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[MCQ] Software Engineering

Module 1.1

1. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model
Answer: d
Explanation: The Capability Maturity Model for Software describes the principles and practices underlying software process maturity and is intended to help software organizations improve the maturity of their software processes in terms of an evolutionary path from ad hoc, chaotic processes to mature, disciplined software processes.

2. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The ISO 9000 series of standards is a set of documents.

3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be
a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identified
d) eliminated and identified
Answer: d
Explanation: ISO 9001 requires that the causes of nonconforming product to be identified. Potential causes of nonconforming product are eliminated.

4. .CO policy in CMM means
a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform
Answer: c
Explanation: CMM have certain policy practices covered under .CO policy.

5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.
a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning
Answer: c
Explanation: The practices defining the quality records to be maintained in the CMM are distributed throughout the key process areas in the various Activities Performed practices.

6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing
Answer: a
Explanation: The CMM is organized into five maturity levels as namely: Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed and Optimizing.

7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management
Answer: a
Explanation: In CMM planning these activities is described in Software Project Planning, however the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in Software Product Engineering.

8. Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification tests?
a) CMM
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9000-3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier should carry out reviews to ensure the requirements are met and design methods are correctly carried out.

9. The CMM emphasizes
a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: CMM emphasizes the need to record information for later use in the process and for improvement of the process.

10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.

11. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or clients irrespective of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as patents, copyright, etc.

12. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

13. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
Answer: b

14. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

15. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible.Thus options a & c are ruled out.

16. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Answer: c

17. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software company.

18. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them both.

19. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a part of software development process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. Thus option c answers the question.

20. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of the product.

21. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
a) PUBLIC
b) PROFESSION
c) PRODUCT
d) ENVIRONMENT
Answer: d
Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on specific clause nor its of importace related to question.

22. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Software is not just set of program but it is also associated documentation and configuration of data to make program run.

23. Which of these does not account for software failure ?
a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
Answer: c
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.

24. What are attributes of good software ?
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality
Answer: d
Explanation: Good software should deliver the required functinality, maintainability. Software development is not an attribute but a fundamental.

25. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software specification
Answer: a
Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute and not an engineering activity for process.

26. Which of these is incorrect ?
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful software
Answer: c
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub domain which comes under computer science which is main domain.

27. Which of these is true ?
a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products
b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of them are true.

28. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change
d) Security
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them both.

29. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation
Answer: d
Explanation: Software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental for engineering.

30. Which of these is not true ?
a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed service based systems
b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages
c) Web brings concept of software as service
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally
Answer: b
Explanation: Web based systems has led to important advances in programming languages.

Module 1.2

1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200 lines.

2. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

3. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their respective definitions.

5. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

6. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC

7. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely: Business modeling, Data modeling, Process modeling, Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-develop functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

9. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
Answer: a

10. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: c

11. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

12. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.

13. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
Answer: d
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of software development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is popular particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.However, option “a” can be seen in other models as well like RAD model,hence option “d” answers the question.

14. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
Answer: b

15. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase.

16. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.

17. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
Answer: a
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.

18. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

19. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

20. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
Answer: c
Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model defines activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.Thus Concurrency is achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using the state-oriented approach.

21. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Each model has to have some requirements, a team of developers, users and the risk involved in developing a project.

22. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with a requirements analysis phase including techniques like FAST, QFD, Brainstorming.In case of Spiral model the first phase involves activities related to customer communication like determining objectives.

23. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
Answer: a
Explanation: Relying on risk assessment/analysis provides more flexibility than required for many applications which overcomes the criteria of less experienced developers.

24. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to develop cheaper products/software/projects as the cost of modeling, hiring highly skilled developers/designers and automated code generation is very high.But here the cost is not an issue, so one can select this model as it reduces development time.

25. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping
Answer: d
Explanation: Active Participation of user is involved in all the four phases of RAD model and in case of the Prototyping model we need user’s presence/involvement every time a new prototype is build or designed.

26. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral
Answer: c

27. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow and iterations in this model are handled indirectly. This changes can cause confusion as the project proceeds thereby delaying the delivery date.

28. Choose the correct option from given below:
a) Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
b) RAD Model Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
Answer: c

29. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

30. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

31. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++
Answer: c
Explanation: Rest all are third generation languages(3GL).

32. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering

a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: c
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation Techniques(4GT)Model.

33. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both Black Box & Functional
Answer: d
Explanation: Functional processing/testing is also referred to as black box testing in which contents of the black box are not known.Almost anything might be referred to as a black box:an algorithm or the human mind.Functionality of the black box is understood in terms of its inputs and outputs.

34. The 4GT Model is a package of ______________
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad array of software tools enabling the software engineer to specify the characteristics at a high level leading to an automatically generated source code based on these specifications.

35. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating ______________
a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators
Answer: a
Explanation: Fifth-generation programming language are built on LISP.

36. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in graphic notation or small abbreviated language form.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

37. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in using a 4GT.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-friendly and enhance programming efficiency with usage of English-like words and phrases, thereby increasing the productivity of professionals able to engage in software development.

38. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for managing structured data?
a) SQL
b) PROLOG
c) C
d) JAVA
Answer: a
Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation languages(3GLs) whereas PROLOG is a 5GL.

39. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers
b) Reduction in software development time
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators proponents claim a dramatic reduction in software development time.

40. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Since coding phase is eliminated in 4GT Model,more expertise is required for analysis,design and testing activities.

41. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
Answer: b
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality which means software can run on different hardware platforms or software environments.

42. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are sub categories/applications of option c.

43. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times development costs.

44. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

45. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) both in time & with acceptable quality
Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of a software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.

46. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
Answer: c

47. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment
Answer: d
Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the product and provides feedback based on the evaluation.

48. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to the software team and the inter dependencies among two process can never be the same.

49. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews
Answer: d

50. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development phase.

51. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As new people are added, people who were working must spend time educating the newcomers, thereby reducing the amount of time spent on productive development effort.

52. Choose an internal software quality from given below:
a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are external qualities which are visible to the user.

53. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________
a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer: d

54. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

55. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A working program is only one part of a software configuration that includes many elements. Documentation provides a foundation for successful engineering and, more important, guidance for software support.

56. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
Answer: d

57. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
Answer: a
Explanation: Software Verification is accounted for in implementation & testing activity.

58. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software efforts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A formal and detailed description of the information domain, function, behavior, performance, interfaces, design constraints and validation criteria is essential which can be determined only after thorough communication between customer and developer.

59. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

60. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to using previously tested components they produce more reliable system at a faster rate.

61. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

62. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Answer: d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative because they work on one iteration followed by improvements in next iteration

63. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

64. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.

65. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.

66. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning phase followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.

67. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

68. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which can’t be avoided.

69. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c

70. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

71. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.

72. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration approach.After any such integration, all the unit tests in the system must pass.

73. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.New versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment for approval every 2nd week after testing the new version.

74. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.
a) implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories.These are written on cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule and cost estimates.

75. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system.However, people adopting the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time with the development team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a contribution and so may be reluctant to get involved in the testing process.

76. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally.For example, in a complex user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow between screens.

77. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new release is built.

78. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development approach.

79. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.

80. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
Answer: c
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.

Module 2

1. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.

2. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.

3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a different phase of Software Engineering.

4. FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

5. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c

6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another (external) system.

7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have with the software.

8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.

9. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.

10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software
Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or customers, what’s the point of being in business?.

11. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system. Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
Answer: b
Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.

13. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

14. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to efficiency.

15. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The behavior of functional requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or functions the system is required to perform.

16. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to find measurable scales for the quality attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity, usability etc.

17. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: d
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-External considerations [Sommerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–Components of FURPS+ are the five classification schemes for NFRs.

18. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Installability
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .

19. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.

20. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
Answer: c
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.

21. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk out stakeholders first.

22. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
i. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii. Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be using your product, thus making them most important of all.

23. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.
i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a) iii, i, ii, iv
b) iii, iv, ii, i
c) iii, ii, iv, i
d) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures viewpoint from different users followed by evaluation of those view points.Now comes the task of checking the relative importance of the requirements and finally to consolidate or bind together the information collected.

24. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
Answer: d
Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.

25. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)
Answer: b
Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without dealing with system internals.

26. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary
Answer: d
Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance.There is no such thing as ternary actor in Software Engineering.

27. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall system objectives.Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed, have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and they do not understand that the requirements change over time.

28. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceability
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceability
Answer: d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect business requirements while developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.

29. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.

30. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.

31. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a viewpoint based method?
a) FODA
b) QFD
c) CORE
d) IBIS
Answer: c
Explanation: Controlled Requirements Expression(CORE) says that any system can be viewed from a number of view points and that a complete picture of system requirements can only emerge by putting together the various viewpoints.

32. ___________ and ____________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE).
a) Functional, Non-Functional
b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The CORE sessions includes the discussion of functional and non-functional requirements.

33. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
a) Requirements are comprehensive
b) NFRs are not given enough importance
c) Role of analyst is passive
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In CORE the requirement specification are put together by all users, customers and analysts, so a passive analyst will not get the requirements properly.

34. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS).
a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
d) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification
Answer: d
Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive method that provides a framework for resolving issues and gathering requirements.

35. How is CORE different from IBIS ?
a) Iterative in nature
b) Redundancies are removed
c) It is simple and an easier method to use
d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE
Answer: d
Explanation: Preliminary data collection is done in CORE to get some broad level data on each view point to structure the view point and to check consistency from within and outside the viewpoints.

36. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ?
a) FODA
b) CORE
c) IBIS
d) Prototyping
Answer: a
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) is defined as the process of identifying, collecting, organizing and representing relevant information in a domain .

37. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Modeling and Architecture Modeling are the three steps involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA).

38. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured approach as it captures information which is consistent and important.On the other hand CORE gives importance to every view point even if it is obsolete.

39. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ?
a) User
b) Tester
c) Scribe
d) Sponsor
Answer: b
Explanation: A Tester’s role is seen in after coding phase rather than in elicitation phase.

40. What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?
a) Context Diagrams
b) DFDs
c) ER model
d) UML diagrams
Answer: d
Explanation: Unified Modeling Language (UML) diagrams are constructed during the design phase of the SDLC.

41. How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions
a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
c) cover the technology used for the development
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an approved solution ASAP.

42. How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
a) It involves successive steps
b) It involves just one task
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
d) It has a shorter development time
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option b all other options represent the characteristics of an evolutionary prototype.

43. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation
b) Overall operational correctness and reliability
c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
Answer: c
Explanation: Expected requirements are so fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state them.System functions comes under the category of Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory to be defined,hence is not an expected requirement.

44. QFD works best if it has management commitment.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in initial stages, thus bounding the management to provide appropriate funding for the development process .

45. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b) Prototyping
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
Answer: c
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling real-world problematic situations.It is a common misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which involve psychological, social, and cultural elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different way of dealing with situations perceived as problematic.

46. To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ?
a) C – Customer
b) A – Actor
c) T – Transformation
d) E – ER Model
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for Environmental constraints.

47. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique.
a) It incorporates human element into design
b) SSM is in its infant stage
c) SSM is suitable for new systems
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM
Answer: b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is evolving and its industrial usage is low.

48. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a successful brainstorming session.

49. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager
Answer: c
Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an outsider) controls the FAST meeting.His role is to ensure that the meeting is productive.

50. Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
i. Conduct a group discussion
ii. Conduct another group discussion
iii. Present experts with a problem
iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
Answer: d
Explanation: The sequence represents the working steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .

51. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram
Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.

52. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility (hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis.

53. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: c
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, Specification and Review are the five phases.

54. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence requirements must be traceable.

55. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified business needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.

56. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement analysis..

57. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. WhaT is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical
Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and Physical views.All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs and objectives.

58. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy customer requirements.

59. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.

60. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and behavior.

61. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in nature which means each sentence in SRS should have a unique interpretation.

62. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition of all terms and units of measure is defined.

63. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
Answer: d
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one requirement says that all lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.

64. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a customer as well.

65. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that is, only its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.

66. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule
Answer: b
Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software, implementation language, resource limits, operating environment etc.

67. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the solution (“how to do”) aspects.

68. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii
Answer: c
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE.

69. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable.Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.

70. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only one unique interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will have an end of file character ?”.

71. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core requirements & are related to main activity of the organization while volatile requirements are likely to change during software development life cycle or after delivery of the product.

72. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: For library management system issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core activities and are stable for any system.

73. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the advancement of new products being launched in the market and so does the market changes, the technology and in turn customer’s expectation.

74. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without reference to requirements, which means quality-oriented development is requirements-driven development, thus requirements management is a prerequisite for quality-oriented development.

75. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the ability to describe and follow the life of a requirement in both forwards and backwards direction. Requirements can be traced from its origins, through its development and specification, to its subsequent deployment and use, and through periods of ongoing refinement and iteration in any of these phases.

76. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs continued funding throughout a project.Project funding is often limited at the onset of a project, restricted to those aspects of the project which are tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-phase manner.

77. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer: c
Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool for requirement management.

78. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are the activities of requirement management.

79. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.

80. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical report is poor requirements management. Option a and c are its sub parts.

81. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling.How many different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
Answer: d
Explanation: The different notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class, object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case diagrams.

82. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
Answer: b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by the events that stimulate responses from a system.

83. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.

84. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.

85. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.

86. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.

87. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable code.

88. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.
a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause transitions from one state to another.

89. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but still human interface will vary from person to person.

90. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.

91. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component
Answer: b
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.

92. _________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency
Answer: c
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity.This means that common information will be maintained in one place only.

93. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the components that make up that system and their relationships.

94. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.
a) Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and external actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system components, although external agents may also be included.

95. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus option b is correct.

96. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.

97. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards.

98. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object to operations that act on the data.

Module 3

1. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational implementation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

2. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?
a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s: people, product, process, and project.

3. PM-CMM stands for
a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model
Answer: a
Explanation: The people management maturity model defines the following key practice areas for software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training, compensation, career development, organization and work design, and team/culture development.

4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?
a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design
Answer: d
Explanation: The design part of any project management is done by the project team.

5. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A small number of framework activities are applicable to all software projects, regardless of their size or complexity.

6. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

7. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: b
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex problems but may not perform as efficiently as other teams.

9. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management
Answer: d
Explanation: For this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders.

10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: d

11. The terms measure, measurement, and metric all share the same definition according to the IEEE Standard Glossary of Software Engineering Terms.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

12. Which of these are valid reasons for measuring software processes, products, and resources?
a. to characterize them
b. to evaluate them
c. to price them
d. to improve them
e. a, b, d
Answer: E. a, b, d

13. Process indicators enable a software project manager to
a. assess the status of an on-going project
b. track potential risks
c. adjust work flow or tasks
d. none of the above
Answer: D. none of the above

14. Public metrics are used
a. to evaluate the performance of software development teams.
b. to appraise the performance of individual team members.
c. to make strategic changes to the software process.
d. to make tactical changes during a software project.
e. c and d
Answer: E. c and d

15. Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics?
a. inputs
b. markets
c. outputs
d. results
Answer: B. markets

16. Software quality and functionality must be measured indirectly.
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

17. Which of following are advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented metric?
a. LOC is easily computed.
b. LOC is a language dependent measure.
c. LOC is a language independent measure.
d. LOC can be computed before a design is completed.
Answer: A. LOC is easily computed.

18. Which of the following are advantages of using function points (FP) as a measure of the functionality delivered by a software application?
a. FP is easily computed
b. FP is a language dependent measure.
c. FP is a language independent measure
d. FP can be computed before a design is completed
e. c and d
Answer: E. c and d

19. There is no need to reconcile LOC and FP measures since each in meaningful in its own right as a project measure.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

20. Object-Oriented project measures may be combined with historical project data to provide metrics that aid in project estimation
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

21. Use-Case oriented metrics are computed directly from UML diagrams they are often used as normalization measures.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

22. Which of the following is not a measure that can be collected from a Web application project?
a. Customization index
b. Number of dynamic objects
c. Number of internal page links
d. Number of static web pages
Answer: A. Customization index

23. Which of the following software quality factors is most likely to be affected by radical changes to computing architectures?
a. operation
b. transition
c. revision
d. none of the above
Answer: D. none of the above

24. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?
a. correctness, performance, integrity, usability
b. reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
c. correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
d. correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
Answer: D. correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability

25. A software quality metric that can be used at both the process and project levels is defect removal efficiency (DRE).
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

26. Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and software it produces?
a. It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex.
b. To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set.
c. To determine whether a software group is improving or not.
d. To make software engineering more like other engineering processes
Answer: C. To determine whether a software group is improving or not.

27. To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data used must be:
a. based on reasonable guestimates from past projects
b. measured consistently across projects
c. drawn from similar projects
d. based on all previously completed projects
e. b and c
Answer:E. b and c

28. Baseline data must be collected in an on-going manner and cannot be computed by formal study of historical project data
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

29. Small software organizations are not likely to see any economic return from establishing software metrics program
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

30. The software metrics chosen by an organization are driven by the business or technical goals an organization wishes to accomplish.
a. True
b. False
Answer:A. True

31. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical
Answer: d
Explanation: Critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation.

32. The only reason an estimate may be unreliable is lack of experience with the application on the part of the estimator.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

33. The hardware required for most computer-based systems is more costly to purchase than the software.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

34. Since project estimates are not completely reliable, they can be ignored once a software development project begins
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

35. The objective of software project planing is to
a. convince the customer that a project is feasible.
b. make use of historical project data.
c. enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule
d. determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project.
Answer: C. enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule

36. The project scope is defined as a means of bounding the system
a. functionality
b. performance
c. costs
d. schedule
e. a and b
Answer: E. a and b

37. Software feasibility is based on which of the following
a. business and marketing concerns
b. scope, constraints, market
c. technology, finance, time, resources
d. technical prowess of the developers
Answer: C. technology, finance, time, resources

38. The number of people required for a software project is determined
a. after an estimate of the development effort is made.
b. by the size of the project budget.
c. from an assessment of the technical complexity of the system.
d. all of the above
Answer: A. after an estimate of the development effort is made.

39. Reusable software components must be
a. catalogued for easy reference
b. standardized for easy application.
c. validated for easy integration.
d. all of the above
Answer: D. all of the above

40. The software engineering environment (SEE) consists of which of the following?
a. customers
b. developers
c. hardware platforms
d. software tools
e. c and d
Answer: E. c and d

41. Software project estimation techniques can be broadly classified under which of the following headings?
a. automated processes
b. decomposition techniques
c. empirical models
d. regression models
e. b and c
Answer: E. b and c

42. The size estimate for a software product to be built must be based on a direct measure like LOC.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

43. Problem-based estimation is based on problem decomposition which focuses on
a. information domain values
b. project schedule
c. software functions
d. process activities
e. a and c
Answer: E. a and c

44. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
a. information domain values
b. project schedule
c. software functions
d. process activities
Answer: C. software functions

45. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
a. information domain values
b. project schedule
c. software functions
d. process activities
Answer: A. information domain values

46. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
a. information domain values
b. project schedule
c. software functions
d. process activities
e. c and d
Answer: E. c and d

47. Unlike a LOC or function point each person’s “use-case” is exactly the same size
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

48. When agreement between estimates is poor the cause may often be traced to inadequately defined project scope or inappropriate productivity data.
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

49. Empirical estimation models are typically based on
a. expert judgement based on past project experiences
b. refinement of expected value estimation
c. regression models derived from historical project data
d. trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
Answer: C. regression models derived from historical project data

50. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that require sizing information expressed as:
a. function points
b. lines of code
c. object points
d. any of the above
Answer: D. any of the above

51. Putnam’s software equation is a dynamic empirical model that has two independent parameters: a size estimate and an indication of project duration in calendar months or years.
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

52. Function points are of no user in developing estimates for object-oriented software.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

53. In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the time required to complete each
a. increment
b. scenario
c. task
d. use-case
Answer: A. increment

54. It is possible to use a modified function point technique to develop estimates for Web applications.
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

55. Using a statistical technique like decision tree analysis can provide some assistance in sorting out the true costs associated with the make-buy decision.
a. True
b. False
Answer: A. True

56. Outsourcing always provides a simple means of acquiring software at lower cost than onsite development of the same product.
a. True
b. False
Answer: B. False

57. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
Answer: d
Explanation: Function points and COCOMO are used to evaluate effort.

58. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast sample of projects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The Empirical data is derived from a limited sample of projects. For this reason, no estimation model is appropriate for all classes of software and in all development environments.

59. COCOMO stands for
a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model
Answer: a

60. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

61. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

62. Which one is not a size measure for software product?
a) LOC
b) Halstead’s program length
c) Function Count
d) Cyclomatic Complexity
Answer: d
Explanation: It is the part of white box testing.

63.COCOMO was developed initially by
a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal
Answer: c
Explanation: Barry Boehm introduced a hierarchy of software estimation models bearing the name COCOMO, for COnstructive COst MOdel.

64. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation depends on factors such as Function points and LOC.

65. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur
Answer: b

66. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model
Answer: a
Explanation: It was a part of COCOMO.

Module 4

1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
Answer: c

2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
Answer: d

4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
Answer: c
Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.

5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.

6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
Answer: d

8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.

9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.

11. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
Answer: b
Explanation: A modular system consist of well defined manageable units with well defined interfaces among the units.

12. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
Answer: d
Explanation: Modularity cannot bring benefits unless the modules are autonomous or independent.

13. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree to which each program module relies on each one of the other modules.

14. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: c
Explanation: The dependency between module A and B is said to be data coupled if their dependency is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.

15. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: c
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module A changes data of module B or when control is passed from one module to the middle of another.

16. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?
a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion
Answer: d
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in modules that contain instructions that have little or no relationship to one another.

17. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of cohesion in which the tasks performed by a software module all contribute to the performance of a single function.

18. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If the software is not properly modularized, a host of seemingly trivial enhancement or changes will result into death of the project.

19. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: b

20. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
Answer: b
Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by the fact that all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.

21. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Option b defines an Object Oriented Design.

22. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?
a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design
Answer:d

23. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b

24. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of
a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d

25. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect to Function Oriented Software Design.

26. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system
Answer:d
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the system in order to comply with the available system.

27. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?
a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b

28. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.
a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned with developing a model of the design which shows the dynamic structure.

29. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data processing activities.
a) True
b) False
Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design which focus on entities.

30. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by
a) Circle
b) Arrow
c) Rectangle
d) Triangle
Answer: a

31. Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In architectural design you design a system organization satisfying the functional and non-functional requirements of a system.

32. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system.
a) physical
b) logical
c) process
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A physical view is implemented by system engineers implementing the system hardware.

33. The UML was designed for describing _________
a) object-oriented systems
b) architectural design
c) SRS
d) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design
Answer: d
Explanation: The UML was designed for describing object-oriented systems and, at the architectural design stage, you often want to describe systems at a higher level of abstraction.

34. Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting processes at run time?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process
Answer: d
Explanation: This view is useful for making judgments about non-functional system characteristics such as performance and availability.

35. Which of the following is an architectural conflict?
a) Using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability
b) Introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult
c) Localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: High availability architecture can be affected by several design factors that are required to be maintained to ensure that no single points of failure exist in such design.

36. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?
a) type of application
b) distribution of the system
c) architectural styles
d) testing the system
Answer: d
Explanation: Architectural design decisions include decisions on the type of application, the distribution of the system, the architectural styles to be used, and the ways in which the architecture should be documented and evaluated.

37. Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Systems in the same domain often have similar architectures that reflect domain concepts.

38. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems?
a) architecture
b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
d) different operating system
Answer: c
Explanation: Model-View-Controller pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems.

39. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern
c) repository pattern
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The majority of systems that use large amounts of data are organized around a shared database or repository.

40. Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process
Answer: c
Explanation: It is possible to relate the system requirements to entities in a logical view.

41. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
a) Place the user in control
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: These golden rules actually form the basis for a set of user interface design principles that guide this important software design activity.

42. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?
a) Provide for flexible interaction
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c) Show technical internals from the casual user
d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Answer: c
Explanation: The user interface should move the user into the virtual world of the application.

43. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?
a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b) Interface design
c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
d) Interface validation
Answer: c
Explanation: These are the end user for whom the product is being built.

44. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant.
a) short-term memory
b) shortcuts
c) objects that appear on the screen
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The interface should be designed to reduce the requirement to remember past actions and results.

45. Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?
a) the design of interfaces between software components
b) the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information
c) the design of the interface between two computers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c

46. A software might allow a user to interact via
a) keyboard commands
b) mouse movement
c) voice recognition commands
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned input mediums are available today.

47. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on predefined design principles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true.

48. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image
Answer: a
Explanation: The requirements specification may establish certain constraints that help to define the user of the system, but the interface design is often only incidental to the design model.

49. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image
Answer: b
Explanation: To build an effective user interface, all design should begin with an understanding of the intended users, including their profiles of their age, physical abilities, education, etc.

50. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?
a) mental image
b) interface design
c) system image
d) interface validation
Answer: c
Explanation: When the system image and the system perception are coincident, users generally feel comfortable with the software and use it effectively.

51. Which of the following is not a construct?
a) sequence
b) condition
c) repetition
d) selection
Answer: d
Explanation: Sequence implements processing steps that are essential in the specification of any algorithm. Condition provides the facility for selected processing based on some logical occurrence, and repetition allows for looping.

52.Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table?
a) List all actions that can be associated with a specific procedure
b) List all conditions during execution of the procedure
c) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A decision table includes action stub and a condition stub with a set of rules.

53. _________ is a pidgin(simplified version of a language that develops as a means of communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common)
a) program design language
b) structured English
c) pseudocode
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between PDL and a real programming language lies in the use of narrative text embedded directly within PDL statements.

54. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The ability to represent local and global data is an essential element of component-level design.”?
a) Data representation
b) Logic verification
c) “Code-to” ability
d) Automatic processing
Answer: a

55. A software component
a) Implements some functionality
b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces
c) Communicates through its interfaces only
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options identify with features of a software component.

56. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that would not allow violation of the structured constructs?
a) State transition diagram
b) Box diagram
c) ER diagram
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the condition fails.
a) repeat until
b) condition
c) do while tests
d) if then-else
Answer: a

58. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box diagram?
a) functional domain
b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
c) recursion is easy to represent
d) providing a notation that translates actions and conditions
Answer: d
Explanation: This functionality is covered by UML diagrams.

59. The________ is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.
a) Repetition
b) Sequence
c) Condition
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

60. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “Notation that can be input directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.”?
a) Machine readability
b) Maintainability
c) Structure enforcement
d) Overall simplicity
Answer: a
Explanation: Readability is processing input.

61. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.

62. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.

63. Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model?
a) Static structural model
b) Dynamic process model
c) Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All these models reflects the basic strategy that is used to structure a system.

Module 5

1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.

2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.

5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.

7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.

8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
Answer: c

9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
Answer: a

10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
Answer: a

11. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

12. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.

13. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: c

14. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software engineering.

15. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer: a

16. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.

17. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

18. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.

19. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentione
Answer: b

20. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

21. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None

22. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.

23. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None

24. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.

25. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

26. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: a

27. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.

28. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely different domain.

29. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It is defined in all the mentioned options.

30. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: b

31. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?
a) Codeline
b) Configuration control
c) Version
d) Workspace
Answer: b
Explanation: In configuration control changes are managed and all versions of components are identified and stored for the lifetime.

32. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?
a) Change management
b) Version management
c) System building
d) Release management
Answer: a
Explanation: It involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking which components in the system have been changed.

33. Which of the following is not a Version management feature?
a) Version and release identification
b) Build script generation
c) Project support
d) Change history recording
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options are a part of version management.

34. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems?
a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes, continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code changes have been made.

35. Which of the following is not a build system feature?
a) Minimal recompilation
b) Documentation generation
c) Storage management
d) Reporting
Answer: c
Explanation: To reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management facilities.

36. Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system?
a) Version
b) Codeline
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which means that the versions of the components making up the system cannot be changed.

37. Which of the following is a configuration item?
a) Design & Test specification
b) Source code
c) Log information
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through formal procedure.

38. Which of the following is a part of system release?
a) electronic and paper documentation describing the system
b) packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
c) an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Release creation is the process of creating the collection of files and documentation that includes all of the components of the system release.

39. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as
a) System building
b) Mainline
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

40. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new codeline from a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching
b) Merging
c) Codeline
d) Mainline
Answer: a
Explanation: The code may then be developed independently.

41. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c

42. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People
Answer: a
Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors, stakeholders, users each having different views on the product. So it does not affect the software quality.

43. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Answer: d
Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component or process possesses an attribute.

44. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency is an indirect measure.

45. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect measures of a product.

46. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage
Answer: c

47. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors
Answer: d
Explanation: FPA includes five domains namely input, output, inquiries, interface and logical files.

48. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

49. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Others options are formulas.

50. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project
Answer: c
Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).

51. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.

52. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code
Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.

53. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written on functions points since then.

54. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
Answer: c
Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal Logical Files and External Interface Files.

55. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.

56. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner workings of a particular software component.

57. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i
Answer: d
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly invoked by module i.

58. SMI stands for
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator
Answer: b

59. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product begins to stabilize.

60. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a

61. Size and Complexity are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Product Metrics describe the characteristics of product.

62. Cost and schedule are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project characteristics and execution.

63. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a
a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process possesses a given attribute.

64. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors?
a) Flexibility
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Integrity
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors.

65. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
a) maximum number of nodes at any level
b) longest path from the root to a leaf
c) number of modules
d) lines of control
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of control.

66. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics
Answer: c
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High level design metrics.

67. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b

68. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a measure.

69. MTTC falls the the category of
a) correctness
b) integrity
c) maintainability
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the time it takes to analyze the change request, design an appropriate modification, implement the change, test it, and distribute the change to all users.

70. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)].
d) Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)].
Answer: d

71. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Failure costs are those that would disappear if no defects appeared before shipping a product to customers.

72. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of conformance to requirements is lack of quality.

73. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options support a SQA plan.

74. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

75. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Answer: a
Explanation: External failure costs are associated with defects found after the product has been shipped to the customer.

76. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Answer: c
Explanation: It is associated prevention cost.

77. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

78. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Errors lead to faults

79. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of quality includes all costs incurred in the pursuit of quality or in performing quality-related activities.

80. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

81 .Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: d

82 . Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

83. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :b

84. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

85. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Ans : a

86. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Ans: c

87. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c

88. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that
they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a

89. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: d

90. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Ans : a

91. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Ans: a

92. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Ans : d

93. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: a

94. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to
six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Ans: c

95. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Ans: b

96. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality
Answer: a

97. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b

Module 6

1. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences between given input and expected output.

2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible paths through the module.

3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior over time. It contains lower and upper limits.

4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.

5. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component. Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.

6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Answer: c
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.
testing .

7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box technique.

8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.

9. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and checks the output with expected output.

10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete. Minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.

11. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: White-box testing is a method of testing software that tests internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality .

12. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Adhoc testing is used term for software testing performed without planning and documentation. The tests are intended to be run only once, unless a defect is discovered.

13. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Answer: d
Explanation: Acceptance testing is a test conducted to determine if the requirements of a specification or contract are met and is done by users.

14. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Performance testing is in general testing performed to determine how a system performs in terms of responsiveness and stability under a particular workload.

15. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In beta testing the user evaluates the product and gives his feedback.

16. SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: SPICE stands for Software Process Improvement and Control Determination.

17. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit testing is a method by which individual units of source code, sets of one or more computer program modules together with associated control data, usage procedures, and operating procedures are tested to determine if they are fit for use.

18. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings.

19. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values.

20. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: KLOC and function points both can be used as size measurement for measuring the size of the software.

21. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Software Testing is a set of such activities.

22. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

23. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of an independent test group (ITG) is to remove the inherent problems
associated with letting the builder test the thing that has been built.

24. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: It answers questions like: “When are we done with testing?”.

25. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are carried out for the purpose.

26. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Test cases should uncover errors such as all the explained options and much more.

27. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error
Answer: a
Explanation: Actually, error description does not provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error.

28. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
Answer: b
Explanation: After source level code has been developed, reviewed, and verified for correspondence to component level design, unit test case design begins.

29. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
Answer: d
Explanation: Regression testing may be conducted manually, by re-executing a subset of all test cases or using automated capture or playback tools

30. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Smoke testing is designed as a pacing mechanism for time-critical projects, allowing the software team to assess its project on a frequent basis.

31. The architecture of object-oriented software results in a series of layered subsystems that encapsulate collaborating classes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is necessary to test an OO system at a variety of different levels in an effort to uncover errors that may occur as classes collaborate with one another and subsystems communicate across architectural layers.

32.The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of
a) design model
b) analysis model
c) code levels
d) both design and analysis model
Answer: d
Explanation: It is due to the evolutionary nature of the OO software engineering paradigm, these models begin as relatively informal representations of system requirements and evolve into detailed models of classes, class connections and relationships, system design and allocation, and object design.

33. Which testing integrates the set of classes required to respond to one input or event for the system?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Each thread is integrated and tested individually. Regression testing is applied to ensure that no side effects occur.

34. Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Here, a cluster of collaborating classes is exercised by designing test cases that attempt to uncover errors in the collaborations.

35. __________ methods can be used to drive validations tests
a) Yellow-box testing
b) Black-box testing
c) White-box testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Black-box testing methods are as appropriate for OO systems as they are for systems developed using conventional software engineering methods.

36. Which of the following is a part of testing OO code?
a) Validation tests
b) Integration tests
c) Class tests
d) System tests
Answer: c

37. The object of ___________within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.
a) Fault-based testing
b) Integration testing
c) Use-based testing
d) Scenario-based testing
Answer: a
Explanation: The object of fault-based testing within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible faults.

38. What refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program?
a) Deep structure
b) Surface structure
c) Core structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface structure refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program which is immediately obvious to an end-user.

39. _____________ categorizes class operations based on the generic function that each performs.
a) Category-based partitioning
b) Attribute-based partitioning
c) State-based partitioning
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: For example, operations in the account class can be categorized in initialization operations (open, setup), computational operations (deposit,withdraw) etc.

40. Which of the following is black-box oriented and can be accomplished by applying the same black-box methods discussed for conventional software?
a) Conventional testing
b) OO system validation testing
c) Test case design
d) Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing
Answer: d

41. Standard Enforcer is a
a) Static Testing Tool
b) Dynamic Testing
c) Static & Dynamic Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Static Testing tools are those that perform analysis of the the program without executing them at all.

42. Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for
a) Non-Code Source Statement
b) Non Comment Source Sentence
c) Non-Comment Source Statement
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

43. Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing standards in a uniform way of many programs?
a) Static Analyzer
b) Code Inspector
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer
Answer: d
Explanation: A standard enforcer is just like a code inspector, except that the rules are generally simpler. Standard enforcer looks at only single statements while the static analyzer looks at whole programs.

44. Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as
a) alpha testing
b) beta testing
c) regression testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Beta testing is the last stage of testing, and normally can involve sending the product to beta test sites outside the company for real-world exposure or offering the product for a free trial download over the Internet.

45. Which of the following testing tools examine program systematically & automatically ?
a) Code Inspector
b) Static Analyzer
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Coverage Analyzer
Answer: b
Explanation: A static analyzer operates from a pre-computed database o descriptive information derived from the source text of the program.

46. Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs ?
a) Test/File Generator
b) Test Harness System
c) Test Archiving Systems
d) Coverage Analyzer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.

47. Beta Testing is done by
a) Developers
b) Testers
c) Users
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

48. Standard enforcer tool looks at the whole program.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: This tool looks at only single statements.

49. Debugging Program is a program which runs concurrently with the program under test & provide commands to
a) examine memory & registers
b) stop execution at a particular point
c) search for references for particular variables, constant and registers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.

50. Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known as
a) Test File Generator
b) Coverage Analyzer
c) Output Comparator
d) Test Harness System
Answer: b

51. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality Management is also called software quality assurance (SQA) which serves as an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.

52. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: This focuses on how well the implementation follows the design and how well the resulting system meets its requirements .

53. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Answer: d
Explanation: Inspections, equipment calibration, maintenance and testing appraisal costs is quality management.

54. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of x and y?
a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists
Answer: c
Explanation: The Pareto principle (also known as the 80–20 rule) states that, for many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.

55. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Answer: c
Explanation: The Six Sigma uses data and statistical analysis to measure and improve a company’s operational performance .

56. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Answer: b
Explanation: It is an additional step added for existing processes and can be done in parallel.

57. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Given a set of valid requirements, all software failures can be traced to design or implementation problems.

58. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Software reliability uses statistical analysis to determine the likelihood that a software failure will occur; however, the failure may not necessarily result in a hazard or mishap.

59. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation gap between the client and the developer often leads to software defects.

60. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Answer: b
Explanation: This includes rework, repair, and failure mode analysis.

61. In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information that can be extracted from the source code?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) direction level
Answer: c

62. In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an abstraction level?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) directionality
Answer: b

63. The core of reverse engineering is an activity called
a) restructure code
b) directionality
c) extract abstractions
d) interactivity
Answer: c
Explanation: The engineer must evaluate the old program and extract a meaningful specification of the processing that is performed, the user interface that is applied, and the program data structures or database that is used.

64. What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every type?
a) GUIs
b) Candidate keys
c) Object model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Therefore, the redevelopment of user interfaces has become one of the most common types of re-engineering activity. But before a user interface can be rebuilt, reverse engineering should occur.

65. Forward engineering is also known as
a) extract abstractions
b) renovation
c) reclamation
d) both renovation and reclamation
Answer: d
Explanation: Forward engineering, also called renovation or reclamation , not only recovers design information from existing software, but uses this information to alter or reconstitute the existing system in an effort to improve its overall quality.

66. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its
a) GUI
b) Database
c) Source code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None

67. Reverse engineering techniques for internal program data focus on the definition of classes of objects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is accomplished by examining the program code with the intent of grouping related program variables.

68. Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model:
a) Build an initial object model
b) Determine candidate keys
c) Refine the tentative classes
d) Discover user interfaces
Answer: d
Explanation: Once information defined in the preceding steps is known, a series of transformations can be applied to map the old database structure into a new database structure.

69. Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing the external manifestation of the existing
a) candidate keys
b) interface
c) database structure
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The GUI or the interface provides the base for the behavioral model.

70. Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called
a) data analysis
b) directionality
c) data extraction
d) client applications
Answer: a

71. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: This focuses on how well the implementation follows the design and how well the resulting system meets its requirements.

72. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The characteristic that designers specify for an item are cover in quality of design.

73. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
Answer: a

74. In which of the following testing strategies, a smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object?
a) Unit testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

75. Which of the following testing types is not a part of system testing?
a) Recovery testing
b) Stress testing
c) System testing
d) Random testing
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a testing method at class level.

76. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha testing is done at developer’s end while beta testing is done at user’s end.

77. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Its verification, while validation refers to a different set of tasks that ensure that the software that has been built is traceable to customer requirements.

78. Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are equivalent processes of software engineering.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Re engineering is a process of analysis and change whereby a system is modified by first reverse engineering and then forward engineering.

79. Transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as
a) Re-factoring
b) Restructuring
c) Forward engineering
d) Both Re-factoring and Restructuring
Answer: d

80. Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering?
a) to reduce maintenance effort
b) to cope with complexity
c) to avoid side effects
d) to assist migration to a CASE environment
Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse engineering helps us to detect side effects rather than avoiding them.

81. What are the problems with re-structuring?
a) Loss of comments
b) Loss of documentation
c) Heavy computational demands
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Restructuring doesn’t help with poor modularisation where related components are dispersed throughout the code.

82. Which of the following is not a module type?
a) Object modules
b) Hardware modules
c) Functional modules
d) Process support modules
Answer: a
Explanation: Except option a all other are module types.

83. Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a) Internal data structures
b) Database structures
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

84. Forward engineering is not necessary if an existing software product is producing the correct output.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Forward engineering refers to taking a high-level model and using it to build a more complex lower-level implementation.

85. Which of the following is not an example of a business process?
a) designing a new product
b) hiring an employee
c) purchasing services
d) testing software
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a part of development phase.

86. Which of the following is a data problem?
a) hardware problem
b) record organisation problems
c) heavy computational demands
d) loss of comments
Answer: b
Explanation: Records representing the same entity may be organised differently in different programs.

87. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
b) when system crashes frequently
c) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete
d) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance
Answer: c
Explanation: Re-engineering involves putting in the effort to make the system easier to maintain.

88. Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ?
a) Cost reduction
b) Time reduction
c) Maintainability
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: No such goal is mentioned which is not a business goal, so option d is correct here.

89. Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured?
a) Higher quality programs
b) Reduced maintenance effort
c) Software easier to test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

90. Data re-engineering may be part of the process of migrating from a file-based system to a DBMS-based system or changing from one DBMS to another.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Data re-engineering involves analyzing and reorganizing the data structures in a program.

91. BPR stands for
a) Business process re-engineering
b) Business product re-engineering
c) Business process requirements
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

92. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique?
a) Data re-engineering
b) Refactoring
c) Restructuring
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Restructuring involves automatic conversion from unstructured to structured code.

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