Get Latest Exam Updates, Free Study materials and Tips

[MCQ]Cloud Computing and Services

Exit Intent

Module 01

1. _________ computing refers to applications and services that run on a distributed network using virtualized resources.
a) Distributed
b) Cloud
c) Soft
d) Parallel
Answer: b
Explanation: Cloud Computing applications are accessed by common Internet protocols and networking standards.

2. Point out the wrong statement.
a) The massive scale of cloud computing systems was enabled by the popularization of the Internet
b) Soft computing represents a real paradigm shift in the way in which systems are deployed
c) Cloud computing makes the long-held dream of utility computing possible with a pay-as-you-go, infinitely scalable, universally available system
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Cloud Computing is distinguished by the notion that resources are virtual and limitless and that details of the physical systems on which software runs are abstracted from the user.

3. ________ as a utility is a dream that dates from the beginning of the computing industry itself.
a) Model
b) Computing
c) Software
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Cloud computing takes the technology, services, and applications that are similar to those on the Internet and turns them into a self-service utility.

4. Which of the following is essential concept related to Cloud?
a) Reliability
b) Productivity
c) Abstraction
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Cloud computing abstracts the details of system implementation from users and developers.

5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) All applications benefit from deployment in the cloud
b) With cloud computing, you can start very small and become big very fast
c) Cloud computing is revolutionary, even if the technology it is built on is evolutionary
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Issues with latency, transaction control, and in particular security and regulatory compliance are of particular concern.

6. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?
a) Polymorphism
b) Abstraction
c) Virtualization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Applications run on physical systems that aren’t specified, data is stored in locations that are unknown, administration of systems is outsourced to others, and access by users is ubiquitous.

7. ________ has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud computing.
a) Internet
b) Softwares
c) Web Service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The Internet offers abstraction, runs using the same set of protocols and standards, and uses the same applications and operating systems.

8. Which of the following can be identified as cloud?
a) Web Applications
b) Intranet
c) Hadoop
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: When an intranet becomes large enough that a diagram no longer wishes to differentiate between individual physical systems, the intranet too becomes identified as a cloud.

9. Cloud computing is an abstraction based on the notion of pooling physical resources and presenting them as a ________ resource.
a) real
b) virtual
c) cloud
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Cloud Computing is a new model for provisioning resources, for staging applications, and for platform-independent user access to services.

10. Which of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?
a) Azure
b) AWS
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the most successful cloud-based businesses is Amazon Web Services, which is an Infrastructure as a Service offering that lets you rent virtual computers on Amazon’s own infrastructure.

11. _________ model consists of the particular types of services that you can access on a cloud computing platform.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Service models describe the type of service that the service provider is offering.

12. Point out the correct statement.
a) The use of the word “cloud” makes reference to the two essential concepts
b) Cloud computing abstracts systems by pooling and sharing resources
c) cloud computing is nothing more than the Internet
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Abstraction and Virtualization are the two essential concepts.

13. ________ refers to the location and management of the cloud’s infrastructure.
a) Service
b) Deployment
c) Application
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The deployment model tells you where the cloud is located and for what purpose.

14. Which of the following is the deployment model?
a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Public, private, community, and hybrid clouds are deployment models.

15. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Cloud Computing has two distinct sets of models
b) Amazon has built a worldwide network of datacenters to service its search engine
c) Azure enables .NET Framework applications to run over the Internet
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Google has built mega data centres for its search engine.

16. Which of the following is best known service model?
a) SaaS
b) IaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The best-known service models are Software as a Service, Platform as a Service, and Infrastructure as a Service—the SPI model.

17. The __________ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization to pool resources.
a) NEFT
b) NIST
c) NIT
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: NIST stands for National Institute of Standards and Technology.

18. _______ model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four dimensional factors.
a) Cloud Square
b) Cloud Service
c) Cloud Cube
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Cloud Cube model is mainly used for secure collaboration.

19. How many types of dimensions exists in Cloud Cube Model?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four types of dimensions in Cloud Cube.

20. Which of the following dimension is related to organization’s boundaries?
a) Physical location of data
b) Ownership
c) Security boundary
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal (I) / External (E) determines your organization’s boundaries.

21. How many types of security boundary values exist in Cloud Cube model?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types depending upon network firewall.

22. Point out the correct statement.
a) A deployment model defines the purpose of the cloud and the nature of how the cloud is located
b) Service model defines the purpose of the cloud and the nature of how the cloud is located
c) Cloud Square Model is meant to show is that the traditional notion of a network boundary being the network’s firewall no longer applies in cloud computing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Four types of deployment models exist.

23. Which of the following is provided by ownership dimension of Cloud Cube Model?
a) Proprietary
b) Owner
c) P
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: P stands for Proprietary ownership.

24. __________ is a measure of whether the operation is inside or outside the security boundary or network firewall.
a) Per
b) P
c) Pre
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Per stands for Perimeterised.

25. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Public cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party
b) A community cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party
c) Private clouds may be either on- or off-premises
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The public cloud infrastructure is available for public use alternatively for a large industry group.

26. Which of the following is related to the service provided by Cloud?
a) Sourcing
b) Ownership
c) Reliability
d) AaaS
Answer: a
Explanation: Insourced or Outsourced means whether the service is provided by the customer or the service provider.

7. ________ dimension corresponds to two different states in the eight possible cloud forms.
a) Physical location of data
b) Ownership
c) Security boundary
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The sourcing dimension addresses the deliverer of the service.

28. The ________ cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an organization.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The cloud may be managed by that organization or a third party.

29. __________ cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common function or purpose.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A community cloud may be managed by the constituent organization(s) or by a third party.

30. A hybrid cloud combines multiple clouds where those clouds retain their unique identities but are bound together as a unit.
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
Answer: d
Explanation: A hybrid cloud may offer standardized or proprietary access to data and applications, as well as application portability.

31. Which of the following is owned by an organization selling cloud services?
a) Public
b) Private
c) Community
d) Hybrid
Answer: a
Explanation: The public cloud infrastructure is available for public use alternatively for a large industry group.

32. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Everything from the application down to the infrastructure is the vendor’s responsibility
b) In the deployment model, different cloud types are an expression of the manner in which infrastructure is deployed
c) AaaS provides virtual machines, operating systems, applications, services, development frameworks, transactions, and control structures
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: PaaS provides virtual machines, operating systems, applications, services, development frameworks, transactions, and control structures.

33. _______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other hardware assets.
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The IaaS service provider manages all the infrastructure, while the client is responsible for all other aspects of the deployment.

34. Which of the following provides development frameworks and control structures?
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a form of cloud computing that provides virtualized computing resources over the Internet.

35. Point out the wrong statement.
a) A PaaS service adds integration features, middleware, and other orchestration and choreography services to the IaaS model
b) XaaS or ‘anything as a service’ is the delivery of IT as a Service through hybrid Cloud computing
c) Monitoring as a Service (MaaS) is at present still an emerging piece of the Cloud jigsaw
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Monitoring as a Service provides the option to offload a large majority of those costs by having it run as a service as opposed to a fully invested in house tool.

36. _______ is a complete operating environment with applications, management, and user interface.
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the SaaS model, the application is provided to the client through a thin client interface.

37. How many types of service model are mainly present in Cloud?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: Three types of Service model exist.

38. The three different service models are together known as the _____ model of cloud computing.
a) SPI
b) SIP
c) CPI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Many other service models are also present.

39. CaaS stands for _____________ as service.
a) Compliance
b) Computer
c) Community
d) Communication
Answer: d
Explanation: Communication as a Service (CaaS), enables the consumer to utilize Enterprise level VoIP, VPNs, PBX and Unified Communications without the costly investment of purchasing, hosting and managing the infrastructure.

40. Which of the following is the IaaS service provider?
a) EC2
b) EC1
c) EC10
d) Hybrid
Answer: a
Explanation: On Amazon EC2, a client would provision a computer in the form of a virtual machine image.

41. Which of the following was one of the top 5 cloud applications in 2010?
a) Cloud backup
b) Web applications
c) Business applications
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Cloud computing has shifted the economics of software delivery in a manner similar to the way that music downloads have shifted the delivery of commercial music.

42. Point out the correct statement.
a) Google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide
b) Flipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so the system could accommodate peak traffic
c) Data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Datacenter can Keep land costs modest and occupation unobtrusive.

43. Which of the following benefit is related to creates resources that are pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?
a) On-demand self-service
b) Broad network access
c) Resource pooling
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A cloud service provider creates resources that are pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage.

44. The _____ is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.
a) PoS
b) QoS
c) SoS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Depending upon the type of service being offered, you may find that you do not require hardware or software licenses to implement your service.

45. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Internet consumes roughly 1 percent of the world’s total power
b) The cost advantages of cloud computing have enabled new software vendors to create productivity applications
c) A client can provision computer resources without the need for interaction with cloud service provider personnel
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Data centers have been sited to have access to low cost power.

46. All cloud computing applications suffer from the inherent _______ that is intrinsic in their WAN connectivity.
a) propagation
b) latency
c) noise
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: While cloud computing applications excel at large-scale processing tasks, if your application needs large amounts of data transfer, cloud computing may not be the best model for you

47. Cloud computing is a _______ system and it is necessarily unidirectional in nature.
a) stateless
b) stateful
c) reliable
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud computing is a stateless system, as is the Internet in general.

48. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in cloud computing?
a) Security
b) Storage
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When your data travels over and rests on systems that are no longer under your control, you have increased risk due to the interception and malfeasance of others.

49. You can’t count on a cloud provider maintaining your _____ in the face of government actions.
a) scalability
b) reliability
c) privacy
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Cloud computing industry continues to address security concerns.

50. Which of the following architectural standards is working with cloud computing industry?
a) Service-oriented architecture
b) Standardized Web services
c) Web-application frameworks
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: These standards help to enable different business models that cloud computing vendors can support, most notably Software as a Service (SaaS), Web 2.0 applications, and utility computing.

51. Which of the following is one of the unique attributes of Cloud Computing?
a) utility type of delivery
b) elasticity
c) low barrier to entry
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: These attributes change how applications are created, priced, and delivered.

52. Point out the correct statement.
a) Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is small aspect of cloud computing
b) Cloud computing does not have impact on software licensing
c) Cloud computing presents new opportunities to users and developers
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it is based on the paradigm of a shared multi-tenant utility.

53. Applications that work with cloud computing that have low margins and usually low risk are _____________
a) high touch
b) low touch
c) moderate touch
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The “high touch” applications that come with high margins require committed resources and pose more of a risk.

54. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the _________ as a Service model.
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Amazon web service follows PaaS model.

55. Point out the wrong statement.
a) A cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a datacenter with the ability to provision hardware and software
b) High touch applications are best done on-premises
c) The Google App Engine follows IaaS
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The Google App Engine follows PaaS.

56. When you add a software stack, such as an operating system and applications to the service, the model shifts to _____ model.
a) SaaS
b) PaaS
c) IaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Microsoft’s Windows Azure Platform is best described as currently using SaaS model.

57. Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive service model?
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: When the service requires the client to use a complete hardware/software/application stack, it is using the most refined and restrictive service model.

58. _______ is a pay-as-you-go model matches resources to need on an ongoing basis.
a) Utility
b) Elasticity
c) Low barrier to entry
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: This eliminates waste and has the added benefit of shifting risk from the client.

59. _______ feature allows you to optimize your system and capture all possible transactions.
a) scalability
b) reliability
c) elasticity
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: You have the ability to right-size resources as required.

60. _______ enables batch processing, which greatly speeds up high-processing applications.
a) Scalability
b) Reliability
c) Elasticity
d) Utility
Answer: a
Explanation: This feature obviates the need for planning and provisioning.

Module 02

1. Which of the following correctly represents different types of mobile patterns?
a)cloud-computing-questions-answers-virtualization-technologies-q1a
b)cloud-computing-questions-answers-virtualization-technologies-q1a
c)cloud-computing-questions-answers-virtualization-technologies-q1c

d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: You can define the features in software and hardware that enables flexibility as conforming to one or more of the mobility patterns.

2. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud computing: shared, ubiquitous access
b) Virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical resource and then provides a pointer to that physical resource when a request is made
c) All cloud computing applications combine their resources into pools that can be assigned on demand to users
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Several important cloud computing approaches use a strictly hardware-based approach to abstraction.

3. Which of the following type of virtualization is also characteristic of cloud computing?
a) Storage
b) Application
c) CPU
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: To enable these characteristics, resources must be highly configurable and flexible.

4. The technology used to distribute service requests to resources is referred to as _____________
a) load performing
b) load scheduling
c) load balancing
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Load balancing is an optimization technique.

5. Point out the correct statement.
a) A client can request access to a cloud service from any location
b) A cloud has multiple application instances and directs requests to an instance based on conditions
c) Computers can be partitioned into a set of virtual machines with each machine being assigned a workload
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Alternatively, systems can be virtualized through load-balancing technologies.

6. Which of the following software can be used to implement load balancing?
a) Apache mod_balancer
b) Apache mod_proxy_balancer
c) F6’s BigIP
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Load balancing can be used to increase utilization and throughput, lower latency, reduce response time, and avoid system overload.

7. Which of the following network resources can be load balanced?
a) Connections through intelligent switches
b) DNS
c) Storage resources
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Load balancing provides the necessary redundancy to make an intrinsically unreliable system reliable through managed redirection.

8. Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?
a) workload managers
b) workspace managers
c) rackserve managers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: They determine the current utilization of the resources in their pool.

9. A ______ is a combination load balancer and application server that is a server placed between a firewall or router.
a) ABC
b) ACD
c) ADC
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: An Application Delivery Controller is assigned a virtual IP address (VIP) that maps to a pool of servers based on application specific criteria.
10. Which of the following should be replaced with the question mark in the following figure?
cloud-computing-questions-answers-virtualization-technologies-q10
a) Abstraction
b) Virtualization
c) Mobility Pattern
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Virtualization is a key enabler of the first four of five key attributes of cloud computing.

11. Which type of Hypervisor is shown in the following figure?
cloud-computing-questions-answers-hypervisors-1-q1
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A hypervisor running on bare metal is a Type 1 VM or native VM.

12. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Load balancing virtualizes systems and resources by mapping a logical address to a physical address
b) Multiple instances of various Google applications are running on different hosts
c) Google uses hardware virtualization
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Google performs server load balancing to distribute the processing load and to get high utilization rates.

13. Which of the following is another name for the system virtual machine?
a) hardware virtual machine
b) software virtual machine
c) real machine
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Some virtual machines are designed to run only a single application or process and are referred to as process virtual machines.

14. Which of the following provide system resource access to virtual machines?
a) VMM
b) VMC
c) VNM
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: VMM is another name for Hypervisor.

15. Point out the correct statement.
a) A virtual machine is a computer that is walled off from the physical computer that the virtual machine
is running on
b) Virtual machines provide the capability of running multiple machine instances, each with their own operating system
c) The downside of virtual machine technologies is that having resources indirectly addressed means there is some level of overhead
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: This makes virtual machine technology very useful for running old versions of operating systems, testing applications in what amounts to a sandbox.

16. An operating system running on a Type ______ VM is full virtualization.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Because it is a complete simulation of the hardware that it is running on.

17. Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor?
a) Wind River Simics
b) Virtual Server 2005 R2
c) KVM
d) LynxSecure
Answer: d
Explanation: Type 1 VMs have no host operating system because they are installed on a bare system.

18. Which of the following is Type 2 VM?
a) VirtualLogix VLX
b) VMware ESX
c) Xen
d) LynxSecure
Answer: c
Explanation: Xen is used by Amazon Web Services to provide Amazon Machine Instances (AMIs).

19. Which of the following will be the host operating system for Windows Server?
a) VirtualLogix VLX
b) Microsoft Hyper-V
c) Xen
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Type 2 virtual machines are installed over a host operating system.

20. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost layer for the following figure?
cloud-computing-questions-answers-hypervisors-1-q10
a) Host Operating System
b) Software
c) VM
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Examples of Type 2 Virtual Machine Monitors are Containers, KVM, Microsoft Hyper V and Parallels Desktop for Mac.

21. What does the following figure represent?
cloud-computing-test-q1
a) vSquare cloud infrastructure
b) vCube cloud infrastructure
c) vSphere cloud infrastructure
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: vSphere is the branding for a set of management tools and a set of products previously labeled VMware Infrastructure.

22. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Some hypervisors are installed over an operating system and are referred to as Type 2 or hosted VM
b) All CPUs support virtual machines
c) On a Type 2 VM, a software interface is created that emulates the devices with which a system would normally interact
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Not all CPUs support virtual machines and many that do require that you enable this support in the BIOS.

23. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in hypervisor such as Microsoft’s Hyper-V?
a) paravirtualization
b) full virtualization
c) emulation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the host operating system that is performing the I/O through a para-API.

24. In _______ the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be independent of the underlying system hardware.
a) paravirtualization
b) full virtualization
c) emulation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A guest operating system using emulation does not need to be modified in any way.

25. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Full virtualization requires that the host operating system provide a virtual machine interface for the guest operating system and that the guest access hardware through that host VM
b) Guest operating systems in full virtualization systems are generally faster than other virtualization schemes
c) A process virtual machine instantiates when a command begins a process
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: An operating system running as a guest on a paravirtualization system must be ported to work with the host interface.

26. In a ____________ scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.
a) paravirtualization
b) full virtualization
c) emulation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: All operating systems in full virtualization communicate directly with the VM hypervisor.

27. Which of the following operating system support operating system virtualization?
a) Windows NT
b) Sun Solaris
c) Windows XP
d) Compliance
Answer: b
Explanation: This type of virtualization creates virtual servers at the operating system or kernel level.

28. Which of the following is a service that aggregates servers into an assignable pool?
a) VMware vStorage
b) VMware vNetwork
c) VMware vCompute
d) Application services
Answer: c
Explanation: VMware vSphere is a management infrastructure framework that virtualizes system, storage, and networking hardware to create cloud computing infrastructures.

29. _________ is a service that creates and manages virtual network interfaces.
a) VMware vStorage
b) VMware vNetwork
c) VMware vCompute
d) Application services
Answer: b
Explanation: VMware vStorage is a service that aggregates storage resources into an assignable pool.

30. Which of the following allows a virtual machine to run on two or more physical processors at the same time?
a) Virtual SMP
b) Distributed Resource Scheduler
c) vNetwork Distributed Switch
d) Storage VMotion
Answer: a
Explanation: The virtualization layer that abstracts processing, memory, and storage uses the VMware ESX or ESXi virtualization server.

31.Creating more logical IT resources, within one physical system is called ________.
A) Load balancing
B) Hypervisor
C) Virtualization
D) None of these
answer : C

32.What is most commonly used for managing the resources for every virtual system?
A) Load balancer
B) Hypervisor
C) Router
D) Cloud
answer :B

33.Which is not a benefit of virtualization?
A) Flexible and efficient allocation of resources
B) Lowers the cost of IT infrastructure
C) Remote access and rapid scalability
D) Run on single operating system
answer : D

34.It helps a user to have remote access to an application from a server.
A) Application virtualization
B) Network virtualization
C) Desktop virtualization
D) Storage virtualization
answer :A

35.It is an array of servers that are managed by a virtual storage system.
A) Application virtualization
B) Network virtualization
C) Desktop virtualization
D) Storage virtualization
answer : D

36.It has the ability to run multiple virtual networks with each has a separate control and data plan.
A) Application virtualization
B) Network virtualization
C) Desktop virtualization
D) Storage virtualization
answer : B

37.Identify the correct option: The main benefits of it are user mobility, portability, and easy management of software installation, updates, and patches.
A) Application virtualization
B) Network virtualization
C) Desktop virtualization
D) Storage virtualization
answer :C

38.Which is the correct type of full virtualization?
A) Software assisted
B) IoT assisted
C) Hardware-assisted
D) Software assisted and Hardware-assisted both
answer : D

39.Identify virtualizations: It emulates the hardware using the software instruction sets.
A) Software assisted full virtualizations
B) IoT assisted full virtualizations
C) Hardware-assisted full virtualizations
D) None of these
answer :A

40.Identify virtualizations: Due to binary translation, it often criticized for performance issues.
A) Software assisted full virtualizations
B) IoT assisted full virtualizations
C) Hardware-assisted full virtualizations
D) None of these

answer :A

41.Identify virtualizations: Guest OS’s instructions might allow a virtual context to execute privileged instructions directly on the processor, even though it is virtualized.
A) Software assisted full virtualizations
B) IoT assisted full virtualizations
C) Hardware-assisted full virtualizations
D) None of these
answer :C

42.________refers to the use of a remote computer from a local computer where the actual computer user is located.
A) Virtual machine
B) Virtual computing
C) Virtual cloud
D) Virtual OS
answer :B

43.________is an operating system or application environment that is installed on software, which reproduces dedicated hardware virtually.
A) Virtual machine
B) Virtual computing
C) Virtual cloud
D) None of these
answer :A

44.In computing, ________ improves the distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources, such as computers, a computer cluster, network links, central processing units, or disk drives.
A) Virtual machine
B) Virtual computing
C) Virtual cloud
D) Load balancer
answer : D

45.What is the need for load balancing in cloud computing?
A) Increased scalability
B) Ability to handle sudden traffic spikes
C) A and B both
D) None of these

answer :C

46.Which of these network resources can be load balanced?
A) Servers
B) Routing mechanism
C) A and B both
D) None of these
answer :C

47.The _________ is what controls and allocates what portion of hardware resources each operating system should get, in order every one of them to get what they need and not to disrupt each other.
A) hypervisor
B) virtual machine
C) virtual cloud
D) None of these
answer :A

48.A ___________ makes a copy or a clone of the entire computer system inside a single file.
A) virtualization
B) machine imaging
C) parallel processing
D) None of these
answer :B

49.Full form of AMI
A) Amazon Memory Image
B) Amazon Memory Instance
C) Amazon Machine Instance
D) Amazon Machine Image
answer : D

50Which of these is an example of a cloud marketplace?
A) AWS marketplace
B) Oracle marketplace
C) Microsoft Windows Azure marketplace
D) All of these
answer : D

51. Which of the following tool is used for Web site monitoring service in LAMP ?
a. Alertra
b. Cacti
c. Collectd
d. None of the mentioned
Answer:  a
Explanation:Cacti is RRDTool graphing module.

52. Which of the following is one of the major categories of Amazon Machine Instances that you can create on the Amazon Web Service ?
a. WAMP
b. XAMPP
c. LAMP
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation:
On Amazon Web Services, machine instances are offered for both Red Hat Linux and for Ubuntu.

53. An operating system running on a Type __ VM is a full virtualization.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Because it is a complete simulation of the hardware that it is running on.

54. In a ____________ scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.
a. paravirtualization
b. full virtualization
c. emulation
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation:All operating systems in full virtualization communicate directly with the VM hypervisor.

55. A _______ image makes a copy or a clone of the entire computer system inside a single container such as a file.
a. system
b. software
c. hardware
d. None of the mentioned
Answer:  a
Explanation:
The system imaging program is used to make this image and can be used later to restore a system

56. Which of the following packet sniffer was formerly called Ethereal ?
a TCPdump
b Wireshark
c Ntop
d None of the mentioned
answer:  b
Explanation: Regardless of which of these tools you use, the statistics function of these tools provides a measurement of network capacity as expressed by throughput.

57. _______ creates a container that encapsulates the application and all the application’s dependencies within a set of files.
a. VAA
b. VAS
c. VSA
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Dependencies include DLL, service settings, necessary configuration files, registry entries, and machine and network settings.

Module 03

1. Which of the following is a virtual machine technology now owned by Oracle that can run various operating systems?
a) Vmachines
b) VirtualBox
c) ThoughtPolice
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: VirtualBox serves as a host for a variety of virtual appliances.

2. Point out the correct statement.
a) JumpIt is an open-source virtual appliance installation and management service
b) Converting a virtual appliance from one platform to another is easy proposition
c) Nearly all major virtualization platform vendors support OVF, notably VMware, Microsoft, Oracle, and Citrix
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Efforts are underway to create file format standards for these types of objects that make the task easier.

3. Which of the following lets a Web service advertise itself in terms of a collection of endpoints?
a) WSDL
b) VMc
c) SOAP
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The most commonly used model for discovery and description used with SOAP messaging is the Web Services Description Language (WSDL).

4. Which of the following is a specification for multicast discovery on a LAN?
a) WS-Agent
b) WS-Discovery
c) WS-SOAP
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: WS-Discovery stands for Web Services Dynamic Discovery specification.

5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Cloud computing arises from services available over the Internet communicating
b) XML-RPC uses platform-independent XML data to encode program calls that are transported over HTTP
c) SOAP uses JSON for its messages and uses RPC and HTTP for message passing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: SOAP forms the basis for most of the Web services stacks.

6. _________ as a Service is a cloud computing infrastructure that creates a development environment upon which applications may be build.
a) Infrastructure
b) Service
c) Platform
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: PaaS provides a model that can be used to create or augment complex applications such as Customer Relation Management (CRM) or Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems.

7. _________ is a cloud computing service model in which hardware is virtualized in the cloud.
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In this particular model, the service vendor owns the equipment: servers, storage, network infrastructure, and so forth.

8. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of virtualized client in an IaaS deployment?
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A workload simulates the ability of a certain type of real or physical server to do any amount of work.

9. How many types of virtual private server instances are partitioned in an IaaS stack?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The three workloads require three different sizes of computers: small, medium, and large.

10. Which of the following correctly represents cloud computing ecosystem?
a)

Business Process
Application Services
Platform Services
Infrastructure Services

b)

Application Process
Business Services
Platform Services
Infrastructure Services

c)

Application Process
Infrastructure Services
Platform Services
Infrastructure Services

d)

Business Process
Application Services
Infrastructure Services
Platform Services

Answer: a
Explanation: You can broadly partition cloud computing into four layers that form a cloud computing ecosystem.

11. Which of the following content is allowed as per virtual appliance block diagram shown below?
cloud-computing-questions-answers-experienced-q1

a) Table
b) Image
c) Documents
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Content can be structured or unstructured in virtual appliance.

12. Point out the correct statement.
a) WS-+ services carried over XML messages using the SOAP protocol access remote server applications
b) REST stands for Representational State Transfer
c) A transaction following the rules of SOAP is considered to be RESTful
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: REST assigns a global identifier to a resource so there is a uniform method for accessing information sources.

13. Which of the following is based on the IETF Session Initiation Protocol?
a) WSDL
b) SIMPLE
c) SOAP
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: SIMPLE is an open standard protocol.

14. Which of the following is a third-party VPN based on Google’s GoogleTalk?
a) Hotspot VPN
b) Gbridge
c) AnchorFree Hotspot Shield
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Gbridge is an interesting solution that illustrates the use of VPN over a cloud connection.

15. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Atom is a syndication format that allows for HTTP protocols to create and update information
b) Cloud services span the gamut of computer applications
c) The impact of cloud computing on network communication is to discourage the use of open-network protocols in place of proprietary protocols
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Microsoft’s ADO.NET Data Services Framework is another system for transferring data using a RESTful transaction and standard HTTP commands.

16. Which of the following is a classic example of an IaaS service model?
a) AWS
b) Azure
c) Cloudera
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: AWS has several data centers in which servers run on top of a virtualization platform (Xen).

17. _________ is designed specifically to run connected to the cloud as a dedicated cloud client.
a) Harvera Tablet OS
b) Fedora Netbook OS
c) Jolicloud Netbook OS
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Jolicloud concentrates on building a social platform with automatic software updates and installs.

18. Which of the following is the management console in AWS?
a) CSC
b) CCS
c) CSS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Pods are managed by a Cloud Control System (CCS).

19. A group of users within a particular instance is called ______________
a) suser
b) pod
c) superuser
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Sizing limitations for pods need to be accounted for if you are building a large cloud-based application.

20. Pods are aggregated into pools within an IaaS region or site called an _________ zone.
a) restricted
b) unavail
c) availability
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In very large cloud computing networks, when systems fail, they fail on a pod-by-pod basis, and often on a zone-by-zone basis.

21. ______ offering provides the tools and development environment to deploy applications on another vendor’s application.
a) PaaS
b) IaaS
c) CaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: PaaS tool is a fully integrated development environment.

22. Point out the correct statement.
a) Platforms cannot be based on specific types of development languages, application frameworks, or other constructs
b) PaaS systems offer a way to create user interfaces
c) In a CaaS model, customers may interact with the software to enter and retrieve data
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: PaaS systems support standards such as HTML, JavaScript, or other rich media technologies.

23. Which of the following is associated with considerable vendor lock-in?
a) PaaS
b) IaaS
c) CaaS
d) SaaS
Answer: a
Explanation: The difficulty with PaaS is that it locks the developer (and the customer) into a solution that is dependent upon the platform vendor.

24. _________ serves as a PaaS vendor within Google App Engine system.
a) Google
b) Amazon
c) Microsoft
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Google offers many of its Web service applications to customers as part of this service model.

25. Point out the wrong statement.
a) The customer takes no responsibility for maintaining the hardware, the software, or the development of the applications
b) The vendor is responsible for all the operational aspects of the service
c) Google’s App Engine platform is IaaS offering
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The customer is responsible only for his interaction with the platform.

26. Which of the following can be considered PaaS offering?
a) Google Maps
b) Gmail
c) Google Earth
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The vendor of the PaaS solution is in most cases the developer, who is offering a complete solution to the customer.

27. __________ is the most refined and restrictive service model.
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: When the service requires the client to use a complete hardware/software/application stack, it is using the most refined and restrictive service model.

28. _______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other hardware assets.
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The IaaS service provider manages all the infrastructure, while the client is responsible for all other aspects of the deployment.

29. Amazon Web Services offers a classic Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) approach to ______________
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In AWS, the CCS is the AWS Management Console.

30. Rackspace Cloud Service is an example of _____________
a) IaaS
b) SaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike other cloud providers, Rackspace only offers managed solutions.

31. Which of the following is the most complete cloud computing service model?
a) PaaS
b) IaaS
c) CaaS
d) SaaS
Answer: d
Explanation: The most complete cloud computing service model is one in which the computing hardware and software, as well as the solution itself, are provided by a vendor as a complete service offering.

32. Point out the correct statement.
a) Platforms can be based on specific types of development languages, application frameworks, or other constructs
b) SaaS is the cloud-based equivalent of shrink-wrapped software
c) Software as a Service (SaaS) may be succinctly described as software that is deployed on a hosted service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: SaaS can be accessed globally over the Internet, most often in a browser.

33. Which of the following aspect of the service is abstracted away?
a) Data escrow
b) User Interaction
c) Adoption drivers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: With the exception of the user interaction with the software, all other aspects of the service are abstracted away.

34. Which of the following SaaS platform is with an exposed API?
a) salesforce.com
b) amazon.com
c) flipkart.com
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: SaaS does not necessarily mean that the software is static or monolithic.

35. Point out the wrong statement.
a) SaaS applications come in all shapes and sizes
b) Every computer user is familiar with SaaS systems
c) SaaS software is not customizable
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Every computer user is familiar with SaaS systems, which are either replacements or substitutes for locally installed software.

36. Which of the following is a SaaS characteristic?
a) The typical license is subscription-based or usage-based and is billed on a recurring basis
b) The software is available over the Internet globally through a browser on demand
c) The software and the service are monitored and maintained by the vendor
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: There may be executable client-side code, but the user isn’t responsible for maintaining that code or its interaction with the service.

37. _________ applications have a much lower barrier to entry than their locally installed competitors.
a) IaaS
b) CaaS
c) PaaS
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Such applications feature automated upgrades, updates, and patch management and much faster rollout of changes.

38. SaaS supports multiple users and provides a shared data model through _________ model.
a) single-tenancy
b) multi-tenancy
c) multiple-instance
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The alternative of software virtualization of individual instances also exists, but is less common.

39. Open source software used in a SaaS is called _______ SaaS.
a) closed
b) free
c) open
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A considerable amount of SaaS software is based on open source software.

40. The componentized nature of SaaS solutions enables many solutions to support a feature called _____________
a) workspace
b) workloads
c) mashups
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A mashup is an application that can display a Web page that shows data and supports features from two or more sources.

41. Salesforce.com is the largest ______ provider of CRM software.
a) PaaS
b) IaaS
c) CaaS
d) SaaS
Answer: d
Explanation: Salesforce.com extended its SaaS offering to allow developers to create add-on applications.

42. Point out the correct statement.
a) Mashups are an incredibly useful hybrid Web application
b) SaaS will eventually replace all locally installed software
c) The establishment and proof of identity is a central network function
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: An identity service is one that stores the information associated with a digital entity in a form that can be queried and managed for use in electronic transactions.

43. Which of the following group is dedicated to support technologies that implement enterprise mashups?
a) Open Alliance Apache
b) Open Mashup Alliance
c) Open Tech Alliance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: This group predicts that the use of mashups will grow by a factor of 10 within just a few years.

44. Which of the following attribute should be unique?
a) identity
b) digital identity
c) mashup
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A digital identity is those attributes and metadata of an object along with a set of relationships with other objects that makes an object identifiable.

45. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Distributed transaction systems such as internetworks or cloud computing systems magnify the difficulties faced by identity management systems
b) Services that provide digital identity management as a service have been part of internetworked systems from Day One
c) IDaaS Server establishes the identity of a domain as belonging to a set of assigned addresses
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The name servers that run the various Internet domains are IDaaS servers.

46. __________ authentication requires the outside use of a network security or trust service.
a) SSO
b) Singlefactor
c) Multi Factor
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: More secure authentication requires the use of at least two-factor authentication.

47. ________ is the assignment of a network identity to a specific MAC address that allows systems to be found on networks.
a) Internet Hardware Addresses
b) Ethernet Software Addresses
c) Ethernet Hardware Addresses
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Network interfaces are identified uniquely by Media Access Control (MAC) addresses, which alternatively are referred to as Ethernet Hardware Addresses.

48. _________ is one of the more expensive and complex areas of network computing.
a) Multi-Factor Authentication
b) Fault tolerance
c) Identity protection
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Ticket or token providing services, certificate servers, and other trust mechanisms all provide identity services that can be pushed out of private networks and into the cloud.

49. Which of the following is provided by Identity as a Service?
a) Identity governance
b) Provisioning
c) Risk and event monitoring
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Identity as a Service or the related hosted (managed) identity services may be the most valuable and cost effective distributed service types you can subscribe to.

50. Which of the following figure fully represent standards needed by IDaaS applications for interoperability?
a)cloud-computing-idaas-interview-questions-answers-q10a
b)cloud-computing-idaas-interview-questions-answers-q10b
c)cloud-computing-idaas-interview-questions-answers-q10c
d)cloud-computing-idaas-interview-questions-answers-q10d

Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud computing IDaaS applications must rely on a set of developing industry standards to provide interoperability.

51. Any software application that complies with the standard accepts a _______ that is authenticated by a trusted provider.
a) OpenID
b) OpenUser
c) OpenSSD
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When an identity is created in an OpenID system, that information is stored in the system of any OpenID service provider and translated into a unique identifier.

52. Point out the wrong statement.
a) XML checks the ID request against its policies and either allows or denies the request
b) SPML in most instances operates as a reply/request mechanism
c) User centric authentication takes place usually in the form of knowledge cards
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In SAML, a service provider passes a statement or set of statements (called assertions) to an identity provider that must be evaluated.

53. Which of the following allows a distributed ID system to write and enforce custom policy expressions?
a) XACML
b) XML
c) SOAP
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: This is a general-purpose authorization policy language.

54. _________ is a standard of OASIS’s PSTC that conforms to the SOA architecture.
a) XACML
b) SPML
c) SML
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: SPML is an XML request/response language that is used to integrate and interoperate service provisioning requests.

55. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Distributed transaction systems such as internetworks or cloud computing systems magnify the difficulties faced by identity management systems
b) The Distributed Audit Service provides accountability for users accessing a system
c) The OpenID and CardSpace specifications support the authentication type of data object
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: OpenID is a developing industry standard for authenticating “end users” by storing their digital identity in a common format.

56. Which of the following standard is concerned with the exchange and control of identity information?
a) IGK
b) IDF
c) IGF
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The Identity Governance Framework (IGF) is a standards initiative of the Liberty Alliance.

57. _______ is a Microsoft software client that is part of the company’s Identity Metasystem and built into the Web Services Protocol Stack.
a) IHA
b) EHA
c) CardSpace
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: CardSpace was introduced with .NET Frameworks 3.0 and can be installed on Windows XP, Server 2003, and later.

58. The _______ Open Source Identity Framework is used to create a vendor-neutral cloud-based authentication service.
a) Higgins
b) Hughes
c) Hinges
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The Higgins Open Source Identity Framework uses an i-Card metaphor.

59. Which of the following is authorization markup language?
a) eXtensible Access Control Markup Language
b) intrinsic Access Control Markup Language
c) hypertext Access Control Markup Language
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A policy in XACML describes a subject element that requests an action from a resource.

60. Which of the following should come in place of question mark for the following figure?
cloud-computing-interview-questions-answers-experienced-q10

a) Policy Enforcement Point
b) Policy Decision Point
c) Policy Insertion Point
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: SAML integrates with XACML to implement a policy engine in a Service Oriented Architecture to support identity services authorization.

Module 04

1. A _______ service provider gets the same benefits from a composable system that a user does.
a) CaaS
b) AaaS
c) PaaS
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If you are a PaaS or SaaS service provider and your task is to create the platform or service presented to the developer, reseller, or user, the notion of working with a composable system is still a very powerful one.

2. Point out the correct statement.
a) Cloud architecture can couple software running on virtualized hardware in multiple locations to provide an on-demand service
b) Cloud computing relies on a set of protocols needed to manage interprocess communications
c) Platforms are used to create more complex software
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The most commonly used services uses a set of discovery and description protocols based on WSDL.

3. Which of the following is the property of the composable component?
a) stateful
b) stateless
c) symmetric
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A transaction is executed without regard to other transactions or requests.

4. From the standpoint of a ________ it makes no sense to offer non-standard machine instances to customers.
a) CaaS
b) AaaS
c) PaaS
d) IaaS
Answer: d
Explanation: Because those customers are almost certainly deploying applications built on standard operating systems such as Linux, Windows, Solaris, or some other well-known operating system.

5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) A cloud cannot be created within an organization’s own infrastructure or outsourced to another datacenter
b) A composable component must be modular
c) A composable component must be stateless
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: While resources in a cloud can be real physical resources, more often they are virtualized resources because virtualized resources are easier to modify and optimize.

6. A service provider reselling a _______ may have the option to offer one module to customize the information.
a) CaaS
b) AaaS
c) PaaS
d) SaaS
Answer: d
Explanation: Modifications are generally severely limited.

7. Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in cloud computing?
a) CaaS
b) AaaS
c) PaaS
d) SaaS
Answer: d
Explanation: An SaaS vendor such as Quicken.com or Salesforce.com is delivering an application as a service to a customer.

8. Which of the architectural layer is used as a front end in cloud computing?
a) client
b) cloud
c) soft
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud computing may be differentiated from older models by describing an encapsulated information technology service that is often controlled through an Application Programming Interface (API).

9. Which of the following benefit is provided by the PaaS service provider?
a) A larger pool of qualified developers
b) More reliable operation
c) A logical design methodology
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The essence of a service oriented design is that services are constructed from a set of modules using standard communications and service interfaces.

10. Communication between services is done widely using _______ protocol.
a) REST
b) SOAP
c) RESTful
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: There are alternative sets of standards as well.

11. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine technology to deliver servers?
a) CaaS
b) AaaS
c) PaaS
d) IaaS
Answer: d
Explanation: Most large Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) providers rely on virtual machine technology that can run applications.

12. Point out the correct statement.
a) Virtual machines are containers that are assigned specific resources
b) Applications need not be mindful of how they use cloud resources
c) When a developer creates an application that uses a cloud service, the developer cannot attach to the appropriate service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The software that runs in the virtual machines is what defines the utility of the cloud computing system.

13. Which of the following component is called hypervisor?
a) VGM
b) VMc
c) VMM
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: VMM component is also called hypervisor.

14. Applications such as a Web server or database server that can run on a virtual machine image are referred to as ______________
a) virtual server
b) virtual appliances
c) machine imaging
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The name virtual appliance is a little misleading because it conjures up the image of a machine that serves a narrow purpose.

15. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Platforms represent nearly the full cloud software stack
b) A platform in the cloud is a software layer that is used to create higher levels of service
c) Platforms often come replete with tools and utilities to aid in application design and deployment
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Most platforms begin by establishing a developer community to support the work done in the environment.

16. _________ allows different operating systems to run in their own memory space.
a) VGM
b) VMc
c) VMM
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: VMM manages I/O for the virtual machines.

17. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been packaged to run on the grid of ____ nodes.
a) Ben
b) Xen
c) Ken
d) Zen
Answer: b
Explanation: You run across virtual appliances in IaaS systems such as Amazon’s Elastic Compute Cloud.

18. Which of the following offers virtual appliances, including ones based on Windows, all of which run on VMware Player?
a) Bagvapp
b) Jcinacio
c) HelpdeskLive
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Virtual appliances have begun to affect the PC industry in much the same way that application stores have affected the cell phone industry.

19. ________ offers various Linux distributions upon which you can build a virtual machine.
a) Bagvapp
b) Jcinacio
c) HelpdeskLive
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Jcinacio has Ubuntu appliances.

20. __________ is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.
a) Imaging
b) Parallels
c) QEMU
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Parallels hosts a variety of appliances that includes Linux distros, server software, and other products.

21. MCC includes ______ types of cloud resources
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer : C
Explanation: MCC includes four types of cloud resources: Distant mobile cloud, Distant immobile cloud, Proximate mobile computing entities and Proximate immobile computing entities

22. Which of the following mobile platform support hundreds of thousands of third-party applications?
A. Android
B. iPhone
C. BlackBerry
D. RIM
Answer : B
Explanation: The five major smartphone operating systems to consider are Google’s Android, Apple’s iOS (iPhone OS), RIM BlackBerry, Symbian, and Windows Mobile Phone.

23. The Android software is based on Java and runs in a?
A. Dalvik virtual machine
B. Quadrangle virtual machine
C. Qualcomm virtual machine
D. Snapdragon virtual machine
Answer: A
Explanation: The Android software is based on Java and runs in a Dalvik virtual machine.

24. In which issue, It is challenging to migrate an application, which is resource-intensive to cloud and to execute it via Virtual Machine?
A. Architectural Issues
B. Security and Privacy
C. Mobile Communication Congestion
D. Live VM Migration
Answer : D
Explanation: Live VM Migration : It is challenging to migrate an application, which is resource-intensive to cloud and to execute it via Virtual Machine.

25. ________ Mobile Lite illustrates an important trend in software to extend its products as cloud services for mobile access.
A. Google.com
B. aol.com
C. Salesforce.com
D. Oracle.com
Answer : C
Explanation: Salesforce.com’s Mobile Lite illustrates an important trend in software to extend its products as cloud services for mobile access.

26. Which of the following is a push mechanism for publishing Web site data that is device-specific?
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. Bluetooth
D. GAP
Answer: A
Explanation: WAP is a push mechanism for publishing Web site data that is device-specific.

27. Which of the following factor needs to be addressed while working with mobile applications in the cloud?
A. Slow transmission over the connection
B. Different methods of navigation through the interface
C. Variable screen sizes and resolutions
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: All factor needs to be addressed while working with mobile applications in the cloud.

28. Open-system ___________ tends to evolve more quickly than proprietary systems.
A. hardware
B. software
C. hardware and software
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Open-system hardware and software tends to evolve more quickly than proprietary systems.

29. ________ is an online storage drive that can browsed and from which items can be shared.
A. Find My iPhone
B. iWeb Publish
C. MobileMe Gallery
D. iDisk
Ans : D
Explanation: iDisk is an online storage drive that can browsed and from which items can be shared.

30. BlackBerry has an IM service called?
A. BBM
B. BBC
C. ICQ
D. ICD
Answer: A
Explanation: BlackBerry has an IM service called BlackBerry Messenger.

31. Which of the following algorithm is used by Google to determine the importance of a particular page?
a) SVD
b) PageRank
c) FastMap
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Content on pages is scanned up to a certain number of words and placed into an index.

32. Point out the correct statement.
a) With PaaS, the goal is to create hosted scalable applications that are used in a Software as a Service model
b) Applications built using PaaS tools need to be standards-based
c) In Wolf, the data and transaction management conforms to the business rules you create
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Wolf lets you work with Adobe Flash or Flex or with Microsoft Silverlight.

33. Based on PageRank algorithm, Google returns __________ for a query that is parsed for its keywords.
a) SEP
b) SAP
c) SERP
d) Business Objects Build
Answer: c
Explanation: SERP stands for Search Engine Results Page.

34. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Wolf Frameworks uses a C# engine and supports both Microsoft SQL Server and MySQL database
b) Applications built in Wolf are 50-percent browser-based and support mashable and multisource overlaid content
c) Google applications are cloud-based applications
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Wolf has architected its platform so applications can be built without the need to write technical code.

35. Which of the following protocol lets a Web site list in an XML file information?
a) Sitemaps
b) Mashups
c) Hashups
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Sitemaps can be useful in allowing content that isn’t browsable to be crawled.

36. Which of the following is not provided by “Deep Web”?
a) Database generated Web pages
b) Private or limited access Web pages
c) Pages without links
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Online content that isn’t indexed by search engines belongs to what has come to be called the “Deep Web”.

37. Dynamic content presented in Google _______ crawling isn’t normally indexed.
a) AJAX
b) Java
c) Javascript
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Google now has a procedure that helps the Google engine crawl this information.

38. Which of the following google product sends you periodic email alerts based on your search term?
a) Alerts
b) Blogger
c) Calendar
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: By creating a Google Alert, you can get email notifications any time Google finds new results on a topic that interests you.

39. Which of the following is a payment processing system by Google?
a) Paytm
b) Checkout
c) Code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Google Checkout was an online payment processing service provided by Google aimed at simplifying the process of paying for online purchases.

Module 05

1. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown in the figure?
cloud-computing-aws-interview-questions-answers-q1
a) SimpleDB
b) RDS
c) Amazon EC2
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Use RDS when you have an existing MySQL database that could be ported and you want to minimize the amount of infrastructure and administrative management required.

2. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Amazon Machine Instances are sized at various levels and rented on a computing/hour basis
b) The metrics obtained by CloudWatch may be used to enable a feature called Auto Scaling
c) A number of tools are used to support EC2 services
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Through hardware virtualization on Xen hypervisors, Amazon.com has made it possible to create private virtual servers that you can run worldwide.

3. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery system that caches data in different physical locations?
a) Amazon Relational Database Service
b) Amazon SimpleDB
c) Amazon Cloudfront
d) Amazon Associates Web Services
Answer: c
Explanation: Cloudfront is similar to systems such as Akamai.com, but is proprietary to Amazon.com and is set up to work with Amazon Simple Storage
System (Amazon S3).

4. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database to support your Web sites?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b) Amazon Simple Queue Service
c) Amazon Relational Database Service
d) Amazon Simple Storage System
Answer: c
Explanation: RDS provides features such as automated software patching, database backups, and automated database scaling via an API call.

5. Point out the correct statement.
a) Amazon Elastic Cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)
b) SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3
c) EC3 is an Analytics as a Service provider
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Amazon SimpleDB stores data in “buckets” and without requiring the creation of a database schema.

6. Which of the following is a structured data store that supports indexing and data queries to both EC2 and S3?
a) CloudWatch
b) Amazon SimpleDB
c) Amazon Cloudfront
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: SimpleDB isn’t a full database implementation.

7. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with Amazon’s vast product data and eCommerce catalog function?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b) Amazon Associates Web Services
c) Alexa Web Information Service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: This service, which was called Amazon E-Commerce Service (ECS), is the means for vendors to add their products to the Amazon.com site
and take orders and payments.

8. Which of the following is a billing and account management service?
a) Amazon Elastic MapReduce
b) Amazon Mechanical Turk
c) Amazon DevPay
d) Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer: c
Explanation: DevPay provides a developer API that eliminates the need for application developers to build order pipelines.

9. Which of the following is a means for accessing human researchers or consultants to help solve problems on a contractual or temporary basis?
a) Amazon Elastic MapReduce
b) Amazon Mechanical Turk
c) Amazon DevPay
d) Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer: b
Explanation: Problems solved by this human workforce have included object identification, video or audio recording, data duplication, and data research.

10. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic Compute Cloud?
a) Amazon Elastic MapReduce
b) Amazon Mechanical Turk
c) Amazon DevPay
d) Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer: a
Explanation: Amazon Elastic MapReduce is an interactive data analysis tool for performing indexing.

11. Which of the following correctly describes components roughly in their order of importance from top to down?
a)cloud-computing-mcqs-q1a
b)cloud-computing-mcqs-q1b
c)cloud-computing-mcqs-q1c
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud is the central application in the AWS portfolio.

12. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Virtual private servers can provision virtual private clouds connected through virtual private networks
b) Amazon Web Services is based on SOA standards
c) Starting in 2012, Amazon.com made its Web service platform available to developers on a usage-basis model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Through hardware virtualization on Xen hypervisors, Amazon.com has made it possible to create private virtual servers that you can run worldwide.

13. Which of the following is the central application in the AWS portfolio?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b) Amazon Simple Queue Service
c) Amazon Simple Notification Service
d) Amazon Simple Storage System
Answer: a
Explanation: Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud enables the creation, use, and management of virtual private servers running the Linux or Windows operating system over a Xen hypervisor.

14. Which of the following is a message queue or transaction system for distributed Internet-based applications?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b) Amazon Simple Queue Service
c) Amazon Simple Notification Service
d) Amazon Simple Storage System
Answer: b
Explanation: In a loosely coupled SOA system, a transaction manager is required to ensure that messages are not lost when a component isn’t available.

15. Point out the correct statement.
a) SQL Server is having enormous impact on cloud computing
b) Amazon.com’s services represent the largest pure Infrastructure as a Service (IAAS)
c) EC2 is a Platform as a Service (PaaS) market
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: EC2 is estimated to run on over 40,000+ servers worldwide divided into six availability zones.

16. Which of the following is a system for creating block level storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?
a) CloudWatch
b) Amazon Elastic Block Store
c) AWS Import/Export
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The Load Balancing feature can detect when an instance is failing and reroute traffic to a healthy instance, even an instance in other AWS zones.

17. Which of the following feature is used for scaling of EC2 sites?
a) Auto Replica
b) Auto Scaling
c) Auto Ruling
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Autoscaling is part of Amazon Cloudwatch and available at no additional charge.

18. Which of the following is a Web service that can publish messages from an application and deliver them to other applications or to subscribers?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b) Amazon Simple Queue Service
c) Amazon Simple Notification Service
d) Amazon Simple Storage System
Answer: c
Explanation: SNS provides a method for triggering actions, allowing clients or applications to subscribe to information (like RSS), or polling for new or changed information or perform updates.

19. Which of the following metrics are used to support Elastic Load Balancing?
a) CloudWatch
b) Amazon Elastic Block Store
c) AWS Import/Export
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Amazon Machine Instances (AMIs) in EC2 can be load balanced using the Elastic Load Balancing.

20. Which of the following is an online backup and storage system?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b) Amazon Simple Queue Service
c) Amazon Simple Notification Service
d) Amazon Simple Storage System
Answer: d
Explanation: A high speed data transfer feature called AWS Import/Export can transfer data to and from AWS using Amazon’s own internal network to portable storage devices.

21. Which of the following tool is used for measuring I/O of your systems to estimate these transaction costs?
a) EBS
b) IOSTAT
c) ESW
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: EBS is a service priced on the amount of storage space used.

22. Point out the wrong statement.
a) The cost of creating an EBS volume is lesser than creating a similarly sized S3 bucket
b) An EBS volume can be used as an instance boot partition
c) EBS boot partitions can be stopped and started, and they offer fast AMI boot times
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The cost of creating an EBS volume is also greater than creating a similarly sized S3 bucket.

23. Which of the following is also referred to edge computing?
a) CloudWave
b) CloudFront
c) CloudSpot
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In edge computing, content is pushed out geographically so the data is more readily available to network clients and has a lower latency when requested.

24. CloudFront supports ______ data by performing static data transfers and streaming content from one CloudFront location to another.
a) table caching
b) geocaching
c) index caching
d) windows Media Server
Answer: b
Explanation: A user requesting data from a CloudFront site is referred to the nearest geographical location.

25. Point out the correct statement.
a) A volume is mounted on a particular instance and is available to all instances
b) The advantages of an EBS boot partition are that you can have a volume up to 1TB
c) You cannot mount multiple volumes on a single instance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: EBS is similar in concept to a Storage Area Network or SAN.

26. Data stored in __________ domains doesn’t require maintenance of a schema.
a) SimpleDB
b) SQL Server
c) Oracle
d) RDS
Answer: a
Explanation: To create a high performance “simple” database, the data store created is flat; that is, it is non-relational and joins are not supported.

27. Which of the following is relational database service provided by Amazon?
a) SimpleDB
b) SQL Server
c) Oracle
d) RDS
Answer: d
Explanation: Amazon offers two different types of database services.

28. Which of the following can be considered as a distributed caching system?
a) CND
b) CDN
c) CWD
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Amazon CloudFront is referred to as a content delivery network (CDN), and sometimes called edge computing.

29. Amazon Relational Database Service is a variant of the _______ 5.1 database system.
a) Oracle
b) MySQL
c) SQL Server
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of RDS is to allow database applications that already exist to be ported to RDS and placed in an environment that is relatively automated and easy to use.

30. Which of the following database should be used for a solution that has a very high availability?
a) SimpleDB
b) RDS
c) Amazon EC2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Use SimpleDB for the lowest administrative overhead.

31. Which of the following is a method for bidding on unused EC2 capacity based on the current spot price?
a) On-Demand Instance
b) Reserved Instances
c) Spot Instance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: This feature offers a significantly lower price, but it varies over time or may not be available when there is no excess capacity.

32. Point out the wrong statement.
a) The standard instances are not suitable for standard server applications
b) High memory instances are useful for large data throughput applications such as SQL Server databases and data caching and retrieval
c) FPS is exposed as an API that sorts transactions into packages called Quick Starts that makes it easy to implement
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard instances are deemed to be suitable for standard server applications.

33. Which of the following instance has an hourly rate with no long-term commitment?
a) On-Demand Instance
b) Reserved Instances
c) Spot Instance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Pricing varies by zone, instance, and pricing model.

34. Which of the following is a batch processing application?
a) IBM sMash
b) IBM WebSphere Application Server
c) Condor
d) Windows Media Server
Answer: c
Explanation: Condor is a powerful, distributed batch-processing system that lets you use otherwise idle CPU cycles in a cluster of workstations.

35. Point out the correct statement.
a) Security can be set through passwords, Kerberos tickets, or certificates
b) Secure access to your EC2 AMIs is controlled by passwords, Kerberos, and 509 Certificates
c) Most of the system image templates that Amazon AWS offers are based on Red Hat Linux
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Hundreds of free and paid AMIs can be found on AWS.

36. How many EC2 service zones or regions exist?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four different EC2 service zones or regions.

37. Amazon ______ cloud-based storage system allows you to store data objects ranging in size from 1 byte up to 5GB.
a) S1
b) S2
c) S3
d) S4
Answer: c
Explanation: In S3, storage containers are referred to as buckets.

38. Which of the following can be done with S3 buckets through the SOAP and REST APIs?
a) Upload new objects to a bucket and download them
b) Create, edit, or delete existing buckets
c) Specify where a bucket should be stored
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The REST API is preferred to the SOAP API because it is easier to work with large binary objects with REST.

39. Which of the following operation retrieves the newest version of the object?
a) PUT
b) GET
c) POST
d) COPY
Answer: b
Explanation: Versioning also can be used for preserving data and for archiving purposes.

40. Which of the following statement is wrong about Amazon S3?
a) Amazon S3 is highly reliable
b) Amazon S3 provides large quantities of reliable storage that is highly protected
c) Amazon S3 is highly available
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: S3 excels in applications where storage is archival in nature.

41. In which year, Amazon Web Services founded?
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008
Answer: B
Explanation: Amazon Web Services Founded in 2006

42. EC2 stands for ?
A. Elastic Compute Cloud
B. Elastic Configuration Cloud
C. Elastic Cloud Configuration
D. Elastic Cloud Compute
Answer : A
Explanation: EC2 stands for Elastic Compute Cloud.

3. Which of the following simply means to hardware or software load over web servers, that improver’s the efficiency of the server as well as the application?
A. Amazon Cloud-front
B. Elastic Load Balancer
C. Load Balancing
D. Security Management
Answer : C
Explanation: Load balancing simply means to hardware or software load over web servers, that improver’s the efficiency of the server as well as the application.

44. Which of the following dynamically grow and shrink the load-balancing capacity to adjust to traffic demands?
A. Amazon Cloud-front
B. Elastic Caches
C. Amazon RDS
D. Elastic Load Balancing
Answer : D
Explanation: Elastic Load Balancing can dynamically grow and shrink the load-balancing capacity to adjust to traffic demands and also support sticky sessions to address more advanced routing needs.

45. Simple Storage Service use for?
A. It allows the users to store and retrieve various types of data using API calls.
B. It does contain computing element.
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer : A
Explanation: S3 stands for Simple Storage Service. It allows the users to store and retrieve various types of data using API calls. It doesn’t contain any computing element.

46. Amazon S3 stores data as objects within resources called ?
A. Auto Scaling
B. EC2 Instances
C. Buckets
D. Amazon RDS
Answer : C
Explanation: Amazon S3 stores data as objects within resources called buckets

47. Amazon EBS currently supports up to ________ IOPS per volume
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000
Answer : C
Explanation: Amazon EBS currently supports up to 1,000 IOPS per volume. We can stripe multiple volumes together to deliver thousands of IOPS per instance to an application.

48. Amazon EBS volumes can be maximized up to ?
A. 1 TB
B. 2 TB
C. 3 TB
D. 4 TB
Ans : A
Explanation: Amazon EBS volumes can be maximized up to 1 TB, and these volumes can be striped for larger volumes and increased performance.

49. Which of the following is not used for load balancing?
A. Zeus
B. HAProxy
C. Nginx
D. OpenSwan
Answer : D
Explanation: For load balancing choose Zeus, HAProxy, Nginx, Pound, etc. For establishing a VPN connection choose OpenVPN, OpenSwan, Vyatta, etc.

50. Which of the following is a web service that manages the memory cache in the cloud?
A. Amazon Elastic Cache
B. Amazon RDS
C. RDMS on EC2
D. Auto Scaling
Answer : A
Explanation: Amazon Elastic Cache is a web service that manages the memory cache in the cloud. In memory management, cache has a very important role and helps to reduce the load on the services, improves the performance and scalability on the database tier by caching frequently used information.

51. Point out the wrong statement.
A. Amazon Machine Instances are sized at various levels and rented on a computing/hour basis
B. The metrics obtained by CloudWatch may be used to enable a feature called Auto Scaling
C. A number of tools are used to support EC2 services
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Through hardware virtualization on Xen hypervisors, Amazon.com has made it possible to create private virtual servers that you can run worldwide.

52. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery system that caches data in different physical locations?
A. Amazon Relational Database Service
B. Amazon SimpleDB
C. Amazon Cloudfront
D. Amazon Associates Web Services
Answer : C
Explanation: Explanation: Cloudfront is similar to systems such as Akamai.com, but is proprietary to Amazon.com and is set up to work with Amazon Simple Storage

53. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database to support your Web sites?
A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
B. Amazon Simple Queue Service
C. Amazon Relational Database Service
D. Amazon Simple Storage System
Answer : C
Explanation: RDS provides features such as automated software patching, database backups, and automated database scaling via an API call.

54. Point out the correct statement.
A. Amazon Elastic Cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)
B. SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3
C. EC3 is an Analytics as a Service provider
D. None of the above
Answer : B
Explanation: Amazon SimpleDB stores data in “buckets” and without requiring the creation of a database schema.

55. Which of the following is a structured data store that supports indexing and data queries to both EC2 and S3?
A. CloudWatch
B. Amazon SimpleDB
C. Amazon Cloudfront
D. All of the above
Answer : B
Explanation: SimpleDB isn’t a full database implementation.

56. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic Compute Cloud?
A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
B. Amazon Mechanical Turk
C. Amazon DevPay
D. Multi-Factor Authentication
Answer : A
Explanation: Amazon Elastic MapReduce is an interactive data analysis tool for performing indexing

57. _________________ is a billing and account management service.
A. Amazon Mechanical Turk
B. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
C. Amazon DevPay
D. Multi-Factor Authentication
Ans : C
Explanation: Amazon DevPay is a billing and account management service..

58. Which of the following is a system for creating block-level storage devices that can be used for Amazon Machine Instances in EC2?
A. CloudWatch
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store
C. AWS Import/Export
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Explanation: Amazon Elastic Block Store is correct answer

59. Which of the following is Amazon’s technical support and consulting business?
A. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud
B. AWS Premium Support
C. Amazon Fulfillment Web Services
D. All of the above
Answer : B
Explanation: AWS Premium Support is Amazon’s technical support and consulting business.

60. What is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm?
A. Azure
B. EC2
C. EC3
D. EC5
Answer : B
Explanation: EC2 is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm.

Module 06

1. Which of the following factors are deemed to be important considerations for evaluating cloud solutions?
a) Seamless maintenance and upgrades
b) Performance characteristics
c) Client self-service
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: In addition to assigning security-provisioned cloud storage to a client or service requester, a cloud storage service provider must be able to deliver a measured level of service.

2. Point out the correct statement.
a) QoS levels may be applied to different services against a single virtual storage container
b) An SLA might specify that a particular Quality of Service (QoS) for a virtual storage container may be measured in terms of the I/O per second
c) To provide for scaling, a virtual storage container must be easily migrated from one storage system to another
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: One unique characteristic of cloud-based storage solutions is that they permit rapid scaling, both in terms of performance and storage capacity.

3. Which of the following figure is correct according to categories shown?
a)cloud-computing-questions-answers-cloud-backup-solutions-q3a
b)cloud-computing-questions-answers-cloud-backup-solutions-q3b
c)cloud-computing-questions-answers-cloud-backup-solutions-q3c
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Backups may be categorized as belonging to one of the above types.

4. How many categories of backup exist in cloud storage?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Seven categories of backup exist for cloud storage.

5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) To scale in, the service must allow for stored data to span additional storage systems
b) To scale up, the service must allow for more disks and more spindles to be provisioned
c) To increase the capacity of a storage provision, it is necessary to provide the capability to scale up or scale out across storage systems
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud storage systems that successfully scale their provisioned storage for clients often allow for the multiple storage systems to be geographically dispersed and often provide load-balancing services across different storage instances.

6. Which of the following is not a backup category?
a) Full system backup
b) Half system backup
c) Image backup
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: An image backup creates a complete copy of a volume.

7. Which of the following backup is also referred to as snapshots?
a) Point-in-time
b) Differential
c) Image backup
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Software such as Carbonite may take several days to backup a system, but minutes to create the snapshot.

8. Which of the following software supplies full system backup?
a) Carbonite
b) Ghost
c) RDIFF-BACKUP
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: An image backup allows a system to do what is referred to as a bare metal restore.

9. Which of the following backup lets you restore your data to a point in time and saves multiple copies of any file that has been changed?
a) Point-in-time
b) Differential
c) Reverse backup
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: At least 10 to 30 copies of previous versions of files should be saved.

10. The amount of time needed to backup a system is referred to as its _______________
a) backup time
b) backup sheet
c) backup window
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The first backup is quite slow over an Internet connection, but the incremental backup can be relatively fast.

11. Which of the following flag is used by backup software to specify whether a file should be backed up or not?
a) archive bit
b) passive bit
c) active bit
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The bit is set on for backup and cleared when backup has copied the file.

12. Point out the correct statement.
a) To create an image backup of an active system, you may need to stop all application
b) To create an incremental backup of an active system, you may need to stop all applications
c) Differential backup allows a system to do what is referred to as a bare metal restore
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Full System backup is also referred to as image backup.

13. Which of the following backups are faster and more efficient from a storage perspective?
a) Point-in-time
b) Incremental
c) Reverse Delta backup
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Files in intervening incremental backups may be taken as temporary or scratch versions.

14. Which of the following backups creates a full backup first and then periodically synchronizes the full copy with the live version?
a) Continuous Data Protection
b) Open file backup
c) Reverse Delta backup
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The older versions of files that have been changed are archived so that a historical record of the backup exists.

15. Point out the wrong statement.
a) To scale out, the service must allow for stored data to span additional storage systems
b) The data is backed up, and then every so often changes are amended to the backup creating is referred to as an incremental backup
c) A differential backup is related to a full system backup
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A differential backup is related to an incremental backup.

6. Which of the following backup is used by Apple’s Time Machine?
a) Continuous Data Protection
b) Open file backup
c) Reverse Delta backup
d) Mirroring
Answer: c
Explanation: Software that uses reverse delta backup system is Apple’s Time Machine and the RDIFF-BACKUP utility.

17. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your current data or drive?
a) Continuous Data Protection
b) Open file backup
c) Reverse Delta backup
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: CDP is also referred to as mirroring.

18. Which of the following backup systems are expensive and highly customized to a particular application such as SQL Server?
a) Continuous Data Protection
b) Open file backup
c) Reverse Delta backup
d) Data archival
Answer: b
Explanation: Some applications such as database systems and messaging systems are mission critical and cannot be shut down before being backed up.

19. Which of the following is useful for legal compliance or to provide a long-term historical record?
a) Continuous Data Protection
b) Open file backup
c) Reverse Delta backup
d) Data archival
Answer: d
Explanation: Data archives are often confused with backups.

20. Which of the following is used to specify the migration of data that is no longer in use to tertiary long-term data storage for retention?
a) replicating
b) scaling
c) archiving
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: You can’t restore your current data set from an archive.

21. Which of the following sells a server referred to as Cloud Attached Storage?
a) CEAT
b) CTERA
c) OCCI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Cloud Attached Storage is meant for the Small and Medium Business.

22. Point out the correct statement.
a) The CTERA Cloud Attached Storage backup server has the attributes of a NAS
b) CDMI removes older information that is no longer operational and saves it for long-term storage
c) OCMI cloud backup provides a solution that optimizes the backup based on bandwidth availability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Backed up data may be shared between users.

23. The development of systems on a chip has enabled CTERA to create a scaled-down version of the CTERA server called the CTERA __________
a) CloudPlug
b) NextCloud
c) CloudNext
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: This palm-sized low-power device converts a USB/eSATA drive and your Ethernet network and turns the hard drive into a NAS server.

24. Which of the following filesystem can be backed up by CloudPlug?
a) NTFS
b) FAT32
c) EXT3
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Laptops may be backed up from any location because they are assigned a roaming profile with dynamic IP support.

25. Point out the wrong statement.
a) Clients have browser-based access to the backups or can locally access files using CTERA “Virtual Cloud Drive” network drive
b) CloudPlug performs backup and synchronization services and then performs automated or on-demand backups and snapshots of your systems
c) CloudPlug uses UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) and Bonjour to discover systems on the network
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The software works with Microsoft Active Directory and allows for role-based user access

26. Which of the following is the open cloud storage management standard by SNIA?
a) CDMI
b) OCCI
c) CEA
d) Adequate bandwidth
Answer: a
Explanation: CDMI stands for Cloud Data Management Interface.

27. Which of the following standard uses the same authorization and authentication mechanism as CDMI?
a) SIA
b) NFS
c) NTFS
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: CDMI includes commands that allow applications to access cloud storage and create, retrieve, update, and delete data objects.

28. While working with the storage domain model, CDMI allows for interoperation of which of the following clouds?
a) public
b) private
c) hybrid
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The CDMI data object can manage CDMI containers, as well as containers that are accessible in cloud storage through other supported protocols.

29. In the Cloud Data Management Interface (CDMI), the storage space is partitioned into units called _________
a) containers
b) workspace
c) replicas
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A container stores a set of data in it and serves as the named object upon which data service operations are performed.

30. Which of the following server performs the backups of clients without requiring any client-based software?
a) Next3
b) OBackup
c) CTERA
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

31. Which of the following backup is used by Apple’s Time Machine ?
a. Continuous Data Protection
b. Open file backup
c. Reverse Delta backup
d. Mirroring
Answer:  c
Explanation:Software that uses reverse delta backup system is Apple’s Time Machine and the RDIFF-BACKUP utility.

32. Which of the following is most important feature of cloud storage listed below ?
a. Logon authentication
b. Bare file
c. Multiplatform support
d. Adequate bandwidth
Answer:  a
Explanation:The interactive logon process is the first step in user authentication and authorization.

33. Which of the following is not a backup category ?
a. Full system backup
b. Half system backup
c. Image backup
d. All of the mentioned
Answer:  b
Explanation:none

34. Which of the following is open cloud storage management standard by SNIA ?
a. CDMI
b. OCCI
c. CEA
d. Adequate bandwidth
Answer:  a
Explanation:CDMI stands for Cloud Data Management Interface.

35. Which of the following system does not provision storage to most users ?
a. PaaS
b. IaaS
c. CaaS
d. SaaS
Answer:  b
Explanation:Cloud storage is storage accessed by a Web service API

36. Which of the following metadata MIME is required in a PUT operation ?
a. HEAD/OPTIONS
b. GET/RECEIVE
c. KEY/VALUE
d. None of the mentioned
Answer:  c
Explanation:A variety of KEY/VALUE pairs describing object attributes in CDMI is defined by the standard.

37. Which of the following factors led to the demise of many of the early SSPs and to many hosted file services ?
a. The Dot.com bust in 2000
b. The inability of file-hosting companies to successfully monetize online storage
c. The continued commoditization of large disk drives
d. All of the mentioned
Answer:  d
Explanation:SSP stands for Storage Service Provider.

38. Which of the following service is provided by Google for online storage ?
a. Drive
b. SkyDrive
c. Dropbox
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation:Google Drive is a file storage and synchronization service created by Google.

39. A ________ is a logical unit that serves as the target for storage operations, such as the SCSI protocol’s READs and WRITEs.
a. GETs
b. PUN
c. LUN
d. All of the mentioned
Answer:  c
Explanation:In traditional pooled storage deployments, storage partitions can be assigned and provide a device label called a Logical Unit Number.

40. Which of the following backup create a cloned copy of your current data or drive ?
a. Continuous Data Protection
b. Open file backup
c. Reverse Delta backup
d. None of the mentioned
Answer:  a

Prepare For Your Placements: https://lastmomenttuitions.com/courses/placement-preparation/

/ Youtube Channel: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCGFNZxMqKLsqWERX_N2f08Q

Follow For Latest Updates, Study Tips & More Content!

/lastmomenttuition

Last Moment Tuitions

lastmomentdost