magnetizing the metallic component, application of ferromagnetic powder, observation and inspection and demagnetization.

34. Which of the following statements is/are true for the ultrasonic test?
a) Equipment used for ultrasonic testing is portable
b) Complicated shapes can be easily scanned
c) Waves generated are health hazardous
d) Waves generated are health hazardous and complicated shapes can be easily scanned
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic test uses sound waves of high frequency to detect discontinuities. This method is used to detect flaws on the surface and also deep inside the component. The waves travel in straight line and are reflected from metal gas interface or discontinuities in their patch.

35. Which test can be performed without skilled labour?
a) Probe test
b) Bend liquid test
c) Dye penetrant test
d) Torsion test
Answer: c
Explanation: Dye penetrant test does not require any skilled labour. This method only detects surface discontinuities and this test needs to be observed with naked eyes or with a low magnifying glass.

36. What is non-destructive test?
a) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their usefulness
b) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing
c) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials with impairing their usefulness
d) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that do not impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing
Answer: a
Explanation: Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their usefulness.

37. What is a destructive test?
a) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their usefulness
b) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing
c) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials with impairing their usefulness
d) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that do not impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of materials such as pressure testing.

38. An ultrasonic pulse velocity test is an _____________
a) Ex-situ, nondestructive test
b) In-situ, nondestructive test
c) Ex-situ, destructive test
d) In-situ, destructive test
Answer: b
Explanation: An ultrasonic pulse velocity test is an in-situ, nondestructive test to check the quality of concrete and natural rocks.

39. In this test, the strength and quality of concrete or rock is assessed by measuring the ___ of an ultrasonic pulse.
a) Length
b) Velocity
c) Weight
d) Surface Tension
Answer: b
Explanation: In this test, the strength and quality of concrete or rock is assessed by measuring the velocity of an ultrasonic pulse passing through a concrete structure or natural rock formation.

40. Higher velocities indicate __________
a) Good quality and continuity of the material
b) Bad quality and continuity of the material
c) Concrete with many cracks
d) Concrete with many voids
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher velocities indicate good quality and continuity of the material, while slower velocities may indicate concrete with many cracks or voids.

41. Slower velocities may indicate ___________
a) Good quality and continuity of the material
b) Good quality and discontinuity of the material
c) Bad quality and continuity of the material
d) Concrete with many voids
Answer: d
Explanation: Slower velocities may indicate concrete with many cracks or voids, while higher velocities indicate good quality and continuity of the material.

42. Mechanical pulse having an oscillation frequency in range of `_____________
a) 30 kHz to 40 kHz
b) 40 kHz to 50 kHz
c) 50 kHz to 60 kHz
d) 60 kHz to 70 kHz
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical pulse having an oscillation frequency in range of 40000 Hz to 50000 Hz.

43. The number of cylces per second is the definition of ____________
a) Wave speed
b) Frequency
c) Hertz
d) Velocity
Answer: c
Explanation: One hertz (Hz) stands for one cycle per second and it is the SI unit of frequency. Velocity means displacement covered per second.

44. A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be caused by the splashing, surging, interrupted pouring is ___________
a) Burst
b) Cold shut
c) Flaking
d) Blow hole
Answer: b
Explanation: A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be caused by the splashing, surging, interrupted pouring, or the meeting of two streams of metal coming from different directions is called cold shut.

45. When the motion of the particles of a medium are at right angles to the direction of wave motion, the wave being transmitted is called a ___________
a) Longitudinal wave
b) Shear wave
c) Surface wave
d) Lamb wave
Answer: a
Explanation: When the motion of the particles of a medium are at right angles to the direction of wave motion, the wave being transmitted is called a longitudinal wave.

46. A second name for compression wave is __________
a) Longitudinal wave
b) Shear wave
c) Surface wave
d) Lamb wave
Answer: d
Explanation: Lamb waves are similar to longitudinal waves, with compression and rarefaction, but they are bounded by the sheet or plate surface causing a wave-guide effect.

47. The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the ______________
a) Fresnel zone
b) Acoustic impedance
c) Exponential field
d) Phasing zone
Answer: a
Explanation: Radio frequency line of sight is defined by Fresnel Zones which are ellipse shaped areas between any two radios.

1. The breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete is called ________
a) Workability
b) Segregation
c) Bleeding
d) Creep
Answer: b
Explanation: Segregation in concrete is commonly thought as separation of some size groups of aggregates from cement mortar in isolated locations with corresponding deficiencies of these materials in other locations.

2. The separation of water or water-cement mixture from the freshly mixed concrete is known as bleeding.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The separation of water or water-cement mixture from the freshly mixed concrete is known as bleeding.

3. The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads, is called __________
a) Workability
b) Segregation
c) Bleeding
d) Creep
Answer: d
Explanation: The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads, is called creep.

4. Harshness in concrete is due to the excess of _____________
a) Water
b) Finer particles
c) Middle sized particle
d) Coarser particle
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the rough finishing property of concrete and causes improper proportioning, less compaction, low water content, excess of medium sized aggregates, deficiency of sand etc.

5. In order to avoid segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to avoid segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height of 100 cm.

6. Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking __________
a) Tensile and compressive stresses
b) Compressive and shear stresses
c) Tensile, compressive and shear stresses
d) Tensile and shear stresses
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 456:2000, Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking Tensile, compressive and shear stresses.

7. Plain cement concrete is strong in taking ___________
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Tensile, compressive and shear stresses
Answer: b
Explanation: Plain cement concrete is strong in taking compressive stress and week in tensile stress.

8. How many types of sulphates attack occur in concrete?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of sulphates attack in concrete and mortar i.e., internal attack and external attack.

9. What is an internal sulphates attack?
a) Sulphate are more usually are a result of high-sulphate soils
b) Sulphate are more usually are a result of ground water
c) Industrial waste water
d) Hydraulic cements
Answer: d
Explanation: Internal sulphates attack are rarer but originates from such concrete-making materials.

10. What is internal sulphates attack?
a) Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates
b) Soil may contain excess of gypsum
c) Sulphate are more usually are a result of ground water
d) Industrial waste water
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal sulphates attack are rarer but originate from such concrete-making materials like Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates.

11. What is an external sulphates attack?
a) Industrial waste water
b) Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates
c) Hydraulic cements
d) Portland cement might be over-sulphated
Answer: a
Explanation: External sources of sulphate are very common and are usually are a result of high-sulphate soils and ground waters or can be result into industrial pollution.

12. Fly ash affects the sulphate attack.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The addition of a pozzolanic admixture e.g. fly ash. It reduces the C3A content of cement which cause sulphates attack.

13. Low w/c ratio helps to control suphate attack.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Low water cement ratio directly cause low permeability which is the best protection towards sulphate attack.

14. Durability of concrete is proportional to _________
a) Sand content
b) Water cement ratio
c) Aggregate ratio
d) Cement aggregate ratio
Answer: d
Explanation: Volume chances due to difference in thermal properties of the aggregates and cement paste.

15. Strength of concrete show an increase with _________
a) Decrease in rate of loading
b) Increase in rate of loading
c) Unaffected by rate of loading
d) Depends on application of load
Answer: b
Explanation: Strength of concrete is directly proportional to the nature of the loading.

16. Strength of concrete is proportional to ______________
a) Sand content
b) Water cement ratio
c) Aggregate ratio
d) Cement water ratio
Answer: d
Explanation: Strength of concrete is proportional to Cement water ratio and inversely proportional to w/c ratio.

17. Strength of concrete increase with _____________
a) Increase with w/c ratio
b) Decrease with w/c ratio
c) Decrease in size of aggregates
d) Decrease in curing time
Answer: b
Explanation: As mentioned above that Strength of concrete is inversely proportional to w/c ratio.

18. Strength of concrete increase with _________
a) Increase with w/c ratio
b) Increase in fineness of cement
c) Decrease in size of aggregates
d) Decrease in curing time
Answer: b
Explanation: Strength of concrete increase with increase in fineness of the cement.

19. Approximate ratio of the strength of the cement conc of 7 days to that of 28 days (2/3)?
a) .75
b) .85
c) 1
d) 1.15
Answer: a
Explanation: After the lab broke the seven-day cylinders, the cylinder from the pier with added water broke at 1980 psi. The other seven-day cylinders were as high as 2620 psi.

20. Approximate ratio of strength of the 30 cm cube to that of 15 cm cube is _____________
a) 1.1
b) 1
c) .9
d) .75
Answer: c
Explanation: The strength of cylinder with diameter of 15cm and 30cm tall can be approximated as 0.84 of the strength of a 15x15x15 cm cube according to Eurocodes.

21. Approximate ratio of direct tensile strength to flexural strength is ____________
a) .25
b) .33
c) .5
d) .05
Answer: c
Explanation: Approximate ratio of direct tensile strength to flexural strength is .5 according to the formula.

22. The addition of a pozzolanic admixture such as fly ash reduces the ____________
a) C3S
b) C3A
c) C2S
d) C4AF
Answer: b
Explanation: The addition of a pozzolanic admixture such as fly ash reduces the C3A content of cement.

23. Lowering of ____________ might also help, since this would reduce the amount of CH that forms.
a) C3S
b) C3A
c) C2S
d) C4AF
Answer: a
Explanation: Lowering of C3S might also help, since this would reduce the amount of CH that forms.

24. When the ____________ content is low, most ettringite will be formed in the plastic state.
a) C3SS
b) C3AA
c) C2S
d) C4AF
Answer: b
Explanation: When the C3A content is low, most ettringite will be formed in the plastic state.

25. The philosophy of prescribing low ____________ cement to improve resistance to sulphate attack.
a) C3S
b) C3A
c) C2S
d) C4AF
Answer: b
Explanation: The philosophy of prescribing low C3A cement to improve resistance to sulphate attack hinges on the need to minimize ettringite formation after the concrete hardens.

26. The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ permeability, is the best protection against sulphate attack.
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very low
Answer: c
Explanation: The quality of concrete, specifically a low permeability, is the best protection against sulphate attack.

27. For concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment the w/c should be lower than __________
a) 1
b) .5
c) .4
d) .8
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher is the aggressiveness of the environment lower should be the w/c ratio. For concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment, the w/c should be lower than 0.40.

28. The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ w/c ratio, is the best protection against sulphate attack.
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very low
Answer: c
Explanation: The quality of concrete, specifically a low w/c ratio, is the best protection against sulphate attack.

29. The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ cement content, is the best protection against sulphate attack.
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very low
Answer: a
Explanation: The quality of concrete, specifically a high cement content, is the best protection against sulphate attack.

30. Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for mild exposure.
a) <150
b) 150-1500
c) 150-10000
d) >10000
Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water less than 150 ppm for mild exposure.

31. Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for severe exposure.
a) <150
b) 150-1500
c) 150-10000
d) >10000
Answer: c
Explanation: Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water 150-10000 ppm for severe exposure.

1. Which cement is used in sewage and water treatment plants?
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Low Heat Cement
c) Sulphate Resisting Cement
d) Quick Setting Cement
Answer: c
Explanation: Cement with composition has very good resistance to sulphate attack. This type of cement is used in the construction of foundation in soil where subsoil contains very high proportions of sulphate.

2. Which cement is used for mainly building construction where strength required with age?
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Low Heat Cement
c) Portland Pozzolana Cement
d) Quick Setting Cement
Answer: c
Explanation: It gains very high compressive strength with age unlike other cement and it is very cheap and affordable.

3. Which cement is used for artificial marble?
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Sulphate Resisting Cement
c) Coloured Cement
d) Quick Setting Cement
Answer: c
Explanation: As the name suggests, it is used where coloured cement required for any aesthetic purposes.

4. Which cement is used to create a bond with old concrete surface?
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Expansive Cement
c) Sulphate Resisting Cement
d) Low Heat Cement
Answer: b
Explanation: As the name suggests, it expands and increases in volume while settled. It is used to avoid shrinkage of concrete.

5. Which cement is used to store for longer duration in wet climatic conditions?
a) Expansive Cement
b) Ordinary Portland cement
c) Hydrophobic Cement
d) Quick Setting Cement
Answer: c
Explanation: This type of cement is manufactured by mixing admixtures like petrolatum, napthalene soap which forms layer and act as water repellent.

6. Which cement used in frost resistance concrete?
a) OPC
b) PPC
c) AEC
d) QSC
Answer: c
Explanation: It is used to fill up the gap in concrete which are produced by excessive amount of water during casting (later evaporated and leave the gap).

7. Which cement is used for the construction of water-retaining structure like tanks, reservoirs, retaining walls, swimming pools, dams, bridges, piers etc?
a) Waterproof Portland cement
b) Colored Cement
c) High Alumina Cement
d) Low Heat Cement
Answer: a
Explanation: This cement is prepared by mixing with OPC or rapid hardening cement with a small percentage of some metal stearates at the time of mixing.

8. ____ cement is used for formwork that can be removed earlier and reused in other areas which save the cost of formwork.
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Colored Cement
c) High Alumina Cement
d) Low Heat Cement
Answer: a
Explanation: Rapid hardening cement is used where the formwork can be removed earlier and reused in other areas which save the cost of formwork. This cement can be used in prefabricated concrete construction, road works, etc.

9. Which cement is mainly used for interior and exterior decorative works?
a) Rapid Hardening Cement
b) Colored Cement
c) High Alumina Cement
d) Low Heat Cement
Answer: b
Explanation: This Cement is produced by adding 5- 10% mineral pigments with Portland cement during the time of grinding.

10. Which cement is used for works economic where considerations is predominant?
Reservoirs, retaining walls, swimming pools, dams, bridges, piers etc.
a) Waterproof Portland Cement
b) Colored Cement
c) High Alumina Cement
d) Blast Furnace Slag Cement
Answer: d
Explanation: It is obtained by grinding the clinkers with about 60% slag and resembles more or less in properties of Portland cement.

11. The _________ compressive strength required from structural consideration.
a) Nominal
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) No
Answer: b
Explanation: Option d can be eliminated easily because we need atleast some compressive strength. The minimum compressive strength required from structural consideration.

12. The adequate workability necessary for _________ compaction with the compacting equipment available.
a) Half
b) Quarter
c) Full
d) Double
Answer: c
Explanation: Option d can be eliminated easily because double compaction is not possible. The adequate workability necessary for full compaction with the compacting equipment available.

13. __________ water-cement ratio content to give adequate durability for the particular site conditions.
a) Minimum
b) Nominal
c) .5
d) Maximum
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum water-cement ratio and/or maximum cement content to give adequate durability for the particular site conditions. It helps to avoid shrinkage cracking due to temp cycle in mass concrete.

14. _________ cement content to avoid shrinkage cracking due to temperature cycle in mass concrete.
a) Minimum
b) Nominal
c) .5
d) Maximum
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum cement content to avoid shrinkage cracking due to the temperature cycle in mass concrete. It gives adequate durability for the particular site condition.

15. __________ has designated the concrete mixes into a number of grades as M10, M15.
a) IS 456-2000
b) IS 456-2010
c) IS 513-1999
d) IS 465-2000
Answer: a
Explanation: IS 456-2000 has designated the concrete mixes into a number of grades as M10, M15, M20, M25, M30, M35 and M40.

16. What is the approx. mix proportion for M10?
a) 1:3:6
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:1.5:3
d) 1:1:2
Answer: a
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000 code, the approximate value of mix proportion for grade M10 is 1:3:6.

17. What is the approx. mix proportion for M15?
a) 1:3:6
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:1.5:3
d) 1:1:2
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000 code, the approximate value of mix proportion for grade M15 is 1:2:4.

18. What is the approx. mix proportion for M20?
a) 1:3:6
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:1.5:3
d) 1:1:2
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000 code, the approximate value of mix proportion for grade M20 is 1:1.5:3.

19. What is the approx. mix proportion for M25?
a) 1:3:6
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:1.5:3
d) 1:1:2
Answer: d
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000 code, the approximate value of mix proportion for grade M25 is 1:1:2.

20. Maximum nominal size of aggregates to be used in concrete may be as large as possible within the limits prescribed by __________
a) IS 456-2000
b) IS 456-2010
c) IS 513-1999
d) IS 465-2000
Answer: a
Explanation: Option can be eliminated because there is no such code. Maximum nominal size of aggregates to be used in concrete may be as large as possible within the limits prescribed by IS 456:2000.

21. Depending on the degree of workability and placing condition determine the ___________
a) Slump value
b) The maximum size of aggregate
c) The amount of mixing water
d) The minimum water-cement ratio
Answer: a
Explanation: The slump value is depended on the degree of workability and placing condition.

22. Depending on the economical availability and dimensions of the structure determine the _____________
a) Slump value
b) The maximum size of aggregate
c) The amount of mixing water
d) The minimum water-cement ratio
Answer: b
Explanation: The value for the maximum size of aggregate depends on the economical availability and dimensions of the structure determine.

23. For the given slump and maximum size of coarse aggregate determine the ______________
a) Slump value
b) The maximum size of aggregate
c) The amount of mixing water
d) The minimum water-cement ratio
Answer: c
Explanation: For the given slump and maximum size of coarse aggregate determine the amount of mixing water.

24. Determine the _______ either from strength considerations or from durability considerations.
a) Slump value
b) The maximum size of aggregate
c) The amount of mixing water
d) The minimum water-cement ratio
Answer: d
Explanation: Determine the minimum water-cement ratio either from strength considerations or from durability considerations.

25. Determine the amount of cement per unit volume of concrete from ______________
a) Slump value
b) The maximum size of aggregate
c) The amount of mixing water
d) The maximum size of aggregate and the amount of mixing water
Answer: d
Explanation: Determine the amount of cement per unit volume of concrete from the maximum size of aggregate and the amount of mixing water.

26. This cement content should ________ the cement content required based on durability criteria.
a) Be more than
b) Be equal to
c) Be less than
d) Not be less than
Answer: d
Explanation: This cement content should not be less than the cement content required based on durability criteria.

27. The lower the w/c ratio ___________ the strength of concrete.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Poor
d) Moderate
Answer: a
Explanation: According to ACI mix design, the lower the w/c ratio, higher the strength of concrete.

28. The aim of the designer should always be to get concrete mixtures of optimum strength at _________ cement content and ________ workability.
a) Maximum, Nonacceptable
b) Minimum, Nonacceptable
c) Maximum, acceptable
d) Minimum, acceptable
Answer: d
Explanation: The aim of the designer should always be to get concrete mixtures of optimum strength at minimum cement content and acceptable workability.

29. Maximum size of aggregates should not be larger than ___________
a) 1/5 the minimum dimension of structural members
b) 1/4 the minimum dimension of structural members
c) 1/3 the minimum dimension of structural members
d) 1/6 the minimum dimension of structural members
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum size of aggregates should not be larger than 1/5 the minimum dimension of structural members.

30. Maximum size of aggregates should not be larger than _______________
a) 1/3 the thickness of a slab
b) 1/2 the thickness of a slab
c) 1/1 the thickness of a slab
d) 1/4 the thickness of a slab
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum size of aggregates should not be larger than 1/3 the thickness of a slab.

31. According to IRC:15-2011, Characteristic Flexural Strength at 28 days is ____________
a) 4 N/mm2
b) 4.5 N/mm2
c) 5 N/mm2
d) 3.5 N/mm2
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, Characteristic Flexural Strength at 28 days is 4.5 N/mm2 and rest all values don’t stand anywhere.

32. According to IRC:15-2011 _______% Fly ash is required to be replaced with the total cementitious materials.
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, 20% Fly ash is required to be replaced with the total cementitious materials and 25% was according to IRC:15-2002.

33. According to IRC:15-2002 _______% Fly ash is required to be replaced with the total cementitious materials.
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2002, 25% Fly ash is required to be replaced with the total cementitious materials and 20% was according to 2011.

34. According to IRC:15-2002, Maximum nominal size of aggregates is ________
a) 20 mm crushed aggregates
b) 31.5 mm crushed aggregates
c) 25 mm crushed aggregates
d) 30.5 mm crushed aggregates
Answer: a
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2002, the maximum nominal size of aggregates is 20 mm crushed aggregates and 31.5mm was according to 2011.

35. According to IRC:15-2011, Maximum nominal size of aggregates is ________
a) 20 mm crushed aggregates
b) 31.5 mm crushed aggregates
c) 25 mm crushed aggregates
d) 30.5 mm crushed aggregates
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, the maximum nominal size of aggregates is 31.5 mm crushed aggregates and 20mm was according to 2002.

36. According to IRC:15-2011, Minimum cement content for 4.5 N/mm2 characteristic flexural strength for OPC shall _____________
a) Shall not be less than 360 kg/m3
b) Shall not be less than 425 kg/m3
c) Shall not be less than 340 kg/m3
d) Shall not be less than 500 kg/m3
Answer: a
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, Minimum cement content for 4.5 N/mm2 characteristic flexural strength for OPC shall not be less than 360 kg/ m3 and for pcc it shouldn’t be less than 425 kg/m3.

37. According to IRC:15-2011, Minimum cement content for 4.5 N/mm2 characteristic flexural strength for PPC shall _________
a) Shall not be less than 360 kg/m3
b) Shall not be less than 425 kg/m3
c) Shall not be less than 340 kg/m3
d) Shall not be less than 500 kg/m3
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, Minimum cement content for 4.5 N/mm2 characteristic flexural strength for OPC shall not be less than 425 kg/ m3 and for opc it shouldn’t be less than 360 kg/ m3.

38. According to IRC:15-2011, Minimum cement content for 4.5 N/mm2 characteristic flexural strength for OPC + fly ash mix OPC shall ____________
a) Shall not be less than 360 kg/m3
b) Shall not be less than 425 kg/m3
c) Shall not be less than 340 kg/m3
d) Shall not be less than 500 kg/m3
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, Minimum cement content for 4.5 N/mm2 characteristic flexural strength for OPC + fly ash mix OPC shall not be less than 340 kg/m3 and for opc it shouldn’t be less than 360 kg/m3.

39. According to IRC:15-2011, maximum free W/C ratio for OPC is ________________
a) .45
b) .4
c) .5
d) .55
Answer: a
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, maximum free water cement ratio for Ordinary Portland Cement is .45 and for PPC it’s .5.

40. According to IRC:15-2011, maximum free W/C ratio for PPC is _________
a) .45
b) .4
c) .5
d) .55
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IRC:15-2011, maximum free water cement ratio for PPC is .5 and for opc it’s .45.

41. Loss on Ignition (L.O.I.) is the loss in weight of cement after being heated to ____________
a) 1000°C
b) 100°C
c) 500°C
d) 1500°C
Answer: a
Explanation: It indicates the prehydration or carbonation due to prolonged or improper storage of cement & clinker.

42. On cooling below 1250oC, C3S decomposes ____________
a) Fast
b) Slowly
c) Never
d) Depends on the conditions
Answer: b
Explanation: On cooling below 1250oC, C3S decomposes slowly but, if cooling is not too slow, C3S remains unchanged and is relatively stable at ordinary temperatures.

43. If the moisture content of 5 to 10% by weight, then the bulking of sand is increased by __________
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer: d
Explanation: With the moisture content of 5 to 10% by weight, the bulking of sand is increased by 50.

44. When sand is fully dry then it’s volume is _________
a) Equal
b) Less
c) More
d) Can’t say
Answer: a
Explanation: When the sand is fully dry then there is 0 bulking in it. Therefore, the volume of sand will be same.

45. The mineral oil if present in mixing for concrete ______________
a) Improves strength
b) Reduces strength
c) Gives more slump
d) Gives a smooth surface
Answer: a
Explanation: The mineral oil is present in mixing for concrete increases strength for the concentration up to 2%.

46. To neutralize 200 ml of sample should not require more than 10 ml of __________ normal HCI using methyl orange.
a) 1
b) .1
c) 10
d) .01
Answer: b
Explanation: To neutralize 200 ml of water sample the value of 0.1 normal HCI using methyl orange as an indicator should not require more than 10 ml.

47. The loss in weight should not exceed ________ % when tested with Na2SO4 and ________ % with MgSO4 solution.
a) 12, 18
b) 18, 12
c) 10, 15
d) 15, 10
Answer: a
Explanation: The loss in weight should not exceed 12 percent when tested with sodium sulphate and 18 percent with magnesium sulphate solution.

48. In universal testing machine, for a circular section specimen, the gauge length is taken to be _____________
a) 3.65 √A
b) 4.65 √A
c) 5.65 √A
d) 6.65 √A where A is the area of cross section of the specimen
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the formula to find the gauge length when we have the area of the specimen in a universal testing machine.

49. During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the _________
a) Diagonal
b) Surface parallel to load applied
c) Surface perpendicular to load applied
d) Lateral
Answer: a
Explanation: The failure occurs i.e., the crack appears along the diagonal during the compression test of cast iron.

50. The indenter used in Brinell hardness test is a ________________
a) Ball
b) Cone
c) Cylinder
d) Pyramid
Answer: b
Explanation: The Brinell method applies a predetermined test load (F) to a carbide ball of fixed diameter (D) which is held for a predetermined time period and then removed.

51. In charpy test specimen, the angle of v-notch section is ___________
a) 30 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees
Answer: b
Explanation: In charpy test specimen, the angle of v-notch section is 45 degrees and 0.25mm radius along the base.

52. During the radiography test, which region absorbs less radiation and transmits more?
a) Low and high density regions absorb and transmit same amount of radiation
b) High density region
c) Low density region
d) Low and high density regions adsorb
Answer: c
Explanation: This method uses short wavelength electromagnetic radiations such as X-rays and γ rays to detect internal defects. In this method the component to be tested is placed in path of radiations caused due to X-rays or γ rays.

53. Which test is used to determine the dimensions of any object?
a) Ultrasonic test
b) Torsion test
c) Eddy current test
d) Compression test
Answer: c
Explanation: Eddy current test is used to determine dimensions of objects, to detect cracks. An eddy current instrument consists of a probe or coil, an electronic unit for generating frequency and a CRT unit for display purpose.

54. In which type of test the capillary action principle is used?
a) Probe test
b) Bend liquid test
c) Dye penetrant test
d) Torsion test
Answer: c
Explanation: Dye penetrant test uses the capillary action principle to detect surface discontinuities. In this method liquid is applied on a metallic surface and it gets entered into cracks which are open.

1. No fines concrete is manufactured by _______
a) By adding no fines materials from normal concrete
b) By eliminating no fines materials from normal concrete
c) By reducing its strength
d) By increasing its strength
Answer: b
Explanation: No fines concrete is one type of light weight concrete. As the name indicates that it is a concrete mix without fine aggregate or sand.

2. Coarse aggregates which has been used in this is of __________
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 25 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Normally coarse aggregates passing from 20 mm sieve and retained on 10 mm sieve which is further used for this type of concrete.

3. The w/c ratio is kept in the range of _______
a) .1-.2
b) .38-.52
c) .83-1
d) .25-.38
Answer: b
Explanation: The water cement ratio is kept within the range of 0.38-0.52. The water cement ratio should be chosen very carefully considering the cohesive nature of the materials which we are using.

4. Density of no fines concrete with normal aggregate vary from _________ kg/m3.
a) 1600-1900
b) <300
c) >2500
d) >300
Answer: a
Explanation: The range of the density of no fines aggregates with the normal aggregates vary from 1600-1900 kg/m3.

5. Density of no fines concrete with light weight aggregate vary from _________ kg/m3.
a) 1600-1900
b) <300
c) >2500
d) >300
Answer: b
Explanation: The range of the density of no fines aggregates with the light weight aggregates vary from less than 300 kg/m3.

6. The compressive strength of no fines concrete varies between __________
a) 0-5 MPa
b) 4-14 MPa
c) 25 MPa
d) >15 MPa
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressive strength of no fines concrete varies between the ranges of 4MPa to 14 MPa.

7. Which of the following are the disadvantages of this concrete?
a) Lightweight
b) Low strength
c) Low shrinkage
d) Good thermal insulating property
Answer: b
Explanation: The main disadvantage of this concrete is that it has very low strength as compared to ordinary Portland cement.

8. Which of the following are the advantages of this concrete?
a) Low density
b) Low strength
c) It can’t be use in RCC structure
d) Cannot be measured by any available standard methods
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to low density i.e., it is light weight which is good for our construction purpose because it will be easy to transport.

9. The range of the density for this concrete is ___________
a) >5000 kg/cu. m
b) <6000 kg/cu m
c) 3400-5600 kg/cu m
d) <3400 kg/cu m
Answer: c
Explanation: Test results indicate that high density concrete with densities ranging from 3400 -5600 kg/cu m.

10. The compressive strength varies from ____________
a) < 200 kg/cm2
b) > 550 kg/cm2
c) 200-550 kg/cm2
d) 700 kg/cm2
Answer: c
Explanation: Compressive strengths varying from 200 -550 kg/sq cm can be produced using steel punchings as coarse aggregate.

11. Due to low w/c ratio _____________
a) It doesn’t cause any problems
b) It causes problems
c) Workability is easy
d) Strength is more
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to low water cement ratio, it causes many problems that’s why superplasticizers are used.

12. Maximum size of aggregates are used to produce 70MPa compressive strength?
a) 20-30 mm
b) 10-20 mm
c) 30-40 mm
d) 40-50 mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum size of aggregates is 20-30 mm are used to produce 70MPa compressive strength.

13. Maximum size of aggregates are used to produce 100MPa compressive strength?
a) 20-30 mm
b) 10-20 mm
c) 30-40 mm
d) 40-50 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum size of aggregates is 10-20 mm are used to produce 100MPa compressive strength.

14. The cement concrete, from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in position, is called ________
a) Vacuum concrete
b) LWC
c) Prestressed concrete
d) Sawdust concrete
Answer: a
Explanation: Vacuum concrete is the type of concrete in which the excess water is removed for improving concrete strength. The water is removed by use of vacuum mats connected to a vacuum pump.

15. Light weight cement content for compressive strength 3000 psi is _______ pounds per cubic yard.
a) 400-510
b) 440-560
c) 530-660
d) 630-750
Answer: b
Explanation: Light weight cement content for compressive strength 3000 psi is 440-560 pounds per cubic yard and 400-510 is for compressive strength 2500 psi.

16. The light-weight concrete is prepared by ____________
a) Mixing Portland cement with sawdust in specified proportion in the concrete
b) Using coke-breeze, slag as aggregate in the concrete
c) Mixing Al in the concrete
d) Mixing Fe in the concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: The light-weight concrete is prepared by using coke-breeze, cinder or slag as aggregate in the concrete.

17. Aerated Concrete is ______________
a) Very heavy weight
b) Heavy weight
c) Medium weight
d) Light weight
Answer: d
Explanation: Aerated concrete is also referred to as gas concrete, foam concrete, cellular concrete. In India, we have at present a few factories manufacturing aerated concrete.

18. Entrainment of air also improves workability and durability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Entrainment of air also improves workability and durability to produce such concrete which would have resistance to weathering actions.

19. No fines concrete is manufactured by _____________
a) By adding no fines materials from normal concrete
b) By eliminating no fines materials from normal concrete
c) By reducing its strength
d) By increasing its strength
Answer: b
Explanation: No fines concrete is one type of light weight concrete. As the name indicates that it is a concrete mix without fine aggregate or sand.

20. Density of no fines concrete with light weight aggregate vary from ________ kg/m3.
a) 1600-1900
b) <300
c) >2500
d) >300
Answer: b
Explanation: The range of the density of no fines aggregates with the light weight aggregates vary from less than 300 kg/m3.

21. In bridges, HDC is used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In bridges, High Density Concrete is being used to reduce the number of beams for supporting span.

22. What is the value of modulus of elasticity for Sulphur infiltered concrete?
a) 60-115 MPa
b) 10-16 MPa
c) 35-50 GPa
d) 500 GPa
Answer: c
Explanation: 35-60 GPa is the range of modulud of elasticity for the Sulphur infiltered concrete whereas the OPC has the range of 25-28 GPa.

23. Diameter of Round Steel Fiber lies in the range of ________ mm.
a) .3-.5
b) .25-.75
c) .155-.41
d) .25-.90
Answer: b
Explanation: Round steel fiber are commonly used and produced by cutting round wire into the short length. The diameter lies in the range of 0.25mm to 0.75mm.

24. The cement concrete, from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in position, is called _________
a) Vacuum concrete
b) LWC
c) Prestressed concrete
d) Sawdust concrete
Answer: a
Explanation: Vacuum concrete is the type of concrete in which the excess water is removed for improving concrete strength. The water is removed by use of vacuum mats connected to a vacuum pump.

25. The removal of excess air after placing concrete helps in increasing the strength of concrete by ___________
a) 15-20%
b) 20-25%
c) 30-50%
d) 50-70%
Answer: a
Explanation: The removal of excess air after placing concrete helps in increasing the strength of concrete by 15-20%. To attain these positive effects, the typical individual limitation for OPC replacement is commonly estimated to be 15–20% for FA and 40–50% for GGBS.

26. The light-weight concrete is prepared by ____________
a) Mixing Portland cement with sawdust in specified proportion in the concrete
b) Using coke-breeze, cinder or slag as aggregate in the concrete
c) Mixing aluminum in the concrete
d) Mixing steel in the concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: The light-weight concrete is prepared by using coke-breeze, cinder or slag as aggregate in the concrete. Lightweight aggregates used in structural lightweight concrete are typically expanded shale, clay or slate materials that have been fired in a rotary kiln to develop a porous structure.

27. The sound absorption coefficient of light weight concrete is nearly __________
a) Twice
b) Thrice
c) Four times
d) Six times
Answer: a
Explanation: The sound absorption coefficient of light weight concrete is nearly twice. Lightweight aggregates used in structural lightweight concrete are typically expanded clay materials that have been heated in a rotary kiln to develop a porous structure.

28. This type of concrete possesses __________
a) High insulating property
b) High conducting property
c) Low insulating property
d) Very high insulating property
Answer: d
Explanation: This type of concrete possesses the high insulating and low conducting property. Thermal insulation is the reduction of heat transfer between objects in the range of radiative influence.

29. In making precast structural units for partition and wall lining purposes, the concrete should be __________
a) Vacuum concrete
b) LWC
c) Prestressed concrete
d) Sawdust concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: In making precast structural units for partition and wall lining purposes, the concrete should be LWC.

30. Most low-density aggregates are ________ in origin.
a) Volcanic
b) Sea water
c) Highly dense area
d) Low dense area
Answer: a
Explanation: Most low-density aggregates are volcanic in origin and include pumice, tuff, scoria, and cinders.

31. ________ is also something used as the aggregate component of lightweight concretes.
a) Conglomerate
b) Gneiss
c) Marble
d) Diatomite
Answer: d
Explanation: Diatomite is also something used as the aggregate component of lightweight concretes. Diatomite is also known as diatomaceous earth.

32. ________ is the most commonly used.
a) Conglomerate
b) Gneiss
c) Marble
d) Pumice
Answer: d
Explanation: Pumice is the most commonly used and is actually a glass that forms when frothy volcanic eruptions cool quickly into rock.

33. Aggregates with a specific gravity of _________ are called lightweight aggregates.
a) <2.4
b) 2.4-2.8
c) >2.8
d) > 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Aggregates with a specific gravity of less than 2.4 are called lightweight aggregates.

34. The moisture content of the aggregate shall not exceed from ____________
a) .1% – .5%
b) 1% – 55
c) 10% – 50%
d) 15%
Answer: a
Explanation: It was recommend by the scientist later on that the moisture content of the aggregates shall not exceed from .1% to .5%.

35. Which one is not the polymeric resin?
a) Polyester resin
b) Epoxy resin
c) Vinyl ester resin
d) Sulphates
Answer: d
Explanation: Polymeric resins that are commonly used in polymer concrete are methacrylate, polyester resin, epoxy resin, vinyl ester resin, and furan resins.

36. Higher resin dosage is recommended when using ________
a) Coarse aggregate
b) Fine aggregates
c) All in one aggregates
d) More cement
Answer: b
Explanation: Higher resin dosage is recommended when using fine aggregate, because of the presence of the large surface area of the materials.

37. Steel fibers helps in the enhancement of its properties.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Steel fibers, glass fibers, carbon fibers, and polyester fibers have been added to in PIC for enhancement of its properties.

38. The addition of glass fibers are in the range of __________
a) 0-6%
b) 10%
c) 15-20%
d) 20%-25%
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the studies have reported the addition of glass fibers are in the range of 0-6% in PIC.

39. Concrete is not recommended to be placed at a temperature below __________oC.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: Any concreting operation done at a temperature below 5oC is termed as cold weather concreting.

40. IS: 7861 part-2 deals with __________
a) Hot weathering concrete
b) Cold weathering concrete
c) Air entertained concrete
d) OPC
Answer: b
Explanation: IS: 7861 part-1 deals with hot weather concreting and Part-2 deals with cold weather concreting.

41. Why the time period for removal of form work has to be increased.
a) The development of strength of concrete is retarded compared with development at normal temperature
b) The development of strength of concrete is accelerate compared with development at normal temperature
c) The development of strength of concrete is advanced compared with development at normal temperature
d) The development of strength of concrete is precocious compared with development at normal temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: When the temperature is falling to about 50C or below, the development of strength of concrete is retarded compared with development at normal temperature. Thus, the time period for removal of form work has to be increased.

42. If concrete is exposed to repeated freezing and thawing after the final set, the final qualities of the concrete may also be __________
a) Impair
b) Aid
c) Improve
d) Extend
Answer: a
Explanation: If concrete is exposed to repeated freezing and thawing after the final set and during the hardening period, the final qualities of the concrete may also be impaired.

43. Large temperature differentials within the concrete member may promote __________
a) Elastic shrinkage
b) Cracking
c) High workability
d) Good strength
Answer: b
Explanation: Large temperature differentials within the concrete member may promote cracking and affect its durability adversely.

44. When the concrete in fresh stage is exposed to freeze before certain pre-hardening period, compressive strength may get __________
a) Increased to 50%
b) Decreased to 50%
c) Increased to 25%
d) Decreased to 25%
Answer: b
Explanation: When the concrete in fresh stage is exposed to freeze before a certain prehardening period, concrete may suffer loss in its prop. to an extent that compressive strength may get decreased to 50%.

45. Concrete is not recommended to be placed at a temperature above _________oC.
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer: c
Explanation: Any operation of concreting done at atmospheric temperature above 40 oC may be put under hot weather concreting.

46. IS: 7861 part-1 deals with ___________
a) Hot weathering concrete
b) Cold weathering concrete
c) Air entertained concrete
d) OPC
Answer: a
Explanation: IS: 7861 part-1 deals with hot weather concreting and Part-2 deals with cold weather concreting.

47. A higher temperature of fresh concrete results in a __________ hydration of cement.
a) More rapid
b) Rapid
c) Low
d) Very low
Answer: a
Explanation: A higher temperature of fresh concrete results in a more rapid hydration of cement and leads to reduced workability/ accelerated setting.

48. Does this reduce handling time?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A higher temperature of fresh concrete results in a more rapid hydration of cement and leads to reduced workability/ accelerated setting. This reduces the handling time of concrete.

49. Rapid evaporation may cause plastic shrinkage __________
a) Elastic shrinkage
b) Plastic shrinkage
c) High workability
d) Good strength
Answer: b
Explanation: Rapid evaporation may cause plastic shrinkage and cracking and subsequent cooling of hardened concrete would introduce tensile stresses.

50. It is difficult to retain moisture for hydration for RAPID EVAPORATION OF WATER DURING CURING PERIOD.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is difficult to retain moisture for hydration and maintain reasonably uniform temperature conditions during the curing period.

51. Prepacked concrete _________ water proofing concrete.
a) Is
b) Is not
c) May be
d) Is but depends on temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: Prepacked concrete is water proofing concrete with quality plaster which prevents water seepage.

52. Cement has ________ % volumetric shrinkage after curing.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: a
Explanation: Option a is the correct one because cement has 3-5% volumetric shrinkage after curing.

53. After vacuum mixing, the volumetric shrinkage can be raised from 3–5% to __________ % in different cements.
a) 1-2
b) 3-5
c) 5-7
d) 6-8
Answer: c
Explanation: The volumetric shrinkage can be raised from 3–5 % to 5-7 % in different cements after mixing vacuum into it.

54. Vacuum mixing systems reduce the exposure by _________ %.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 50
d) 10
Answer: c
Explanation: Vacuum mixing system decreases the exposure by 50 % to 70% and eliminates the contact with the bone cement while delivery.

55. The __________ compressive strength required from structural consideration.
a) Nominal
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) No
Answer: b
Explanation: Option d can be eliminated easily because we need atleast some compressive strength. The minimum compressive strength required from structural consideration.

56. The adequate workability necessary for ___________ compaction with the compacting equipment available.
a) Half
b) Quarter
c) Full
d) Double
Answer: c
Explanation: Option d can be eliminated easily because double compaction is not possible. The adequate workability necessary for full compaction with the compacting equipment available.

57. ___________ water-cement ratio content to give adequate durability for the particular site conditions.
a) Minimum
b) Nominal
c) .5
d) Maximum
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum water-cement ratio and/or maximum cement content to give adequate durability for the particular site conditions. It helps to avoid shrinkage cracking due to the temp cycle in mass concrete.

58. _______ cement content to avoid shrinkage cracking due to temperature cycle in mass concrete.
a) Minimum
b) Nominal
c) .5
d) Maximum
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum cement content to avoid shrinkage cracking due to temperature cycle in mass concrete. It gives adequate durability for the particular site condition.

59. ________ has designated the concrete mixes into a number of grades as M10, M15.
a) IS 456-2000
b) IS 456-2010
c) IS 513-1999
d) IS 465-2000
Answer: a
Explanation: IS 456-2000 has designated the concrete mixes into a number of grades as M10, M15, M20, M25, M30, M35 and M40.

60. Maximum nominal size of aggregates to be used in concrete may be as large as possible within the limits prescribed by _______
a) IS 456-2000
b) IS 456-2010
c) IS 513-1999
d) IS 465-2000
Answer: a
Explanation: Option can be eliminated because there is no such code. The maximum nominal size of aggregates to be used in concrete may be as large as possible within the limits prescribed by IS 456:2000.

1. What C31 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Field
b) Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Specimen
c) Test Method for Unit Weight, Yield, and Air Content (Gravimetric) of Concrete
d) Test Method for Slump of Hydraulic Cement Concrete
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C31 test is for Test Method for Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Field.

2. What C39 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Field
b) Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Specimen
c) Test Method for Unit Weight, Yield, and Air Content (Gravimetric) of Concrete
d) Test Method for Slump of Hydraulic Cement Concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C39 test is for Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Specimen.

3. What C138 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Field
b) Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Specimen
c) Test Method for Unit Weight, Yield, and Air Content (Gravimetric) of Concrete
d) Test Method for Slump of Hydraulic Cement Concrete
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C138 test is for Test Method for Unit Weight, Yield, and Air Content (Gravimetric) of Concrete.

4. What C143 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Making and Curing Concrete Test Specimens in the Field
b) Test Method for Compressive Strength of Cylindrical Specimen
c) Test Method for Unit Weight, Yield, and Air Content (Gravimetric) of Concrete
d) Test Method for Slump of Hydraulic Cement Concrete
Answer: d
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C143 test is for Test Method for Slump of Hydraulic Cement Concrete.

5. What C172 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Sampling Freshly Mixed Concrete
b) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Volumetric Method
c) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Pressure Method
d) Test Method for Temperature of Freshly Mixed Portland-Cement Concrete
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C172 test is for Test Method for Sampling Freshly Mixed Concrete.

6. What C173 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Sampling Freshly Mixed Concrete
b) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Volumetric Method
c) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Pressure Method
d) Test Method for Temperature of Freshly Mixed Portland-Cement Concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C173 test is for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Volumetric Method.

7. What C 231 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Sampling Freshly Mixed Concrete
b) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Volumetric Method
c) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Pressure Method
d) Test Method for Temperature of Freshly Mixed Portland-Cement Concrete
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C231 test is for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Pressure Method.

8. What C 1064 test under the Standard ASTM test method?
a) Test Method for Sampling Freshly Mixed Concrete
b) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Volumetric Method
c) Test Method for Air Content of Freshly Mixed Concrete by the Pressure Method
d) Test Method for Temperature of Freshly Mixed Portland-Cement Concrete
Answer: d
Explanation: According to Standard ASTM test methods to evaluate field-placed concrete C1064 test is for Temperature of Freshly Mixed Portland-Cement Concrete.

9. Generally what is the w/c ratio?
a) .25
b) .5
c) .75
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the water cement ratio is .42-.5 and if it exceeds it will create pores in concrete.

10. Silica fume is _________
a) Less reactive
b) Neutral
c) More reactive
d) Absent in concrete
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the most beneficial uses for silica fume is in concrete, because of its both properties, it is a very reactive pozzolana.

11. Content of SiO2 in silica fume?
a) 52%
b) 35%
c) 21.9%
d) 85-97%
Answer: d
Explanation: The content of SiO2 in silica fume is 85-97%. 35% is the content of SiO2 in Calcareous (ASTM C618 Class C) Fly Ash.

12. What is the content of Al2O3 in fly ash?
a) 30-60%
b) 15-30%
c) Up to 30%
d) 1-7%
Answer: b
Explanation: The content of Al2O3 in fly ash has been tested according to procedures specified in IS: 1727-1967.

13. The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or scratching is known as ____________
a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Stiffness
d) Toughness
Answer: b
Explanation: The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or scratching is known as hardness.

14. During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the __________
a) Diagonal
b) Surface parallel to load applied
c) Surface perpendicular to load applied
d) Lateral
Answer: a
Explanation: The failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the diagonal during the compression test of cast iron.

15. It opens the area of improvement for quality construction rationally based on the documents from ___________ projects.
a) Previous
b) Next
c) Later
d) Future
Answer: a
Explanation: It opens the area of improvement for quality construction rationally based on the documents from previous projects.

16. For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after __________
a) 24 to 48 hours
b) 3 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days
Answer: a
Explanation: For rapid hardening cement, 3/7 of the above period will be sufficient in all cases except vertical sides of slabs, beams and columns which should be retained for 24 hours.

17. The basic requirement for the success of any quality control plan is the availability of experienced, knowledgeable and trained personnel at all levels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the very basic requirement for the success of any quality control plan is the availability of experienced, knowledgeable and trained personnel at all levels.

18. Quality control helps to ____________ the risks of overdesign that ___________ the overall cost.
a) Maximize, Increase
b) Minimize, Increase
c) Maximize, Decrease
d) Minimize, Decrease
Answer: d
Explanation: Quality control helps to minimize the risks of overdesign that reduces the overall cost.

19. ___________ cost of maintenance of the structure __________ construction due to quality works.
a) Maximize, after
b) Minimize, after
c) Maximize, before
d) Minimize, before
Answer: b
Explanation: Minimize the cost of repair and maintenance of the structure after construction due to quality works.

20. It __________ job-site concrete handling, and testing procedures to __________ potential liability to the company.
a) Improve, Increase
b) Improve, Decrease
c) Ruin, Decrease
d) Ruin, Increase
Answer: b
Explanation: It improves job-site concrete handling, curing, sampling and testing procedures to reduce potential liability to the company.

21. ___________ quality construction ___________ the wastage of materials.
a) Good, reduce
b) Bad, reduce
c) Good, increase
d) Bad, Decrease
Answer: a
Explanation: Good quality construction reduces the wastage of materials, smooth function of the team and keeps the construction cost within the limit.

22. Quality management system improves perception of customers towards company.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality management system improves the perception of customers towards company due to credible quality personnel and quality practices.

23. Quality management system _________ perception of customers towards company.
a) Improves
b) Deprove
c) Recede
d) Worsen
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality management system improves perception of customers towards company due to credible quality personnel and quality practices.

24. Good quality construction _________ the wastage of materials, smooth function of the team.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Doesn’t effect
d) Gain
Answer: b
Explanation: Good quality construction reduces the wastage of materials, smooth function of the team and keeps the construction cost within the limit.

25. Quality control helps to ___________ the risks of overdesign that ___________ the overall cost.
a) Maximize, Increase
b) Minimize, Increase
c) Maximize, Decrease
d) Minimize, Decrease
Answer: d
Explanation: Quality control helps to minimize the risks of overdesign that reduces the overall cost.

26. It opens the area of improvement for quality construction rationally based on the documents from __________ projects.
a) Previous
b) Next
c) Later
d) Future
Answer: a
Explanation: It opens the area of improvement for quality construction rationally based on the documents from previous projects.

27. Quality of construction activities will be tracked by quality management documents.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality of construction activities will be tracked by quality management documents and becomes a record for future reference.

28. It __________ job-site concrete handling, curing, sampling and testing procedures.
a) Improves
b) Deprove
c) Recede
d) Worsen
Answer: a
Explanation: It improves job-site concrete handling, curing, sampling and testing procedures to reduce potential liability to the company.

29. Minimize the cost of repair and maintenance of the structure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimize the cost of repair and maintenance of the structure after construction due to quality works.

30. The concrete mix should be designed in the laboratory with the materials to be used on site.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The concrete mix should be designed in the laboratory with the materials to be used on site.