## [MCQ] Kinematics of Machinery

#### Module 1

1. When the nature of contact between the element of a pair is such that it can only slide relative to the other, the pair is known as a
a) screw pair
b) spherical pair
c) turning pair
d) sliding pair

2. When the nature of contact between the element of a pair is such that it can turn or revolve about a fixed axis, the pair is known as a rolling pair.
a) True
b) False

3. When the nature of contact between the element of a pair is such that one element can turn abut the other by screw threads, the pair is known as a
a) screw pair
b) spherical pair
c) turning pair
d) sliding pair

4. A sliding pair has a completely constrained motion.
a) True
b) False

5. Which of the following is an example of sliding pair?
a) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
b) Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
c) Lead screw of a lathe with nut
d) Ball and a socket joint

6. The ball and socket joint is an example of screw pair.
a) True
b) False

7. Which of the following is an open pair?
a) Ball and socket joint
b) Journal bearing
d) Cam and follower

8. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a
a) rolling pair
b) sliding pair
c) screw pair
d) turning pair

9. Which of the following is a turning pair?
a) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
b) Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
c) Lead screw of a lathe with nut
d) Ball and a socket joint

10. When the two elements of a pair have a surface contact when relative motion takes place and the surface of one element slides over the surface of the other, the pair formed is known as a
a) lower pair
b) higher pair
c) self-closed pair
d) force-closed pair

11. When the two elements of a pair have _____________ when in motion, it is said to a lower pair.
a) line or point contact
b) surface contact
c) permit relative motion
d) none of the mentioned

12. The two elements of a pair are said to form a higher pair, when they
a) have a surface contact when in motion
b) have a line or point contact when in motion
c) are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in motion
d) permit relative motion

13. In a force-closed pair, the two elements of a pair are not held together mechanically.
a) True
b) False

14. The two elements of a pair are said to form a ___________ when they permit relative motion between them.
a) open pair
b) kinematic pair
c) higher pair
d) lower pair

15. In an open pair, the two elements of a pair
a) have a surface contact when in motion
b) have a line or point contact when in motion
c) are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in motion
d) are not held mechanically

16. The sliding pairs, turning pairs and screw pairs form lower pairs.
a) True
b) False

17. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between the links is completely constrained, is called a
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) kinematic chain
d) inversion

18. The relation between number of pairs(p) forming a kinematic chain and the number of links(l) is
a) l = 2p – 2
b) l = 2p – 3
c) l = 2p – 4
d) l = 2p – 5

19. The relation between number of links(l) and number of joints(j) in a kinematic chain is
a) l = 1/2 (j+2)
b) l = 2/3 (j+2)
c) l = 3/4 (j+2)
d) l = j+4

20. The relation l = 2/3(j+2) apply to kinematic chains in which lower pairs are used. This may be used to kinematic chains in which higher pairs are used, but each higher pair may be taken as equivalent to
d) all of the mentioned

21. The relation between the number of links(l) and the number of binary joints(j) for a kinematic chain having constrained motion is given by j = 3/2 (l – 2). If the left hand side of this equation is greater than the right hand side, then the chain is
a) locked chain
b) completely constrained chain
c) successfully constrained chain
d) incompletely constrained chain

22. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is equivalent to
a) one binary joint
b) two binary joints
c) three binary joints
d) four binary joints

23. A chain consisting of four links and four joints is called a kinematic chain.
a) True
b) False

24. In a steam engine, the link constitutes a
a) piston, piston rod and cross-head
b) connecting rod with big and small end brasses, caps and bolts
c) crank pin, crankshaft and flywheel
d) all of the mentioned

25. A mechanism is a assemblage of
c) four or more than four links
d) all of the mentioned

26. A mechanism consisting more than four links is called a compound mechanism.
a) True
b) False

27. A mechanism consisting of four links is called a _____________ mechanism.
a) simple
b) compound
c) inversion
d) none of the mentioned

28. A mechanism ______________ for transmitting or transforming motion.
a) can be used
b) can not be used
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

29. When a mechanism is required to transmit power or to do some particular type of work, then it becomes a machine.
a) True
b) False

30. When one of the links of a kinematic chain is fixed, the chain is known as a
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) inversion
d) machine

31. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following number of links
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

32. Which of the following mechanisms produces mathematically an exact straight line motion?
a) Grasshopper mechanism
b) Watt mechanism
c) Peaucellier’s mechanism
d) Tchabichiff mechanism

33. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed. If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain, then relative motion of other links
a) will remain same
b) will change
c) will not occur
d) none of the mentioned

34. A kinematic chain requires at least
a) 2 links and 3 turning pairs
b) 3 links and 4 turning pairs
c) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
d) 5 links and 4 turning pairs

35. In a drag link quick return mechanism, the shortest link is always fixed. The sum of the shortest and longest link is
a) equal to sum of other two
b) greater than sum of other two
c) less than sum of other two
d) none of the mentioned

36. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism
a) whitworth quick return mechanism
b) hand pump
c) oscillating cylinder engine
d) all of the mentioned

37. Kinematic pairs are those which have
a) two elements held together mechanically
b) two elements having relative motion
c) two elements having Coroli’s component
d) none of the mentioned

38. According to criterion of constraint by A.W. Klein
a) J + 1/2 H = 3/2L – 2
b) H + 1/2J = 2/3L – 2
c) J + 1/2H = 3/2L – 1
d) J + 3/2H = 1/2L – 2

39. A quarternary joint is equivalent to
a) one binary joint
b) two binary joints
c) three binary joints
d) four binary joints

40. A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of binary joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The mechanism is
a) kinematically sound
b) not sound
c) soundness would depend upon which link is kept fixed
d) none of the mentioned

41. The approximate straight line mechanism is a

42. Open pairs are those which have
a) point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
b) surface contact between the two elements when in motion
c) elements of pairs not held together mechanically
d) two elements that permit relative motion

43. Peaucellier mechanism has

44. Hart mechanism has

45. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it kinematic chain?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It is a marginal case
d) None of the mentioned

46. In the following equation [ L = 2/3(J + 2)] to determine whether or not the given chain in kinematic, higher pair is treated equivalent to
d) none of the mentioned

47. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is
a) bulky
b) difficult to manufacture
c) wears rapidly
d) both a and c

48. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism
a) two links should be fixed
b) one link should be fixed
c) none of the links should be fixed
d) there is no such criterion

49. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point rotates and transmits oscillatory motion to a link whose one end is pivoted and other end is connected to it. This mechanism has

50. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained by inversion of
a) slider crank mechanism
b) kinematic chain
d) roller cam mechanism

51. The number of degrees of freedom of a planer linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

52. A palnar mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary joints. The number of degrees of freedom of the mechanism, using Grubler’s criterion, is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

53. Match the approaches given below to perform stated kinematics/dynamics analysis of machine.
Analysis Approach
P. Continuous relative rotation 1. D’Alembert’s principle
Q. Velocity and acceleration 2. Grubler’s criterion
R. Mobility 3. Grashof’s law
S. Dynamic-static analysis 4. Kennedy’s theorem
a) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
b) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
c) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
d) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3

54. Which of the following statements is incorrect
a) Grashof’s rule states that for a planar crank-rocker four bar mechanism, the sum of the shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of the remaining two link lengths.
b) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links one at a time.
c) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device.
d) Gruebler’s criterion assumes mobality of a planar mechanism to be one.

55. In a four bar linkage, s denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P and Q are the lengths of other two links. At least one of the three moving links will rotate by 360° if
a) S + L < P + Q
b) S + L > P + Q
c) S + P < L + Q
d) S + P > L + Q

56. The number of inversions for a slider crank mechanism is
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3

57. The mechanism used in a shaping machine is
a) A closed 4bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
b) A closed 6bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
c) A closed 4bar chain having 2 revolute and 2 sliding pairs
d) An inversion of single slider crank chain

58. Match the following
Types of mechanism Motion achieved
P. Scott Russel mechanism 1. Intermittent motion
Q. Geneva mechanism 2. Quick return motion
R. Off set slider crank mechanism 3. Simple harmonic motion
S. scotch Yoke mechanism 4. Straight line motion
a) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
b) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
c) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
d) P-4,Q-3,R-1,S-2

59. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is equivalent to
a) one binary joint
b) two binary joint
c) three binary joint
d) four binary joint

60. When supported on three points, out of 12 degrees of freedom the number of degrees of freedom arrested in a body is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

61. Which of the following instruments is used to draw ellipses?
a) Elliptical trammels
b) Slotted lever and crank
c) Gnome engine
d) Oldham’s coupling

62. Elliptical trammels are used to convert reciprocating motion into rotary motion.
a) True
b) False

63. How inversion is obtained in an elliptical trammel?
a) Fixing the slotted plate
b) Fixing the sliders
c) Fixing the turning pairs
d) Fixing the pin

64. In the given figure, 1 and 2 are sliders, 3 is a bar and 4 is a fixed slotted plate, identify the mechanism. a) Elliptical trammel
b) Scotch yoke mechanism
c) Oldham’s coupling
d) Gnome engine

65. In the given figure if P is not the midpoint of the line connecting 1 and 2, what is the locus of P? a) Ellipse
b) Straight line
c) Parabola
d) Rectangular hyperbola

66. In the given figure if P is the midpoint of the line connecting 1 and 2, what is the locus of P? a) Ellipse
b) Circle
c) Parabola
d) Rectangular hyperbola

67. Which of the mechanism is used to convert rotary motion into a reciprocating motion?
a) Elliptical trammel
b) Scotch yoke mechanism
c) Oldham’s coupling
d) Gnome engine

68. In Scotch yoke mechanism, the crank is fixed in order to obtain the inversion.
a) True
b) False

69. Which of the following mechanism is used for connecting two parallel shafts whose axes are at a small distance apart?
a) Elliptical trammel
b) Scotch yoke mechanism
c) Oldham’s coupling
d) Gnome engine

70. Which of the following link is fixed to obtain inversion in Oldham’s coupling?
a) Driving shaft
b) Flange
c) Supporting frame
d) Driven shaft

71. How many turning pairs are there in a double slider crank chain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

72. A double slider crank chain has one pair of each sliding and turning pairs.
a) True
b) False

.
73. How many sliding pairs are there in a double slider crank chain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

74. In which of the following mechanisms inversion is obtained by fixing the cylinder?
a) Pendulum pump
b) Gnome engine
c) Double slider crank chain
d) Oscillating cylinder

75. Which of the following is not an inversion of double slider crank chain?
a) Elliptical trammels
b) Scotch yoke mechanism
c) Oldham’s coupling
d) Gnome engine

#### Module 2

1. Which of the following is an exact straight line mechanism?
a) Scott Russell’s mechanism
b) Watt’s mechanism
c) Grasshopper mechanism
d) Robert’s mechanism

2. Scott Russell’s mechanism is very important for practical purposes.
a) True
b) False

3. Which of the following mechanisms is an approximate straight line mechanism?
a) Scott Russell’s mechanism
b) Watt’s mechanism
c) Gnome engine
d) Oscillating engine

4. Which of the following mechanism forms an elliptical trammel?
a) Modified Scott Russell’s mechanism
b) Watt’s mechanism
c) Gnome engine
d) Oscillating engine

5. Which of the following mechanisms has the form of trapezium in its mean position?
a) Scott Russell’s mechanism
b) Watt’s mechanism
c) Grasshopper mechanism
d) Robert’s mechanism

6. Which of the following mechanisms was used in early days to give long stroke with a very short crank?
a) Scott Russell’s mechanism
b) Watt’s mechanism
c) Grasshopper mechanism
d) Robert’s mechanism

7. In Scott Russell’s mechanism the straight line motion is generated.
a) True
b) False

8. The quick return mechanism which is an inversion of 4-bar linkage is
b) Whitworth quick return mechanism
c) Crank and slotted lever mechanism
d) None of the mentioned

9. Match list I with list II
List I List II
A. Pantograph 1. Scotch yoke mechanism
B. Single slider crank 2. Double lever mechanism
C. Double slider crank chain 3. Tchebicheff’s mechanism
D. Straight line motion mechanism 4. Double crank
5. Hand pump
a) A-4,B-3,C-5,D-1
b) A-2,B-5,C-1,D-3
c) A-2,B-1,C-5,D-3
d) A-4,B-5,C-2,D-1

10. Match list I with list II
List I List II
A. Scott-Russel 1. Intemittent mechanism motion
B. Geneva 2. Quick return mechanism motion
C. Offset slider crank 3. Simple motion harmonic mechanism
D. Scotch Yoke 4. Straight line mechanism motion

a) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
b) A-3,B-2,C-4,D-1
c) A-4,B-1,C-2,D-3
d) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2

11. When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number of degrees of freedom which are arrested is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 7
d) 8

12. Match list I with list II

Type of joint Motion constrained
A. Revolute 1. Three
B. Cylindrical 2. Five
C. Spherical 3. Four
4. Two
5. Zero
a) A-1,B-3,C-2
b) A-5,B-4,C-3
c) A-2,B-3,C-1
d) A-4,B-5,C-3

13. The number of binary links, number of binary joints and number of ternary joints in Peaucelliar mechanism is
a) 6,6,0
b) 8,2,4
c) 8,4,2
d) 8,8,0

14. The number of degree of freedom of a planer linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

15. The following list of statements is given:
1) Grashoff’s rule states that for a planar crank-rocker 4-bar mechanism, the sum of the shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of the remaining two link lengths.
2) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links, one at a time.
3) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device.
16. Grubler’s criterion assumes mobility of a planar mechanism to be one.

The number of correct statements in the above list is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

17. A mechanism has 8 links, out of which 5 are binary, 2 are ternary and 1 is quaternary. The number of instantaneous centres of rotation will be
a) 28
b) 56
c) 62
d) 66

18. In a dynamically equivalent system, a uniformly distributed mass is divided into
a) Three point masses
b) Four point masses
c) Two point masses
d) Infinite point masses

19. A crank and slotted lever mechanism used in a shaper has a centre distance of 300 mm between the centre of oscillation of the slotted lever and the centre of rotation of the crank. The radius of the crank is 120 mm. Find the ratio of the time of cutting to the time of return stroke.
a) 1.62
b) 1.72
c) 1.82
d) 1.92

20. The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is directly proportional to the distances from the points to the instantaneous centre.
a) True
b) False

21. The velocity of the instantaneous centre relative to any third rigid link will be different.
a) True
b) False

22. When the pin connects one sliding member and the other turning member, the angular velocity of the sliding member is __________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

23. In a slider crank mechanism, the velocity of piston becomes maximum when
a) Crank and connecting rod are in line with each other
b) Crank is perpendicular to the line of stroke of the piston
c) Crank and connecting rod are mutually perpendicular
d) Crank is 1200 with the line of stroke

24. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical is called
a) caster
b) camber
c) toe-in
d) toe-out

25. In the steering gear, a gear sector or toothed roller is meshed with a
a) ball bearing
b) roller bearing
c) worm
d) steering wheel

26. The only service that a steering linkage normally requires is
b) lubrication
c) ball-joint replacement
d) none of the mentioned

27. Caster action on the front wheels of a vehicle will
a) make it easier for the driver to take corners
b) help reduce the load on the king-pins
c) automatically achieve the straight wheel position
d) none of the mentioned

28. Too much toe-in will be noticed by
a) excessive tyre wear because of taking corners
b) steering wander
c) feathering of tyres
d) light steering

29. Hard steering is a result of
c) too loose front wheel bearings
d) incorrect lubricant

30. Excessive play or looseness in the steering system is caused by
a) worn out front wheel bearings
b) broken or bent steering arms or knuckles
c) too tight spherical ball joints
d) insufficient lubricant

31. Erratic steering is caused due to
a) worn out brake lining
b) broken or bent steering arms or knuckles
c) too tight spherical ball joints
d) insufficient lubricant

32. Wheel wobbles occur due to
a) inoperative stabilizer
b) wheel out of balance
c) bent kin-pin
d) bent steering knuckle

33. Wheel wobbling can be fixed by
b) repairing the stabilizer
c) replacing kin-pin
d) replacing brake lining

34. Hard steering can be fixed by
a) replacing the bent or broken parts
b) replacing worn out parts
c) tightening the loose bearings
d) none of the mentioned

35. Erratic steering can be adjusted by
a) replacing worn out parts
b) replacing the brake lining
c) tightening the loose bearings
d) none of the mentioned

36. Excessive play can be fixed by
a) replacing the bent or broken parts
b) replacing the brake lining
c) tightening the loose bearings
d) none of the mentioned

#### Module 3

1. Which is the false statement about the properties of instantaneous centre?
a) at the instantaneous centre of rotation, one rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another for the configuration of mechanism considered
b) the two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous centre
c) the two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative to each other at this centre have the same linear velocity to the third rigid link
d) the double centre can be denoted either by O21 or O12, but proper selection should be made

2. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on
a) right side pivot of this link
b) left side pivot of this link
d) none of the mentioned

3. The total number of instantaneous centers for a mechanism of n links is
a) n(n – 1)/2
b) n
c) n – 1
d) n(n – 1)

4. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
a) 4,4
b) 4,5
c) 5,4
d) 4,6

5. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centres lie on
a) a triangle
b) a point
c) two lines
d) a straight line

6. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. O will be
a) parallel to OA
b) perpendicular to OA
c) at 450 to OA
d) along AO

7. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when
a) the mass of two are same
b) c.g. of two coincides
c) M.I. of two about an axis through c.g. is equal
d) all of the mentioned

a) OP
b) OQ
c) PQ
d) line in between OP and OQ

9. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any other point on the mechanism on velocity polygon is represented by the line
a) joining the corresponding points
b) perpendicular to line
c) at 450 to line
d) none of the mentioned

10. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a link about center of rotation O is
a) along PO
b) perpendicular to PO
c) at 450 to PO
d) none of the mentioned

11. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the
a) centripetal component of acceleration with length of link
b) tangential component of acceleration with length of link
c) resultant acceleration with length of link
d) all of the mentioned

12. The instantaneous centre is a point which is always fixed.
a) True
b) False

13. The angular velocity of a rotating body is expressed in terms of
a) revolution per minute
c) any one of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

14. The linear velocity of a rotating body is given by the relation
a) v = rω
b) v = r/ω
c) v = ω/r
d) v = ω2/r

15. The linear acceleration of a rotating body is given by the relation
a) a = rα
b) a = r/α
c) a = α/r
d) a = α2/r

16. The relation between linear velocity and angular velocity of a cycle
a) exists under all conditions
b) does not exist under all conditions
c) exists only when it does not slip
d) exists only when it moves on horizontal plane

17. The velocity of piston in a reciprocating pump mechanism depends upon
a) angular velocity of the crank
c) length of the connecting rod
d) all of the mentioned

18. The linear velocity of a point B on a link rotating at an angular velocity ω relative to another point A on the same link is
a) ω2AB
b) ωAB
c) ω(AB)2
d) ω/AB

19. The linear velocity of a point relative to another point on the same link is ……….. to the line joining the points.
a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) at 450
d) none of the mentioned

20. According to Kennedy’s theorem the instantaneous centres of three bodies having relative motion lie on a
a) curved path
b) straight line
c) point
d) none of the mentioned

21. The instantaneous centers of a slider moving in a linear guide lies at
a) pin joints
b) their point of contact
c) infinity
d) none of the mentioned

22. The instantaneous centers of a slider moving in a curved surface lies at
a) infinity
b) their point of contact
c) the center of curvature
d) the pin point

23. The fixed instantaneous center of mechanism
a) varies with the configuration
b) remains at the same place for all configurations
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

24. The instantaneous center of rotation of a circular disc rolling on a straight path is
a) at the center of the disc
b) at their point of contact
c) at the center of gravity of the disc
d) at infinity

25. The locus of instantaneous center of a moving body relative to a fixed body is known as the
a) space centrode
b) body centrode
c) moving centrode
d) none of the mentioned

26. The space centrode of a circular disc rolling on a straight path is
a) circle
b) parabola
c) a straight line
d) none of the mentioned

27. The component of the acceleration directed towards the center of rotation of a revolving body is known as ____________ component.
a) tangential
b) centripetal
c) coriolis
d) none of the mentioned

28. At an instant the link AB of length r has an angular velocity ω and an angular acceleration α. What is the total acceleration of AB?
a) [(ω2r)2 + αr)2]1/2
b) [(ωr)2 + αr)2]1/2
c) [(ω2r)2 + αr)]1/2
d) [(ω2r)2 + αr)2]1/2

29. At an instant, if the angular velocity of a link is clockwise then the angular acceleration will be
a) clockwise
b) counterclockwise
c) in any direction
d) none of the mentioned

30. Angular acceleration of a link AB is given by
a) centripetal acceleration/length
b) tangential acceleration/length
c) total acceleration/length
d) none of the mentioned

31. A slider moves with uniform velocity v on a revolving link of length r with angular velocity of ω. The Coriolis acceleration component of a point on the slider relative to a coincident point on the link is equal to
a) 2rω parallel to the link
b) 2ωv perpendicular to the link
c) 2rω perpendicular to the link
d) 2ωv parallel to the link

32. A point is moving at the end of the link rotating with constant angular velocity ω, what will be the value of tangential component of acceleration?
a) 0
b) ω2R
c) Infinite
d) ω2R/2

33. The tangential component of acceleration is maximum when the link rotates with a constant angular velocity.
a) True
b) False

34. A point is moving at the end of the link rotating with constant angular velocity ω, what will be the value of radial component of acceleration?
a) 0
b) ω2R
c) Infinite
d) ω2R/2

35. In a slider crank mechanism, the crank rotates with a constant angular velocity of 300 rpm, Length of crank is 150mm, and the length of the connecting rod is 600mm. Determine linear velocity of the midpoint of the connecting rod in m/s. Crank angle = 45° from IDC.
a) 4.1
b) 4.4
c) 4.8
d) 5.2

36. In a slider crank mechanism, the crank rotates with a constant angular velocity of 300 rpm, Length of crank is 150mm, and the length of the connecting rod is 600mm. Determine acceleration of the midpoint of the connecting rod in m/s2. Crank angle = 45° from IDC.
a) 117
b) 144
c) 148
d) 252

37. What will be the shape of the velocity diagram of the slider crank mechanism if there are three links including the slider.
a) Triangle
b) Parallelogram
c) Square
d) Trapezium

38. If the normal component of the acceleration is doubled, what will be the effect on the radial component?
a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) Remains same
d) Becomes 4 times

39. If the body is not rotating with a constant angular velocity then there are both radial and tangential component of acceleration.
a) True
b) False

40. In the given figure, the direction of radial velocity vector and angular velocity is given what will be the direction of coriolis force? a) Along the radial velocity vector
b) Opposite to radial velocity vector
c) Perpendicular to radial velocity vector towards right
d) Perpendicular to radial velocity vector towards left

41. Coriolis component of acceleration exists when there is relative motion between two points from the ground frame.
a) True
b) False

42. Calculate the coriolis component of acceleration in m/s2 from the following data:
v = 2 m/s
R = 1 m
a) 24
b) 12
c) 36
d) 6

43. Which component of acceleration is parallel to the given link?
b) Tangential
c) Coriolis
d) Pseudo

44. Which of the following mechanism will have coriolis component?
a) Quick return motion mechanisms
b) Slider crank mechanism
c) Four bar chains
d) Gnome engine

45. Which component of acceleration is parallel to the velocity of given link?
b) Tangential
c) Coriolis
d) Pseudo

#### Module 4

1. The size of a cam depends upon
a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) prime circle
d) pitch curve

2. The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve is called
a) pitch angle
b) prime angle
c) base angle
d) pressure angle

3. A circle drawn with centre as the cam centre and radius equal to the distance between the cam centre and the point on the pitch curve at which the pressure angle is maximum, is called
a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) prime circle
d) none of the mentioned

4. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is
a) knife edge follower
b) flat faced follower
c) spherical faced follower
d) roller follower

5. The cam follower extensively used in air-craft engines is
a) knife edge follower
b) flat faced follower
c) spherical faced follower
d) roller follower

6. In a radial cam, the follower moves
a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
b) in a direction parallel to the cam axis
c) in any direction irrespective of the cam axis
d) along the cam axis

7. A radial follower is one
a) that reciprocates in the guides
b) that oscillates
c) in which the follower translates along an axis passing through the cam centre of rotation.
d) none of the mentioned

8. Ofset is provided to a cam follower mechanism to
a) minimise the side thrust
b) accelerate
c) avoid jerk
d) none of the mentioned

9. For low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) uniform velocity
b) simple harmonic motion
c) uniform acceleration and retardation
d) cycloidal motion

10. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) uniform velocity
b) simple harmonic motion
c) uniform acceleration and retardation
d) cycloidal motion

11. Which of the following displacement diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic performance of a cam-follower mechanism ?
a) simple hormonic motion
b) parabolic motion
c) cycloidal motion
d) none of the mentioned

12. The linear velocity of the reciprocating roller follower when it has contact with the straight flanks of the tangent cam, is given by
a) ω(r1-r2)sinθ
b) ω(r1-r2)cosθ
c) ωr1+r2)sinθsec2θ
d) ω(r1+r2)cosθcosec2θ

13. The displacement of a flat faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a circular arc cam, is given by
a) R(1-cosθ)
b) R(1-sinθ)
c) (R-r1)(1-cosθ)
d) (R-r1)(1-sinθ)

14. The retardation of a flat faced follower when it has contact at the apex of the nose of a circular arc cam, is given by
a) ω2×OQ
b) ω2×OQsinθ
c) ω2×OQcosθ
d) ω2×OQtanθ

15. When the flanks of the cam are straight and tangential to the base circle and nose circle, then the cam is known as a ____________
a) Tangent cam
b) Reciprocating cam
c) Roller cam

16. Tangent cam with reciprocating follower is an example of cams with specified contours.
a) True
b) False

17. Tangent cams are symmetric about __________
a) Centre line of cam shaft
b) Tangent line of cam shaft
c) Radial line of cam shaft
d) Along the roller

18. What is the use of tangent cams?
a) To operate inlet and exhaust valves of I C engines.
b) To operate the inlet valve of I C engines
c) To operate the exhaust valve of I C engines
d) To operate the crankshaft of an IC engine

19. In the given figure, the cam has contact with _______ a) Nose
b) Straight flank
c) Arm
d) Shaft

20. If θ is the angle turned by the cam from the beginning of the roller displacement, then minimum acceleration pf the follower occurs at what value of θ in degrees?
a) 0
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60

21. From the given data, calculate the acceleration of follower in m/s2 at the beginning of the lift for a symmetrical tangent cam operating a roller follower.
Least radius of the cam is 30 mm; Roller radius is 17.5 mm. The angle of ascent is 75° and the total lift is 17.5 mm. The speed of the cam shaft is 600 r.p.m.
a) 187.6
b) 185.5
c) 183.2
d) 190.1

22. Maximum acceleration of the follower is independent of the angle theta.
a) True
b) False

23. In the given figure, the cam has contact with _______ a) Base circle
b) Nose
c) Straight flank
d) Shaft

24. If θ is the angle turned by the cam from the beginning of the roller displacement, how the velocity changes with the change in theta?
a) Increases with increase in theta
b) Decreases with increase in theta
c) Increases with negative change in theta
d) Independent of theta

25. The given figure is a velocity time diagram for which of the follower motion? a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform retardation

26. For a follower Simple Harmonic Motion having a small period of dwell at the beginning of motion, the jerk is 0.
a) True
b) False

27. The given figure is a velocity time diagram for which of the follower motion? a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform retardation

28. Which of the following motion is not suitable from a practical point of view?
a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform retardation

29. If a follower is undergoing simple harmonic motion, then at what value of angle of ascent the acceleration is maximum?
a) 0
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60

30. The given figure is a velocity time diagram for which of the follower motion? a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform acceleration and retardation

31. Which of the following motion is used only up to moderate speeds?
a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform acceleration and retardation

32. While constructing cam profile, Kinematic inversion is used.
a) True
b) False

33. From the given figure below, at what value of theta(angle of ascent) the acceleration will be maximum? a) 0
b) 30
c) 60
d) Constant acceleration

34. Which of the following motion has the maximum number of infinite jerks in one rotation of the cam shaft?
a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform acceleration and retardation

35. When the flanks of the cam connecting the base circle and nose are of convex circular arcs, then the cam is known as _______
a) Circular frame cam
b) Tanget arc cam
c) Tangent frame
d) Circular arc cam

36. The size of cam is independent of the base circle.
a) True
b) False

37. On which of the following factors does the pressure angle of the cam does not depend?
a) Offset between centre lines of follower and cam
b) Angle of ascent
c) Lift of the follower
d) Shape of cam

38. If φ is the angle of action of cam on the circular flank, and r1 is the base circle of the cam, then the maximum velocity of the follower is given by the equation.
a) ω(R-r1)sin φ
b) ω(R+r1)sin φ
c) ω(R-r1)cos φ
d) ω(R+r1)cos φ

39. If φ is the angle of action of cam on the circular flank, and r1 is the base circle of the cam, then the maximum acceleration of the follower is given by the equation.
a) ω2(R-r1)
b) ω2(R+r1)sin φ
c) ω2(R-r1)cos φ
d) ω2(R+r1)cos φ

40. If φ is the angle of action of cam on the circular flank, and r1 is the base circle of the cam, then the minimum acceleration of the follower is given by the equation.
a) ω2(R-r1)
b) ω2(R+r1)sin φ
c) ω2(R-r1)cos φ
d) ω2(R+r1)cos φ

41. Flat faced follower’s acceleration when in contact with a circular arc cam is given by _________
a) ω2(R-r1)
b) ω2(R+r1)sin φ
c) ω2(R-r1)cos φ
d) ω2(R+r1)cos φ

42. The maximum acceleration of the follower occurs when the angle of action of cam on the circular flank is 90 degrees
a) True
b) False

#### Module 5

1. In a cone pulley, if the sum of radii of the pulleys on the driving and driven shafts is constant, then
a) open belt drive is recommended
b) crossed belt drive is recommended
c) both open belt drive and crossed belt drive is recommended
d) the drive is recommended depending upon the torque transmitted

2. Due to slip of belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive increases.
a) True
b) False

3. When two pulleys of different diameters are connected by means of an open belt, the angle of contact at the _________pulley must be taken into consideration.
a) smaller
b) larger
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

4. The power transmitted by a belt is maximum when the maximum tension in the belt is __________of centrifugal tension.
a) one-third
b) two-third
c) double
d) three times

5. The velocity of the belt for maximum power is
a) T/3
b) T.g/3
c) √T/3m
d) √3m/T

6. The centrifugal tension on the belt has no effect on the power transmitted.
a) True
b) False

7. V-belts are usually used for
a) long drives
b) short drives
c) long and short drives
d) none of the mentioned

8. In a multiple V-belt drive, if one of the belt is broken, then we should replace
a) the broken belt only
b) all the belts
c) the broken belt and the belts on either side of it
d) none of the mentioned

9. The included angle for the v-belt is usually
a) 100 to 200
b) 200 to 300
c) 300 to 400
d) 600 to 800

10. The included angle for the V-belt is usually
a) 20° – 30°
b) 30° – 40°
c) 40° – 60°
d) 60° – 80°

11. The V-belts are particularly suitable for _____________ drives.
a) short
b) long
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

12. The groove angle of the pulley for V-belt drive is usually
a) 20° – 25°
b) 25° – 32°
c) 32° – 38°
d) 38° – 45°

13. A V-belt designated by A-914-50 denotes
a) a standard belt
b) an oversize belt
c) an undersize belt
d) none of the mentioned

14. The wire ropes make contact at
a) bottom of groove of the pulley
b) sides of groove of the pulley
c) sides and bottom of groove of the pulley
d) any where in the groove of the pulley

15. Which of the following statements are correct regarding power transmission through V-belts?
(i) V-belts are used at the high-speed end.
(ii) V-belts are used at the low-speed end.
(iii) V-belts are of standard lengths.
(iv) V-angles of pulleys and belts are standardized.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

16. The creep in a belt drive is due to the
a) material of the pulleys
b) material of the belt
c) unequal size of the pulleys
d) unequal tension in tight and slack sides of the belt

17. In order to have a good grip on the pulley, the V-belt should touch the bottom of the groove in the pulley.
a) True
b) False

18. What is the purpose of using steel chains?
a) To avoid slipping
b) To avoid friction
c) To avoid accelerated motion
d) To avoid jerks

19. The chains are made up of rigid links which are hinged together in order to avoid flexibility for warping around the driving and driven wheels.
a) True
b) False

20. The toothed wheels in chain drives are known as ______
a) Sprockets
b) Sprockers
c) V-belt
d) V- chain

21. Which of the following is true regarding chain drives?
a) The chain drives may be used when the distance between the shafts is less
b) The production cost of chains is relatively low
c) The chain drive needs low maintenance
d) The chain drive has no velocity fluctuations

22. The distance between hinge centres of two corresponding links is known as _______
a) Pitch
b) Pitch circle diameter
c) Sprocket length
d) Sprocker diameter

23. In the figure given below, what the quantity ‘p’ is known as _________ a) Pitch
b) Pitch circle diameter
c) Sprocket length
d) Sprocker diameter

24. The diameter of the circle on which the hinge centres of the chain lie is known as _______
a) Pitch
b) Pitch circle diameter
c) Sprocket length
d) Sprocker diameter.

25. Pitch of the chain lies on the arc of the pitch circle.
a) True
b) False

26. Which of the following chains fall under the category of hoisting and hauling chains?
b) Closed joint chain
c) Detachable chain
d) Block chain

27. Which of the following chain is used to provide elevation continuosly?
a) Conveyor chains
b) Power transmitting chains
c) Hoisting chains
d) Hauling chains

28. Which of the following chains are used for transmission of power, when the distance between the centres of shafts is short?
b) Closed joint chain
c) Detachable chain
d) Block chain

29. The advantages of the V-belt drive over flat belt drive are
a) The V-belt drive gives compactness due to the small distance between the centres of pulleys.
b) The drive is positive, because the slip between the belt and the pulley groove is negligible.
c) Since the V-belts are made endless and there is no joint trouble, therefore the drive is smooth.
d) all of the mentioned

30. The disadvantages of the V-belt drive over flat belt drive are
a) The V-belt drive cannot be used with large centre distances.
b) The V-belts are not so durable as flat belts.
c) The construction of pulleys for V-belts is more complicated than pulleys for flat belts.
d) all of the mentioned

31. The advantages of the V-belt drive over flat belt drive are
a) It provides longer life, 3 to 5 years.
b) It can be easily installed and removed.
c) The operation of the belt and pulley is quiet.
d) all of the mentioned

32. The disadvantages of the V-belt drive over flat belt drive are
a) Since the V-belts are subjected to certain amount of creep, therefore these are not suitable for constant speed application such as synchronous machines, and timing devices.
b) The belt life is greatly influenced with temperature changes, improper belt tension and mismatching of belt lengths.
c) The centrifugal tension prevents the use of V-belts at speeds below 5 m/s and above 50m/s.
d) all of the mentioned

33. The distance between the hinge centre of a link and the corresponding hinge centre of the adjacent link is called
a) pitch of the chain
b) bush roller chain
c) block chain
d) none of the mentioned

34. Industrial rotors will not have uniform diameter throughout their lengths.
a) True
b) False

a) True
b) False

36. Which one of the following is a positive drive?
a) Crossed flat belt drive
b) Rope drive
c) V-belt drive
d) Chain drive

37. The chain drive transmits ____________ power as compared to belt drive.
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

38. The relation between the pitch of the chain (p) and pitch circle diameter of the sprocket (D) is given by
a) p = D sin(900/T)
b) p = D sin(1200/T)
c) p = D sin(1800/T)
d) p = D sin(3600/T)

39. In order to have smooth operation, the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket, for moderate speeds, should be
a) 15
b) 17
c) 21
d) 25

40. The speed of the sprocket reduces as the chain pitch _____________ for a given number of teeth.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned

41. The greater angle of articulation will increase the life of the chain.
a) True
b) False

#### Module 6

1. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft. This arrangement is called
a) spur gearing
b) helical gearing
c) bevel gearing
d) spiral gearing

2. The type of gears used to connect two non-parallel non-intersecting shafts are
a) spur gears
b) helical gears
c) spiral gears
d) none of the mentioned

3. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action, gives the same motion as the actual gear, is called
b) dedendum circle
c) pitch circle
d) clearance circle

4. The size of a gear is usually specified by
a) pressure angle
b) circular pitch
c) diametral pitch
d) pitch circle diameter

5. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth, is called
a) dedendum
c) clearance
d) working depth

6. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
a) 1
b) 1/π
c) π
d) 2π

7. The module is the reciprocal of
a) diametral pitch
b) circular pitch
c) pitch diameter
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which is the incorrect relationship of gears?
a) Circular pitch × Diametral pitch = π
b) Module = P.C.D/No.of teeth
c) Dedendum = 1.157 module

9. If the module of a gear be m, the number of teeth T and pitch circle diameter D, then
a) m = D/T
b) D = T/m
c) m = D/2T
d) none of the mentioned

10. Mitre gears are used for
a) great speed reduction
b) equal speed
c) minimum axial thrust
d) minimum backlash

11. The two parallel and coplaner shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft. This arrangement is known as
a) spur gearing
b) helical gearing
c) bevel gearing
d) spiral gearing

12. The arrangement is called bevel gearing, when two __________ are connected by gears.
a) tension in the tight side of the belt
b) tension in the slack side of the belt
c) sum of the tensions on the tight side and slack side of the belt
d) average tension of the tight side and slack side of the belt

13. When two non-intersecting and non-coplaner shafts are connected by gears,the arrangement is known as helical gearing.
a) True
b) False

14. The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their peripheral velocity is
a) 1-3 m/s
b) 3-15 m/s
c) 15-30 m/s
d) 30-50 m/s

15. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action, gives the same motion as the actual gear, is called
b) dedendum circle
c) pitch circle
d) clearance circle

16. The size of a gear is usually specified by
a) pressure angle
b) circular pitch
c) diametral pitch
d) pitch circle diameter

17. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called
a) dedendum
c) clearance
d) working depth

18. The addendum is the radial distance of tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth.
a) True
b) False

19. The working depth of a gear is radical distance from the
a) pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth
b) pitch circle to the top of a tooth
c) top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
d) addendum circle to the clearance circle

20. The radial distance from the top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth in a meshing gear, is called
a) dedendum
c) clearance
d) working depth

21. In a simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will
a) be same as that of driving gear
b) be opposite as that of driving gear
c) depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear
d) none of the mentioned

22. The train value of a gear train is
a) equal to velocity ratio of a gear train
b) reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train
c) always greater than unity
d) always less than unity

23. When the axes of first and last gear are co-axial, then gear train is known as
a) simple gear train
b) compound gear train
c) reverted gear train
d) epicyclic gear train

24. In a clock mechanism, the gear train used to connect minute hand to hour hand, is
a) epicyclic gear train
b) reverted gear train
c) compound gear train
d) simple gear train

25. In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move relative to a fixed axis, is called
a) simple gear train
b) compound gear train
c) reverted gear train
d) epicyclic gear train

26. A differential gear in an automobile is a
a) simple gear train
b) epicyclic gear train
c) compound gear train
d) none of the mentioned

27. A differential gear in automobilies is used to
a) reduce speed
b) assist in changing speed
c) provide jerk-free movement of vehicle
d) help in turning

28. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a
a) reverted gear train
b) simple gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear

29. The working depth of an involute gear is equal to
b) dedendum

30. Tooth thickness on pitch line of involute gear in terms of module (m) is equal to
a) 1.157 m
b) 1.167 m
c) 2 m
d) 1.5708

31. To split the engine torque in two ways, which of the following device is used?
a) Clutch
b) Brake
c) Final drive
d) Differential

32. Two wheelers are also equipped with a differential.
a) True
b) False

33. Which of the following device allows the wheels of a car to rotate at two different speeds?
a) Clutch
b) Brake
c) Final drive
d) Differential

34. Which of the following is true regarding a differential?
a) The outer wheel rotates at a higher speed than the inner wheel
b) The outer wheel rotates at a lower speed than the inner wheel
c) Both the wheels rotate at the same speed
d) Front wheels rotate at a lower speed than rear wheel

35. The ratio of speeds between gears is dependent upon the _________
a) Ratio of teeth between the two adjoining gears
b) Ratio of teeth between the two alternate gears
c) Ratio of acceleration
d) Ratio of velocity

36. On a straight road motion, what is the purpose served by differential?
a) Equal torque to all the wheels
b) More torque to front wheels
c) More torque to rear wheels
d) More torque to opposite wheels

37. Input torque acts on which of the following member?
a) Driven member
b) Driving member
c) Fixed member
d) Reciprocating member

38. Resisting torque acts on which of the following member?
a) Driven member
b) Driving member
c) Fixed member
d) Reciprocating member

39. Braking torque acts on which of the following member?
a) Driven member
b) Driving member
c) Fixed member
d) Reciprocating member

40. If the input power is increased to two times, what will be the effect of it on the fixed member power?
a) Has a 0 value
b) Increases by two times
c) Increases by 4 times
d) Decreases by two times

41. If the ratio of angular velocities of the driven and driving torque is one, find the Braking torque
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

42. The angular speed of the driven member is twice the driving member, if the input torque is 100 N-m,
Find the load torque magnitude in N-m.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 200
d) 25

43. Fixing torque’s value is independent of the load torque.
a) True
b) False

44. Load torque is directly proportional to the input angular velocity.
a) True
b) False

45. The gears used for parallel shaft arrangement are
a) mitre gear
b) face gear
c) spur gears on helical gears
d) none of the mentioned

46. _____________ are the gears used for intersecting shaft arrangement.
a) bevel gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned

47. ________________ are gears used for skew arrangement.
a) spur gears on helical gears
b) helical, worm, or hypoid gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned

48. Bevel gears used for connecting intersecting shafts at 900 and having speed ratio 1 : 1 is known as
a) bevel gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned

49. Tapered involute gears which can couple intersecting shafts, skew shafts, and parallel shafts are known as
a) bevel gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned

50. Gears having teeth cut on the rotating face plane of the gear and mate with standard involute spur gears are known as
a) mitre gear
b) face gear
c) spur gears on helical gears
d) none of the mentioned

51___________ gears are used for obtaining large speed reduction between non-intersecting shafts making an angle of 900 with each other.
a) worm gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned

52. Bevels connecting shafts other than 900 are
a) worm gears
b) angular bevel gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned

53. Bevels connecting non-intersecting shafts are
a) skew bevel gears
b) angular bevel gears
c) mitre gears
d) none of the mentioned