1. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application data tables stored?
a. PSFIELD
b. PSRECFIELD
c. PS_DBFIELD
d. PSDBFIELD
Answer:d

2. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?
a. SYSTEM CATALOG
b. PEOPLETOOLS TABLES
c. APPLICATION TABLES
d. PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG
Answer:b

3. Where is the Application Data Cached?
a. Application server
b. Web server
c. Batch server
d. Browser Cache
e. None
Answer:e

5. What is the record field property that should be set to validate dates for <> 30 days?
a. Setting %Date as constant
b. Required
c. Specifying Default using Record and Field values
d. Reasonable date
e. Validate date
Answer:d

6. Prompt Tables always validate against the underlying Record?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer:b

7. What are the requirements of an effective dated table?
a. Define EFFDT
b. Define EFF_STATUS
c. Define EFFDT as key, in ascending order
d. Define EFFDT, EFF_STATUS
e. Define EFFDT as key, in descending order
Answer:e

8. EFFDT cannot occur at what occurs levels?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
Answer:a

9. What type of a field can have Auto Update?
a. CHAR
b. LONG CHAR
c. DATE
d. IMAGE
e. NUMBER
Answer:c

10. PeopleSoft tracks object changes using a system table. Which PeopleTools System table is used to track object changes?
a. SYSRELEASE
b. SYSOBJECTS
c. PSRELEASE
d. PSOBJECTS
e. PSVERSIONS
Answer:c

11. Selecting Search Edit from Record Field Properties?
a. Validates a field for Data to be entered on save of search dialog.
b. Allows to edit the search key.
c. Searches Edit fields for some values.
d. Option available only for Alternate Search Keys
Answer:a

12. When can a value be added in the underlying table?
a. Prompt Table with Edit
b. Translate Table Edit
c. Yes/No Edit
d. Prompt Table with No Edit
e. All of the above
Answer:d

13. Which of the following record definitions is NOT stored on the database and is therefore NOT required to be built?
a. View
b. SQL Table
c. Derived/Work Record
d. Sub Record
e. Query View
Answer:d,e

14. Which of the following programs is NOT used in PS SA system?
(a) Crystal
(b) Cobol
(c) SQR
(d) Powerbuilder
Answer: (d) Powerbuilder

16. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between running a process on Client and on Server?
(a) Client runs locally, whereas Server runs off PSUNX server
(b) Client runs off main server, whereas Server runs locally
(c) Client runs for reports, whereas Server runs for processes
(d) Client runs for interfaces, whereas Server runs for online transactions
Answer: (a) Client runs locally, whereas Server runs off PSUNX server

17. Which of the following demonstrates the sequential flow in generating a Statement of Account?
(a) Create Billing Request -> Print Crystal Bill -> Process Bill Request
(b) Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request -> Print Crystal Bill
(c) Print Crystal Bill -> Process Bill Request -> Create Billing Request
(d) Print Crystal Bill -> Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request
Answer: (b) Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request -> Print Crystal Bill

18. Which of the following fields needs to be populated when creating a billing request?
(a) Address Usage
(b) Item Due Info Term
(c) Class Schedule
(d) Aid Term From
Answer: (a) Address Usage

19. Which of the following fields does NOT exist on the Student Bank Information panel?
(a) Bank Code
(b) Branch Code
(c) Bank Account Number
(d) Bank Account Type
Answer: (d) Bank Account Type

20. Which of the following is the equivalent term to Actual Day of Debit (i.e. date where bank processes
the GIRO deduction)?
(a) Value Date
(b) Value Day
(c) Value Month
(d) Value Period
Answer: (a) Value Date

21. What is the frequency of running SingPost interface?
(a) Twice a day
(b) Once a day
(c) 4 times a week
(d) Once a fortnight
Answer: (b) Once a day

22. Which of the following processes is NOT run as a batch?
(a) Tuition Calculation
(b) Accounts Payable
(c) Quick Posting
(d) Group Posting
Answer: (c) Quick Posting

23. Which role in ITE has access to Payment Reversal panel?
(a) CPM
(b) EA/FA Dept
(c) Section Heads
(d) EA/IDS Dept
Answer: (a) CPM

24. What process is required prior to performing a charge reversal?
(a) Verify student’s account
(b) Verify student’s academic program status
(c) Verify student’s last date of attendance
(d) Verify student’s CCA participation
Answer: (a) Verify student’s account

25. Special Students’ Assistance Scheme (SSAS) is only for
(a) EDU Local Malay
(b) EDU Local Chinese
(c) CET Local Malay
(d) CET Local Chinese
Answer: (b) EDU Local Chinese

26. When SSAS panel is saved, how many records are inserted into Student Groups record?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer: (b) 2

27. What is the flow of roles involved when an EDU student wants to withdraw from term?
(a) Student -> Class Advisor -> Counter Staff -> Section Head
(b) Student -> Class Advisor -> Section Head -> Counter Staff
(c) Student -> Section Head -> Class Advisor -> Counter Staff
(d) Student -> Counter Staff -> Section Head -> Class Advisor
Answer: (b) Student -> Class Advisor -> Section Head -> Counter Staff

28. Which of the following roles does NOT use Third Party Contracts?
(a) Admissions Officer / ITEHQ
(b) CET Program Officer / ITEHQ
(c) IDS Officer / ITEHQ
(d) FAO / ITEHQ
Answer: (d) FAO / ITEHQ

29. When is a Refund Service Indicator being used?
(a) To allow special refunds
(b) To refund students who have bad service indicators
(c) To prevent refund temporarily
(d) To cancel refund
Answer: (c) To prevent refund temporarily

30. Which of the following is NOT an External Organisation ID?
(a) RCB Number
(b) ROS Number
(c) MOE School Code
(d) Trade Union Code
Answer: (d) Trade Union Code

31. Which of the following is NOT covered in Student Financials?
(a) Waivers, Sponsorship, Grants
(b) Defaulted Payments
(c) Billing of companies
(d) Raising and printing a payment voucher
Answer: (d) Raising and printing a payment voucher

32. What is the process that interfaces the refund entries from PS SA system to PS Financials system?
(a) Accounts Payable Interface
(b) General Ledger Interface
(c) SingPost Interface
(d) Payment Interface
Answer: (a) Accounts Payable Interface

33. What is credit history used for?
(a) Track debtors
(b) Track GIRO applicants
(c) Track EDU students
(d) Track students who have refunds
Answer: (a) Track debtors

34. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable payment mode?
(a) GIRO
(b) Credit Card
(c) SAM
(d) Internet Cash Card
Answer: (b) Credit Card

35. Which of the following BEST describes refunds processing?
(a) Refunds are initiated by Class Advisors
(b) Refunds are due date driven and triggered by events
(c) Refunds are approved by Section Heads
(d) Refunds are reasons driven and triggered by events
Answer: (b) Refunds are due date driven and triggered by events

36. Who is responsible for the fee configuration in ITE?
(a) MAO (Management and Accounting Officer)
(b) FAO (Finance and Accounting Officer)
(c) TSO (Technical Support and Operations Officer)
(d) HAU (Head of Administrative Unit)
Answer: (b) FAO (Finance and Accounting Officer

37. What is the use of setting up Adjustment Calendars?
(a) Holds the refund policy of an organisation
(b) Holds the calculation rules of an organisation
(c) Holds the payment reversal rules of an organisation
(d) Holds the due dates of an organisation
Answer: (a) Holds the refund policy of an organisation

38. What is the flow of configure a term fee?
(a) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Criteria -> Term Fee
(b) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Term Fee -> Criteria
(c) Term Fee -> Criteria -> Adj Calendar -> Due Date Calendar
(d) Criteria -> Term Fee -> Adj Calendar -> Due Date Calendar
Answer: (a) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Criteria -> Term Fee

39. Which of the following is NOT an interface in Student Financials?
(a) SingPost
(b) GIRO
(c) AP
(d) Student Groups
Answer: (d) Student Groups

40. Which of the following is NOT an action resulting in a refund?
(a) Term Withdrawal
(b) Career Change
(c) Drop Module
(d) Add Module
Answer: (d) Add Module

41. Which of the following is NOT a payment mode starting Apr 2002?
(a) vPOST
(b) GIRO
(c) SAM
(d) Counter Service at SingPost
Answer: (a) vPOST

42. Which of the following is NOT a ITE EDU charge?
(a) Supplementary Fee
(b) Locker Fee
(c) Course Fee
(d) Examination Fee
Answer: (b) Locker Fee

43. Which of the following BEST describes Term Start Date?
(a) Date when enrolment completes
(b) Date when term activation begins
(c) Date when term activation ends
(d) Date when enrolment starts
Answer: (c) Date when term activation ends

44. Which of the following is NOT a variable when defining criteria?
(a) Academic Program
(b) Academic Plan
(c) Enrolment Date
(d) Campus
Answer: (c) Enrolment Date

45. Which of the following program fees is NOT charged by credit unit?
(a) F0ELE
(b) C2ACR
(c) T8COS
(d) F5BVT
Answer: (d) F5BVT

46. How many tuition groups are defined in PS SA system?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer: (c) 8

47. What is Quick Post NOT used for in ITE?
(a) Waiver – ITE Sponsored Staff
(b) Charge – OAP Module
(c) Payment
(d) Refund
Answer: (d) Refund

48. Which of the following is NOT a student group in CET career?
(a) SSAS
(b) ITE Alumni
(c) ITE Sponsored Staff
(d) ITE Local Malay
Answer: (a) SSAS

49. Online tuition calculation is used when
(a) A top up student matriculates, enrolls and pay over the counter
(b) Student drops module over the web
(c) Student submits term withdrawal request over the web
(d) An EDU student matriculates over the counter
Answer: (a) A top up student matriculates, enrolls and pay over the counter

50. What is the printout that follows quick posting?
(a) Payment Slip
(b) Receipt
(c) Payment Acknowledgement Slip
(d) Invoice cum Receipt
Answer: (c) Payment Acknowledgement Slip

51. When a balance is positive, what does it mean?
(a) Student has credited account
(b) Student has an outstanding charge balance
(c) Student has refund amount
(d) Student has overpaid
Answer: (b) Student has an outstanding charge balance

52. Which of the following is NOT a waiver?
(a) Q2Pass Holders
(b) BEST above 40
(c) ITE Alumni
(d) TRN Sponsored students
Answer: (d) TRN Sponsored students

53. Which of the following is NOT a type of fee set up in PS SA system?
(a) Term Fee
(b) Module Fee
(c) Module Sub Fee
(d) Module List Fee
Answer: (c) Module Sub Fee

54. Which of the following fee is NOT refundable?
(a) Supplementary
(b) Registration
(c) Examination
(d) Course
Answer: (b) Registration

55. What is the proper flow in creating a student’s account?
(a) Quick Admit -> Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation
(b) Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation -> Quick Admit
(c) Quick Admit -> Tuition Calculation – > Quick Enroll
(d) Tuition Calculation -> Quick Enroll -> Quick Admit
Answer: (a) Quick Admit -> Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation

56. Which of the following payment mode is NOT transacted over the counter?
(a) NETS
(b) Cash Card
(c) Cheque
(d) GIRO
Answer: (d) GIRO

57. Which type of PeopleSoft database Table is PSRECDEFN?
a) Database Metadata
b) PeopleTools
c) System Catalog
d) PeopleSoft Application Data
Answer b

59. What should a user alter to change a password or create a hint for a forgotten password?
a) Access Profile
b) User Profile
c) Permission List
d) Role
e) Symbolic ID
Answer b

60. Which action requires a two-tier connection to PeopleSoft 8?
a) Running an upgrade/copy in Application Designer
b) Updating a user profile in Maintain Security
c) Setting the default database type in Configuration Manager
d) Executing a query defined in PeopleSoft Query
e) Updating the personal data record for an employee
Answer a

61. Which three PeopleCode events are associated with Record Field locations? (Choose three)
a) SaveEdit
b) RowSave
c) FieldEdit
d) RowDelete
e) ScrollEdit
Answer a,c,d

62. You have made customizations in the development database and need to move them to the
production database. Which tool should you use to move the customizations?
a) Upgrade Assistant
b) Application Designer
c) Application Engine
d) Import Manager
e) SQR
Answer b

64. According to PeopleSoft recommendations, you apply a newly acquired Application Designer Project
from an update or a fix into which database?
a) Application update
b) Development
c) Demo
d) Production
Answer c

65. The Connect ID is used to _____.
a) Maintain a JOLT connection between the Web Server and Application Server
b) Create a direct connection to the Batch Server
c) Create a direct connection to the Web Server
d) Create a shared ID used to connect directly to the database
e) Connect to an external
Answer d

66. Where are the query definitions stored in the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture?
a) A File Server directory
b) The Database Server as an object
c) A file on the Web Server
d) The client machine in the browser cache
e) The Application Server cache
Answer b

67. A client has completed a PeopleTools upgrade and is now testing Query. The client notices that one
SQL query is taking one hour to complete when it completed in two minutes in the previous
environment. What should you do to solve this problem?
a) Set the JVM Heap size so that the Java Garbage Collector will not be invoked frequently
b) Delete the Process Scheduler cache
c) Re-create the index for the record that the query is running against
d) Bounce the Application Server
e) Reconfigure the PSAPPSRV.cfg file
Answer c

68. The Application Engine (AE) state record _____.
a) Passes values to the PeopleSoft Process Scheduler
b) Passes values from one Action to another
c) Stores AE source code
d) Stores application data
Answer b

69. You create a PeopleSoft Menu Definition for a Page and then grant access to users to view the Page.
Which class or classes of database tables are impacted by this step?
a) The PeopleTools Tables and System Catalog Tables
b) The System Catalog Tables only
c) The PeopleTools Tables only
d) The Application Data Tables only
e) The System Catalog Tables and Application Data Tables
Answer c

70. You must view a Business Process Map when a client asks you to _____.
a) Change the mapping of the data
b) Create a report with data from multiple tables
c) Add a field to a table
d) Change a corporate logo on a page
e) Tell the client what to do after terminating an employee
Answer e

71. A user logs in to PeopleTools 8.4 Application Designer, which points to an HCM database in 3-tier
mode. The user tries to navigate to the Workforce Administration menu but cannot see it. Why can the
user NOT get to the Workforce Administration menu?
a) The user does not have the appropriate permissions.
b) PeopleSoft applications are no longer accessible in 3-tier mode.
c) The Application Server is down.
d) The Configuration Manager was set up incorrectly.
Answer b

72. A client wants to use new images with the newly implemented PeopleSoft 8 HRMS module. Where
should you store the images?
a) File Server
b) Application Server
c) Batch Server
d) Web Server
e) Database Server
Answer e

73. When referring to security and privileges granted to a user, what is the behavior of multiple Roles
and the privileges granted by them?
a) All access is rolled up to the maximum allowable privilege.
b) All access is rolled down to the lowest level of privilege.
c) Access privileges are defaulted to Dynamic Roles.
d) Access privileges are defaulted to the Primary Role.
e) Multiple Roles are not allowed.
Answer a

74. Where is the default style sheet specified for system-wide access to PeopleSoft using the portal or
PeopleSoft Internet Architecture servlets?
a) In Configuration Manager
b) In Application Designer
c) In PeopleTools Options on the PeopleTools Utilities menu
d) In Setup > Security Links on the Maintain Security menu
e) On the Web server in the Web root directory
Answer c

75. A customer wants to apply only a critical fix to resolve an application error that is halting production.
The company is three months behind in applying all the posted patches and fixes and there are
numerous prerequisites to applying each fix. How can you guarantee that a prerequisite will NOT be
missed?
a) Apply the patches only for modules that the client uses
b) Apply the latest PeopleSoft patch only
c) Upgrade or install to the most current PeopleTools release
d) Apply the patches for licensed modules only
e) Apply all applicable PeopleSoft service packs
Answer e

76. After the Component Processor updates the database, which PeopleCode event is fired?
a) SaveEdit
b) SavePostChange
c) SavePreChange
d) SearchSave
Answer b

77. What is the data retrieval method for a query to be displayed in Oracle?
a) Explain Plan
b) Execution Plan
c) Retrieval Plan
d) Access Path
e) Query Plan
Answer a

78. How many message nodes can a database have defined within it?
a) Up to 10
b) As many as 1,000
c) An unlimited number
d) Only 1
Answer c

79. Which statement about PeopleSoft Internet Architecture is true?
a) PeopleSoft 8 is accessed from a browser running on a PC or a Macintosh computer
b) PeopleSoft 8 can be accessed by a cellular phone only if the wireless service provider uses PeopleSoft
Internet Architecture
c) PeopleSoft 8 is only accessed via a browser running on a PC with Windows
d) PeopleTools can be installed on a Macintosh computer
e) PeopleTools must be installed on the client’s computer to access PeopleSoft 8
Answer a

80. A client has multiple Application Servers and wants to use three Application Servers for failover.
Where should you make the customization?
a) Application Designer
b) Configuration.properties file
c) Configuration Manager
d) Psappsrv.cfg file
e) Psprcs.cfg file
Answer b

81. To enable JOLT failover and load balancing in the PIA using BEA WebLogic, you must edit the
configuration.properties by entering multiple Application Server domains to _____.
a) Psserver
b) AuthTokenDomain
c) Pswebservername
d) EnableReportRepository
Answer a

82. What resource is available to PeopleSoft partners who want to obtain implementation
documentation for an upcoming project?
a) Partner Connection
b) Partner Alliance
c) PeopleSoft University
d) Alliance Connection
e) PeopleSoft Connect
Answer d

83. To which two file formats can you download query results? (Choose two)
a) XLS
b) CSV
c) EXL
d) TXT
e) DOC
Answer a,b

84. What is a benefit of the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture browser-based deployment?
a) It offers a robust, scalable, client-centric architecture.
b) It is a PeopleTools Windows client built to run on the Internet.
c) It moves some of the code from the client to an Application Server.
d) It lowers training time because it operates like Windows.
e) It features an intuitive Web look and functions like Yahoo.
Answer e

85. Which statement about navigating PeopleSoft 8 applications is true?
a) The client workstation must be using Windows NT
b) A user profile must be set up prior to signon
c) PeopleSoft 8 must be installed on the client
d) Internet Explorer must be used to access PeopleSoft 8
e) The client workstation must be mapped to the Application Serve
Answer b

86. What are two valid ways to comment code in the PeopleCode editor? (Choose two)
a) // code
b) <* code *>
c) COMMENTS code
d) ! Code
e) /* code */
Answer b,e

87. When defining the properties of a Menu Item, what are Menu type options?
a) Separator, PeopleCode, or MenuGroup
b) Component, MenuBars, or MenuGroup
c) Page, BarItem, or MenuGroup
d) Page, MenuLabels, or MenuGroup
e) Component, PeopleCode, or Separator
Answer e

88. On which three RDBMS platforms does PeopleSoft support Unicode? (Choose three)
a) Oracle
b) IBM DB2 MVS
c) Microsoft SQL Server
d) Informix
e) IBM DB2/UDB
Answer a,c,e

89. Which statement about deferred processing is true?
a) It has no impact on performance for PeopleSoft applications accessed using the PeopleSoft Internet
Architecture
b) It can be selectively enabled or disabled for any field on a page, regardless of whether or not it is
enabled on Page and Component Definitions
c) It is effectively disabled if the attribute is not set in the Component Definition, regardless of the page
(and Page Field) settings
d) It can be disabled only by turning off the attribute on all Component and Page Definitions
e) It is relevant only to PeopleSoft applications accessed via the Windows client
Answer c

90. What are two valid values for the Optimizer mode in Oracle? (Choose two)
a) STATISTIC
b) COST
c) RULE
d) DATA_DIST
Answer b,c

91. Which two Web service solutions function only as proxy servers? (Choose two)
a) Microsoft IIS
b) IBM WebSphere
c) Apache
d) BEA WebLogic
Answer a,c

92. Which BEA product does PeopleSoft use to manage database transactions?
a) WebLogic
b) RDMS
c) JOLT
d) SQL
e) Tuxedo
Answer e

93. Which topics are covered by PeopleTools PeopleBooks?
a) Integration Broker, Process Scheduler, PeopleCode Developers guide, and Query
b) Data Mover, Query, Application Engine, and Developer’s Portal
c) Application Designer, PS/nVison, Customer Connection, and Administration Tools
d) Workflow, Upgrade Assistant, Compass Methodology, and Tree Manager
e) Security, PeopleTools Global Technology, Component Interfaces, and Payroll
Answer a

95. Which topic is contained in the PeopleTools PeopleBook?
a) Managing Workforce Data
b) PeopleSoft Table Loading Sequence
c) PeopleSoft Enterprise Warehouse
d) PeopleSoft General Ledger
e) PeopleSoft Upgrade Assistant
Answer e

96. What allows you to get a single result set from two or more separate queries at the same time?
a) Multiple Select
b) Union
c) Inner Join
d) Outer Join
e) Dynamic Where
Answer b

97. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application
data tables stored?
a) PSFIELD
b) PSRECFIELD
c) PS_DBFIELD
d) PSDBFIELD
Answer d

98. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?
a) SYSTEM CATALOG
b) PEOPLETOOLS TABLES
c) APPLICATION TABLES
d) PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG
Answer b

99. PeopleSoft has its own naming convention for system and non-system tables. In the list below,
RECORDNAME refers to the name of any table or record. Referring to the above information, which one
of the following identifies the naming convention PeopleSoft uses for system tables?
a) PS_RECORDNAME
b) SYSRECORDNAME
c) PS$RECORDNAME
d) PSRECORDNAME
e) SYS_PSRECORDNAME
Answer d

100. Where is the Application Data Cached?
a) Application server
b) Web server
c) Batch server
d) Browser Cache
e) None
Answer e

101. Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if
a. the item has several children
b. there is a deep bill of materials
c. the finished products are mostly services (rather than goods)
d. there is a clearly identifiable parent
Answer : D

102. Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that
a. for any product, all components are dependent-demand items
b. the need for independent-demand items is forecasted
c. the need for dependent-demand items is calculated
d. all of the above are true
Answer : D

103. A master production schedule specifies
a. the financial resources required for production
b. what component is to be made, and when
c. what product is to be made, and when
d. the labor hours required for production
Answer : C

104. The ______ is(are) the MRP input detailing which end items are to be produced, when they are needed, and in what quantities.
a. master production schedule
b. gross requirements
c. inventory records
d. assembly time chart
Answer : A

105. A master production schedule contains information about
a. quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies
b. quantities and required delivery dates of final products
c. inventory on hand for each sub-assembly
d. inventory on hand for each final product
Answer : B

106. In continuous (make-to-stock) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
a. end-items
b. modules
c. kits
d. customer orders
Answer : A

107. In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
a. end-items
b. modules
c. kits
d. customer orders
Answer : D

108. The following table is an example of a(n)
Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Week 5
Clothes Washer 200 100
Clothes Dryer 300 100 100 100
Upright Freezer 200 500
a. aggregate plan
b. load report
c. master production schedule
d. inventory record
Answer : C

109. The ______ is the input to Materials Requirements Planning which lists the assemblies,
subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product.
a. bill of materials
b. net requirements chart
c. inventory records
d. assembly time chart
Answer : A

110. A bill of materials lists the
a. times needed to perform all phases of production
b. production schedules for all products
c. components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item
d. operations required to produce an item
Answer : C

111. One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a large number of different final products is to use
a. planning bills
b. modular bills
c. phantom bills
d. overdue bills
Answer : B

112. The bill of materials contains information necessary to
a. convert (explode) net requirements at one level into gross requirements at the next level
b. calculate quantities on hand and on order
c. convert gross requirements into net requirements
d. place an order to replenish the item
Answer : A

113. Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom bills?
a. Both pertain to assemblies that are not inventoried.
b. There is no difference between the two.
c. Both pertain to assemblies that are inventoried.
d. Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom
bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventoried.
Answer : D

114. Given the following bill-of-materials:
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
a. 300
b. 100
c. 200
d. 250
Answer : A

115. The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
a. lower than 90%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 99%
Answer : D

116. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
Answer : A

117. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 30 units, and there are on hand 10 units of B and none of C, how many units of part D will be needed?
a. 3
b. 40
c. 70
d. 90
Answer : C

118. “Exploding” the bill of materials means
a. converting the bill of materials into components and raw material requirements
b. identifying the lead time of all the components
c. determining the various components’ quantities that are already on hand
d. determining the net requirements for all the components
Answer : A

119. Low level coding means that
a. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure
b. it is the code for the missing items
c. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure
d. the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOM’s are not organized around the finished product
Answer : C

120. Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y requires 4 of part Z. The lead time for assembly of X is
1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y is 1 week. The lead time for the procurement of Z
is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is _____ weeks.
a. 48
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
Answer : C

121. Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is ______ weeks.
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 18
Answer : B

122. The MPS calls for 110 units of Product M. There are currently 30 of Product M on hand. Each M requires 4 of Component N. There are 20 units of N on hand. The gross requirements for N are
a. 150
b. 170
c. 300
d. 320
Answer : C

123. The MPS calls for 50 units of Product A and 60 ofb. There are currently 25 of Product B on hand. Each A requires 2 of Part C; each B requires 5 ofc. There are 160 units of C available. The net requirements for C are
a. 115
b. 175
c. 240
d. 690
Answer : A

124. The MPS calls for 110 units of Product A, there are currently 60 of Product A on hand. Each A requires 4 of Part B, there are 20 units of B available. The net requirements for B are
a. 20
b. 120
c. 180
d. 240
Answer : C

125. In MRP record calculations, the appearance of a negative value for the gross requirements of an end item in a specific time bucket
a. signals the need to purchase that end item in that period
b. implies that value was scheduled by the MPS
c. signals the need for a negative Planned Order Receipt in that period
d. is impossible
Answer : D

126. A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following except
a. quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies
b. quantities and required delivery dates of final products
c. the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
d. inventory on hand for each final product
Answer : C

127. The number of units projected to be available at the end of each time period refers to
a. net requirements
b. scheduled receipts
c. the projected usage of the item
d. the amount projected to be on hand
Answer : D

128. Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the requirement is referred to as
a. net requirements planning
b. a time fence
c. pegging
d. Kanban
Answer : C

129. In MRP, system nervousness is caused by
a. management’s attempt to continually respond to minor changes in production requirements
b. the use of the lot-for-lot approach
c. management’s marking part of the master production schedule as “not to be rescheduled”
d. the use of phantom bills of materials
Answer : A

130. One of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system is (are)
a. modular bills
b. time phasing
c. time fences
d. lot sizing
Answer : C

131. A major strength of MRP is its capability
a. to minimize labor hours used in production
b. for timely and accurate replanning
c. to reduce lead times
d. to maximize production throughput
Answer : B

132. Material requirements plan specify
a. the quantities of the product families that need to be produced
b. the quantity and timing of planned order releases
c. the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
d. the costs associated with alternative plans 6
Answer : B

133. Which of the following statements is true about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering?
a. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of planned
order releases for its parent.
b. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of net requirements
for its parent(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
c. The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of gross
requirements for its parent.
d. The quantity and gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of net
requirements for its parent.
Answer : B

134. Which of the following lot-sizing-techniques results in the lowest holding costs?
a. lot-for-lot
b. EOQ
c. part-period-balancing
d. Wagner-Whitin algorithm
Answer : A

135. What lot sizing technique is generally preferred when inventory holding costs are extremely high?
a. lot-for-lot
b. EOQ
c. part-period balancing
d. the Wagner-Whitin algorithm
Answer : A

136. For the lot-for-lot lot-sizing technique to be appropriate
a. future demand should be known for several weeks
b. setup cost should be relatively small
c. annual volume should be rather low
d. item unit cost should be relatively small
Answer : B

137. MRP II is accurately described as
a. MRP software designed for services
b. MRP with a new set of computer programs that execute on micro-computers
c. MRP augmented by other resource variables
d. usually employed to isolate manufacturing operations from other aspects of an organization
Answer : C

138. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is
a. severely limited by current MRP computer systems
b. not related to MRP
c. an advanced MRP II system that ties-in customers and suppliers
d. not currently practical
Answer :

139. The extension of MRP which extends to resources such as labor hours and machine hours, as well as to order entry, purchasing, and direct interface with customers and suppliers is
a. MRP II
b. Enterprise Resource Planning
c. the master production schedule
d. closed-loop MRP 7
Answer : B

140. Distribution Resource Planning (DRP) is
a. a transportation plan to ship materials to warehouses
b. a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network
c. a shipping plan from a central warehouse to retail warehouses
d. material requirements planning with feedback loop from distribution centers
Answer : B

141._________ handling and sharing has become a vital process for efficient and effective working of any organisation.
a. Material
b. Resource
c. Information
d. Database
Answer : c

142.________ became the fundamental concept of production management and control.
a. BOM
b. MRP
c. ERP
d. MRP II
Answer :b

143. In the _________, ERP packages were targeted at the manufacturing industry.
a. 1970’s
b. 1990’s
c. 1980’s
d. 1960’s
Answer :b

144.The _________ should plan well and execute perfectly the implementation of ERP.
a. Organisation
b. System developers
c. Vendors
d. Top Management
Answer :b

145.Which is one of the most critical steps in the ERP implementation?
a. Creation of Organisational Model
b. Creation of Integrated Data Model
c. Creation of Business Model
d. Creation of Data Model
Answer :b

146. What is one of the key resources of every organisation, in today’s competitive business environment?
a. Employee
b. Information
c. ERP
d. Database
Answer :b

147. When a customer needs to check the performance of the company before he places an order, which department has to be in a position to provide the necessary information?
a. Production
b. Quality
c. Marketing
d. Finance
Answer :c

148. In an integrated data model, what gives a snapshot of the organisation at any given time?
a. ERP
b. Database
c. Management
d. MIS
Answer :b

149. OLAP stands for:
a. On-Line Analytical Processing
b. On-Line Account Processing
c. On-Line Arithmetic Processing
d. On-Line Application Processing
Answer :a

150. Data mining is the process of identifying valid, new, potentially useful, and ultimately clear ______________ from databases.
a. Decision
b. Strategies
c. Information
d. Account
Answer :c

151. EIS stands for:
a. Executive Interaction System
b. Executive Interconnecting Systems
c. Executive Information Systems
d. Executive Instrumental Systems
Answer :c

152. DSS is quite _______________ and is available on request.
a. Structured
b. Non-structured
c. Semi-structured
d. Unstructured
Answer :d

153. ERP system is built on a ____________ utilising a common computing platform
a. Centralised database
b. Individual databases
c. Modular databases
d. Centralised layout
Answer :a

154. Which of the following is an example for commercial ERP
a. ERP5
b. Microsoft Dynamics AX
c. Compiere
d. Fisterra
Answer :b

155. NPV is the abbreviation of
a. Net Present Variation method
b. Net Present Value method
c. Neutral Present Value method
d. Net Preventive Value method
Answer :c

156. ERP vendors usually design their systems around standard business processes, based upon ____________________
a. Business standards
b. Global standards
c. Best business practices.
d. Best profitable standards
Answer :c

157. The _______ module’s internal functions do not directly interact with the data or processes of other modules.
a. Finance
b. Quality Management
c. Sales and Distribution
d. Plant Maintenance
Answer :b

158. Which among the following systems can be assigned to a cost centre directly which illustrates the interface to the cost accounting system?
a. FAPA
b. Purchasing
c. Sales and Distribution
d. CASO
Answer :d

159. Which system provides the foundation for creating concurrent business processes across the supply chain and achieving Return on Assets (ROa. improvement?
a. Finance
b. Inventory
c. Manufacturing
d. Sales
Answer :c

160. The processes described in the quality manual can be implemented and automated in the EDP system. Here what does EDP stand for?
a. Electronic Data Processing
b. Electronic Dictionary Project
c. Electrical Data Processing
d. Employee Development Plan
Answer :a

161. What is the key to MRP?
a. Quantity of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of Material.
b. Production of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of Material.
c. Time-phasing of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of Material.
d. Capacity of requirements for components are based upon the structure of the Bill of Material.
Answer :c

162. During the 80s, tools were developed to assist the planning of:
a. Production levels
b. Priority planning system
c. Capacity requirements
d. Planning functions
Answer :a

163. Complete the sentence: MRP-II systems provide…
a. Information that is useful to all functional areas and encourage cross-functional interaction.
b. Information with cost data.
c. Information that can be used for other company functions.
d. Accurate inventory information.
Answer :b

164. ERP is restricted to being a _________operations system in the country.
a. Finance
b. Budgeting modules
c. Manufacturing
d. Transaction-oriented
Answer :d

165. ________________ allow companies to enter requirements for various types of items.
a. Purchase order
b. Purchase requisitions
c. Invoice
d. General ledger
Answer :b

166. What is EDI?
a. Electronic Data Interface
b. Exchange Data Interchange
c. Exchange Data Interface
d. Electronic Data Interchange
Answer :d

167. _________ module supports the entire sales and purchase processes from start to finish.
a. Order management
b. Sales management
c. Purchase management
d. Master Data Management
Answer :a

168. ___________evaluates whether or not customer contract agreement are being met.
a. Purchase order management
b. Sales order management
c. Master data management
d. Warehouse management
Answer :d

169. ____________ maintains reports of warehouse supplies.
a. ERP financial module
b.ERP Inventory software module
c. ERP Resource module
d. ERP verification module
Answer :b

170. Web ERP is suitable for ____________ .
a. Both small and big organisations
b. Only big organisations
c. Medium scale organisations
d. Only small organisations
Answer :a

171. RFP stands for ____________________ .
a. Request For Productivity
b. Request For Profits
c. Request For Processing
d. Request For Proposal
Answer :d

172. Installing ERP Inventory systems is ____________ .
a. Simple
b. Trouble free
c. Complex
d. Cost effective
Answer :c

173. In recent years, CRM has become a primary component of:
a. ERP vendor
b. ERP software solutions.
c. CRM software
d. CRM solutions
Answer :b

174. ____________is the most common operating system for running CRM software
a. UNIX
b. Windows NT
c. Windows Vista
d. Windows XP
Answer :a

175. __________ module keeps track of liquidation process.
a. Market management module
b. Liquidation module
c. Treasury module
d. Enterprise management module
Answer :c

176. ____________ system maintains employees information in graphical format.
a. Employee master data
b. Personnel administration
c. Payroll accounting
d. Benefits administration
Answer :a

177. As processes become more automated and efficient,
a. It is best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
b. It is not best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
c. It is best to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
d. It is best to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.
Answer :d

178. ETO means
a. Engineer-to-Order
b. Engineer-to-Offer
c. Enterprise-to-Order
d. Enterprise-to-Offer
Answer :a

179.The vendor should have a _______, who must constantly interact with the implementation team.
a. Liaison officer
b. Project Supervisor
c. Project Manager
d. Implementation co-ordinator
Answer :a

180.Identify the correct statement.
a. The only problem with the package vendors is that they are very expensive.
b. The only problem with the business consultants is that they are very expensive.
c. The only problem with the employee training is that it is very expensive.
d. The only problem with the planning of implementation is that it is very expensive.
Answer :b

181. The employees are not given proper training.
2. Employees who were earlier doing the work of recording information are transformed into decision-makers.
3. Of fear of unemployment.
4. They fear that ERP systems will revolutionalise the way they live and work.
a. 1 & 2
b. 3 & 4
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 3
Answer :d

182.The package should be _________ and should have installations in countries where the _________ has offices.
a. Domestic, Vendor
b. International, Company
c. International, System developer
d. International, Vendor
Answer :b

183. The ________ should be a replica of the organisation’s ________ processes.
a. MIS, Business
b. ERP, Financial
c. MIS, Financial
d. ERP, Business
Answer :d

184. The disadvantages of a system when it works in isolation are:
It becomes difficult to collect and analyse data needed for the functioning of any department.
It results in the loss of profits to the organisation that could have been better spent in decision making.
Business executive or decision-maker cannot take good decisions with the isolated data.
a. 1 & 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 3
d. 1
Answer :a

185. MIS is a computer-based system that optimises the
___________________________ of information throughout an organisation.
1. Collation
2. Collection
3. Transfer
4. Presentation
a. 1, 2, & 3
b. 1, 3, & 4
c. 1, 2, & 4
d. 1, 2, 3, & 4
Answer :b

186. In the next generation, DSS hardware and software will be embedded with the latest technological innovations like the
1. Planning and forecasting models,
2. Fourth generation languages,
3. Artificial intelligence.
4. Data mining
a. 1, 3, & 4
b. 1, 2, & 3
c. 1 & 3
d. 3 & 4
Answer :b

187. The stakeholders within the enterprise must
a. Be involved in the project initiation phase where the decision making process is agreed and attend Vendor demonstrations
b. Not assist in the gathering of requirements
c. Not be involved in vendor demonstration
d. Involve only in vendor demonstration
Answer :a

188. One common mistake that companies resort when selecting an ERP system is
a. Non biased selection
b. Over-emphasis on system cost
c. Complete set of requirements
d. Not relying on vendor demos
Answer :b

189. The sales and distribution modules of many ERP vendors, offer a comprehensive set of best of its kind components for both _______ and _______ management.
a. Manufacturing, Production
b. Sales, Distribution
c. Planning, Business
d. Order, Logistics
Answer :d

190. ______ are collected and archived in a manner that offers full support for______ process control techniques.
a. Product quality metrics, Statistical
b. Statics, Product quality metrics
c. Production quality, Statistical
d. Product quality metrics, Financial
Answer :a

191. Identify the correct statements.
The manufacturing segment accounts for nearly 25% of the total Information Technology
The process and discrete manufacturing segments spent a total of Rs 2,605 crore on IT in the year 1996-97.
The manufacturing segment helps in improving IT infrastructure, automating internal and external processes, and better decision-making.
Discrete manufacturing accounted for nearly 15% of the total segment spending and the rest came in from process manufacturing.
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 3
d. 2 & 4
Answer :c

192. Identify the two aims of JIT approach applied to the organisation.
1. Production system
2. Elimination of Waste
3. Total Employee Involvement
4. Production philosophy
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
Answer :b

193. Which among the following information is available in the Supplier file?
1. Purchasing information
2. Payment terms
3. Tolerance for receiving and invoicing
4. Addresses
a. 1
b. 3 & 4
c. 1, 2, 3 & 4
d. 2 & 3
Answer :c

194. The Sales Support component helps the sales and marketing department to………………………
a. Support existing customers only.
b. Supports in developing new business.
c. Support existing customers but does and help to develop new business.
d. Support existing customers and, at the same time, to develop new business.
Answer :d

195. Identify the correct answer: The three major activities associated with ERP inventory management are:
A. Identifying inventory requirements B. Customising information
C. Monitoring item usages
D. Integrating the inventory balances
a. B,C,D
b. D,A,B
c. A,C,D
d. C,B,A
Answer :c

196. Select the modules that decides the inputs required and suppliers for delivery?
A. Inventory placing
B. Inventory order assessment C. Inventory requisition D.Supplier Performa
a. A,D
b. D,B
c. C,B
d. D,C
Answer :c

197. CRM yields employees with ______________ and improves personal___________ efficiencies
a. Work, work advantage
b. Customisation, work
c. Work advantage, work
d. Customisation, work advantage
Answer :c

198. Identify the right answer.
The two major objectives of Human Resources are: A. To provides instant updates of information.
B. To make the workflow cost effective. C. To provide training to the employees.
D. To provide self service benefits to the employees.
a. B,C,
b. D,A,
c. B,D
d. A,C
Answer :c

199.As processes become more automated and efficient,
a. It is best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
b. It is not best to treat ERP as an investment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
c. It is best to treat ERP as an disinvestment as well as a cost-cutting measure.
d. It is best to treat ERP as an investment but not as a cost-cutting measure.
Answer :a

200.The ____________________ and ____________________ manage the supplier relations, monitor the vendor activities and manage the supplier quality in an organisation.
a. Supplier management, customisation processes
b. Supplier maintenance, control processes
c. Supplier management, control processes
d. Supplier maintenance, customisation processes
Answer :c

201.The direct benefits of an ERP system include:
a. Business integration, Flexibility, Improved customer goodwill, Customer satisfaction.
b. Business integration, Better analysis and planning capabilities, Flexibility, Use of latest technology.
c. Better analysis and planning capabilities, Flexibility, Use of latest technology, Customer satisfaction.
d. Improved customer goodwill, Customer satisfaction, Use of latest technology, Flexibility.
Answer :b

202.Identify the correct statement (s) about MIS.
1. A system that produce information products that support many of the day-to-day decision making needs of the management.
2. Also called information managing system.
3. A system that satisfies the needs of the top level management.
4. A system that operates at a departmental level.
a. 2 & 3
b. 1 & 4
c. 4
d. 1, 2 & 3
Answer :b

203. An ideal interface for an EIS would be the one that is:
1. Simple to use.
2. Highly flexible.
3. Provides consistent performance.
4. Reflects the executive’s world.
a. 1, 2, & 3
b. 2, 3, & 4
c. 1, 2, 3, & 4
d. 1, 2, & 4
Answer :c

204. Arrange the following statements in correct order

A. Determining the timing of data migration
B. Deciding on migration related setups C. Identifying the data to be migrated D. Freezing the tools for data migration E. Deciding on data archiving
F. Generating the data templates
a. C, F,A,B, D, E
b. C, A, F, D, B, E
c. F, D, A, C, B, E
d. D, A, C, B, E, F
Answer :c

205. Identify the subsystems of Plant Maintenance module of an ERP system:
1. Component Tracking
2. Preventive Maintenance Control
3. Inventory Management
4. Cost Management
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 2, 3 & 4
c. 1 & 2
d. 1, 3 & 4
Answer :c

206. Identify the main components of PDM systems–
1. Data Management
2. Classification of Components
3. Product Structure
4. Document relationships
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1, 4 & 3
c. 2 & 3
d. 4 & 3
Answer :a

207. Sub modules of Sales and Distribution modules are:
1. Order Management
2. Warehouse Managemen
3. Foreign Trade
4. Sales Support
a. 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer :d

208. Match the following: First set:
1. Material request management
2. Material Issue
3. Material Receipt
4. Stock Valuation
Second set:
A. A receipt is issued from the seller.
B. Stock is verified mechanically.
C. Appeal for materials is made from various departments.
D. Materials are issued as per order.
a. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D.
b. 2A, 3C, 4D, 1B.
c. 4A, 2C, 3D, 1B.
d. 3B, 2D, 4C, 1A.
Answer :a

209. Components of a CRM system are:

1. Users
2. Hardware and Operating Systems
3. CRM Software
4. Business Processes
a. 3 &4
b. 1, 2, 3 & 4
c. 2 & 4
d. 1,2 & 3
Answer :b

210. State whether the following are True/False.
1. HRM defines enterprise planning for work and job roles with respect to specific language.
2. HRM defines staff selection and decides various phases of the project according the policies of the company.
3. HRM does not facilitate recruitment process.
4. HRM deploys effective search engine to easily find and sort out the profiles that is filtered with respect to the company’s criteria.
a. 1T, 2F, 3F, 4T
b. 1T, 2T, 3T, 4T
c. 1T, 2T, 3F, 4T
d. 1T, 2T, 3F, 4F
Answer :c

211. Important point to be kept in mind while evaluating ERP software is the total costs that includes
1. Cost of license
2. Cost of Training
3. Implementation and maintenance cost.
4. Customisation and hardware requirements costs.
a. 1, 2, & 3
b. 2, 3, & 4
c. 1, 2, 3, & 4
d. 1, 2, & 4
Answer :c

212. Match the following sets of topology categories and their examples. First Set:
1. Internal failure costs
2. External failure costs
3. Appraisal costs,
4. Prevention costs
Second Set:
A. Costs of scrap.
B. Design and development of new quality equipment C. Cost of inspecting upon arrival.
D. Warranty claims.
a. 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
b. 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A
c. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
d. 1C, 2A, 3B, 4D
Answer :d

213. World Software automatically allows the user to,
1. Selectively mix, match and integrate software applications.
2. Easily modify it to ongoing business, local and organisation-specific requirements.
3. Maximise productivity by shrinking the amount of training users need. 4. Add WorldVision, its advanced graphical user interface.
a. 1 & 3
b. 2, 3, & 4
c. 1, 2, & 3
d. 1, 2, & 4
Answer :d

214. Identify the statements whether true or false.
1. Consultants come up with innovations that make the packages more efficient and flexible to implement and use.
2. New ERP packages don’t have features and functionality to cater to the needs of businesses in all sectors.
3. The company can develop the training and testing environment for the implementation team as they acquire the package.
4. There is no need to provide the in-house experts a through training on the features of the package.
a. 1T, 2F, 3F & 4T
b. 1T, 2T, 3T, & 4F
c. 1F, 2T, 3F, & 4F
d. 1F, 2F, 3T, & 4F
Answer :d

215. Identify the statements whether true or false.
1. SAP R/3 application Reference Model provides views of R/3 processes, data models and functions.
2. BAPIs are implemented and stored in the R/3 system as RFC modules.
3. BAPIs can be called as sets of methods that never allows external applications to collaborate with specific R/3 business objects.
4. BAPIs gives flexibility to the second party application vendors to build supporting applications for the R/3 system.
a. 1T, 2T, 3F & 4T
b. 1F, 2T, 3T, & 4F
c. 1F, 2T, 3F, & 4T
d. 1F, 2F, 3T, & 4F61
Answer :a

216. Which of the following describes an ERP system?
a. ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments
b. ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate
c. ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organisations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organisation’s performance
d. All of the above
Answer: D

217. What is at the heart of any ERP system?
a. Information
b. Employees
c. Customers
d. Database
Answer: D

218. What must a system do to qualify as a true ERP solution?
a. Be flexible
b. Be modular and closed
c. Extend within the company
d. All of the above
Answer: A Level: Medium

219. Which of the following is a reason for ERPs explosive growth?
a. ERP is a logical solution to the mess of incompatible applications
b. ERP addresses the need for global information sharing and reporting
c. ERP is used to avoid the pain and expense of fixing legacy systems
d. All of the above
Answer: D

220. Which of the following occurs when everyone involved in sourcing, producing, and delivering the company’s product works with the same information?
a. Eliminates redundancies
b. Cuts down wasted time
c. Removes misinformation
d. All of the above
Answer: D

221. What are several different types of software, which sit in the middle of and provide connectivity between two or more software applications?
a. Middleware
b. Enterprise application integration middleware
c. Automated business process
d. e-business infrastructure
Answer: A

222. What represents a new approach to middleware by packaging together commonly used functionality, such as providing prebuilt links to popular enterprise applications, which reduces the time necessary to develop solutions that integrate applications from multiple vendors?
a. Middleware
b. Enterprise application integration middleware
c. Automated business process
d. e-business infrastructure
Answer: B

223. Who are the primary users of SCM systems?
a. Sales, marketing, customer service
b. Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
c. Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors
d. All of the above
Answer: C

224. What are the primary business benefits of an ERP system?
a. Sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns
b. Market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling
c. Forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution
d. All of the above
Answer: C

225. Who are the primary users of ERP systems?
a. Sales, marketing, customer service
b. Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
c. Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors
d. All of the above
Answer: B