1. The front axle of a car has pivot centers 1.3 m apart. The angle of inside lock is 40℃ and the angle of the outside lock is 35℃. What is the wheelbase of the car?
a) 5.5 m
b) 3.5 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 6.5
Answer: a
Explanation: For correct steering, cot α – cot θ = c / b where c = pivot center, b = wheelbase, α = angle of outside lock, and θ = angle of inside lock. Cot α – Cot θ = c / b ⇒ Cot 35 – Cot 40 = 1.3 / b ⇒ b = 5.49 m.

2. If the wheelbase, the pivot center, and wheel track of the are 2.5 m, 1.1 m, and 1.3 m respectively. The angle of the inside lock is 42℃. What is the circle radius of the outer front wheel?
a) 2.6 m
b) 3.6 m
c) 4.6 m
d) 1.6 m
Answer: b
Explanation: b = wheelbase = 2.5 m, c = pivot center = 1.1 m, a = wheel track = 1.3 m, and θ = angle of inside lock = 42℃. For the inner front wheel, radius =bsinθ–a–c2=2.5sin42–1.3–1.12 = 3.6 m

3. What is the angle between the steering axis and the vertical in the plane of the wheel?
a) Castor
b) Camber
c) Steering axis inclination
d) Kingpin inclination
Answer: a
Explanation: Castor is the angle between the steering axis and the vertical in the plane of the wheel. Positive castor improves the straight-line stability of the car.

4. If the front of the front wheels is inside and rear of front wheels are apart when the vehicle is at rest, then the configuration is called?
a) Toe-in
b) Toe out
c) Positive camber
d) Positive castor
Answer: a
Explanation: Toe-in is the amount by which the front wheels are set closer together at the front than at the rear when the vehicle is stationary. Toe-in provided generally less than 3 mm.

5. What is the name of the angle through which the wheel has to turn to sustain the side force?
a) Slip angle
b) Castor angle
c) Camber
d) Kingpin inclination
Answer: a
Explanation: The slip angle is the angle through which the wheel has to be turned to sustain the side force on the wheel. The force produced due to this which counters the side thrust is known as cornering force.

6. What is called the cornering force over the slip angle?
a) Castor trail
b) Cornering power
c) Self-righting torque
d) Pneumatic trail
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of cornering force to the slip angle is called the cornering power. The cornering power increases due to tire stiffness.

7. What is a condition called when the vehicle will try to move away from its normal direction and to keep it on the right path there is need to steer a little?
a) Understeer
b) Oversteer
c) Reversibility
d) Irreversibility
Answer: a
Explanation: When the slip angles of the front wheels are greater than those for the rear wheels, the radius of the turn is increased. Due to which there is the need to steer more than required which is called understeer.

8. What is the purpose of the reciprocating ball type steering gear?
a) To reduce the operating cost
b) To reduce the number of parts
c) To reduce the operating friction
d) To reduce the toe-out during the turns
Answer: c
Explanation: The reciprocating ball type steering gear serve the purpose of reducing the friction and wear of the gear.

9. What is the angle between the vertical when the top of the wheel slants outward?
a) Negative camber
b) Negative castor
c) Positive camber
d) Positive castor
Answer: c
Explanation: The angle between the vertical when the top of the wheel slants outward is called positive camber. Positive camber will lead to decrease in turning radius and thus lead to a decrease in the steering effort.

10. The furniture rollers are provided with negative castor.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The furniture rollers are provided with positive castor. The positive castor gives more directional stability. In positive castor, steering axis would meet the ground ahead of the center of the roller. The later wheel would always follow the former wheel.

11. In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to-disc adjustment?
a) Bleed screw
b) Piston
c) Caliper
d) Piston seal
Answer: d
Explanation: Piston seal provides the pad-to-disc adjustment in a disc brake. When the brake is applied, the piston seal deforms.

12. What is the braking torque at leading shoe if resultant frictional force acts at a distance of 250 mm from the brake drum center, coefficient of friction between the shoe and the drum as 0.5, the free ends of the two shoes are pushed apart with a force of 300 N which is acting at a distance of 320 mm from anchor, and two shoes are anchored together 170 mm away from the brake drum center?
a) 276.6 Nm
b) 256.6 Nm
c) 266.6 Nm
d) 246.6 Nm
Answer: c
Explanation: T_L =W∗L∗μ∗RM−(μ∗R)=320∗300∗0.5∗250170−(0.5∗250) = 266666.66 Nmm = 266.6 Nm where L is the distance at which the force acts from the anchor, W is the force from the anchor, μ is the coefficient of friction, R is the distance of resulting friction force from brake drum center, M is the distance between the two anchors.

13. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force
Answer: a
Explanation: Frictional force is the main force which acts and plays an important role in the braking system. The disc pads get to rub against the drum and which creates the friction and opposes the motion of the rotational motion of the drum.

14. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?
a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake
Answer: b
Explanation: Disk brakes are used usually on the front wheels. When the brakes are applied the 70% of the weight is transferred to the front wheels. Because of which the brakes on the front wear out faster.

15. If the car is moving on the level road at a speed of 50 km/h has a wheelbase 3 m, a distance of C.G. from ground 700 mm and distance from rear wheels is 1.1 m. Coefficient of friction is 0.7. What is the retardation if the brakes are applied to the rear wheels?
a) 3.7 m/s²
b) 2.7 m/s²
c) 1.7 m/s²
d) 4.7 m/s²
Answer: a
Explanation: When the brakes are applied on the rear wheels and the vehicle is moving on the level road, a = μ∗g∗(L−x)L+μ∗h where ‘μ’ is the coefficient of friction, ‘L’ is wheelbase, ‘x’ is a distance of C.G. from rear wheels, and ‘h’ is the distance of the C.G. from the surface of the road. Therefore a = 0.7∗9.81∗(3−1.1)3+(0.7∗0.7) = 3.7 m/s².

16. If the car is moving on the level road at a speed of 50 km/h has a wheelbase 4 m, a distance of C.G. from ground 800 mm and distance from rear wheels is 1.2 m. Coefficient of friction is 0.8. What is the retardation if the brakes are applied to the front wheels?
a) 3.4 m/s²
b) 2.4 m/s²
c) 1.4 m/s²
d) 4.4 m/s²
Answer: b
Explanation: When the brakes are applied on the front wheels and the vehicle is moving on the level road, a = μ∗g∗xL−μ∗h where ‘μ’ is the coefficient of friction, ‘L’ is wheelbase, ‘x’ is a distance of C.G. from rear wheels, and ‘h’ is the distance of the C.G. from the surface of the road. Therefore a = 0.7∗9.81∗1.24−(0.8∗0.8) = 2.4 m/s².

17. If the car is moving on the level road at a speed of 50 km/h has a wheelbase 4 m, a distance of C.G. from ground 800 mm and distance from rear wheels is 1.2 m. Coefficient of friction is 0.8. What is the retardation if the brakes are applied to all wheels?
a) 7.8 m/s²
b) 6.8 m/s²
c) 5.8 m/s²
d) 4.8 m/s²
Answer: a
Explanation: When the brakes are applied on all wheels and the vehicle is moving on the level road, a = μ*g where ‘μ’ is the coefficient of friction, ‘L’ is wheelbase, ‘x’ is a distance of C.G. from rear wheels, and ‘h’ is the distance of the C.G. from the surface of the road. Therefore a = 0.8 * 9.81 = 7.8 m/s².

18. The car is moving up on the 12o inclined road with horizontal at 36 km/h which is having wheelbase 1.4 m. The C.G. of the car is 0.9 m above the road. The coefficient of friction is 0.7. What is the retardation of the car if the brakes are applied to all the four wheels?
a) 8.75 m/s²
b) 8.81 m/s²
c) 7.71 m/s²
d) 6.81 m/s²
Answer: a
Explanation: α is the inclination angle in degree = 12°, μ is the coefficient of friction = 0.7. When the vehicle is moving up on the inclined road and brakes are applied to all four wheels than the retardation a = g*(μ*cosα + sinα) = 9.81*(0.7*cos12° + sin12°) = 8.75 m/s².

19. The car is moving down on the 14° inclined road with horizontal at 36 km/h which is having wheelbase 1.4 m. The C.G. of the car is 0.9 m above the road. The coefficient of friction is 0.75. What is the retardation of the car if the brakes are applied to all the four wheels?
a) 4.76 m/s²
b) 5.76 m/s²
c) 6.76 m/s²
d) 7.76 m/s²
Answer: a
Explanation: α is the inclination angle in degree = 14° μ is the coefficient of friction = 0.75. When the vehicle is moving down on the inclined road and brakes are applied to all four wheels than the retardation a = g*(μ*cosα – sinα) = 9.81*(0.75*cos14° – sin14°) = 4.76 m/s².

20. The metering valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the front and the rear axle.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The proportioning valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the front and the rear axle.

21. In a differential with a gear ratio of 4 : 1 the drive pinion would revolve four times to cause the ring gear to rotate
(a) 1 time
(b) 2 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 6 times
Answer: a

22. More often, the condition that draws attention to trouble in the differential is
(a) Rough operation
(b) Noise
(c) Power loss
Answer: a

23. To correct heavy toe contact on ring gear teeth, move the
(a) Ring gear towards pinion
(b) Ring gear away from pinion
(c) Drive pinion out and back lash
Answer: c

24. On a straight road, the ring gear
(a) Rotates at the same speed as wheels
(b) Rotates faster than wheels
(c) Rotates slower than wheels
(d) Does not rotate
Answer: a

25. In a passenger car a typical arrangement of braking with drum brakes will be
(a) Two leading shoes at front and leading & trailing at rear
(b) All the wheels having leading and trailing shoes
(c) All the wheels having two leading shoes
(d) Front leading and trailing, rear two leading shoes
Answer: b

6. Brake efficiency is a term which denotes
(a) Efficiency of the braking system as a whole
(b) Efficiency of the braking linings
(c) The deceleration as percentage of gravity
(d) Efficiency of the operating linkage
Answer: c

27. The most widely used brakes are operated
(a) Electrically
(b) Hydraulically
(c) By air pressure
(d) By vacuum
Answer: b

28. As a rule when comparing the front and rear wheel cylinder pistons it will be found that the pistons in the
front wheel cylinders are
(a) The same size
(b) Smaller in diameter
(c) Larger in diameter
Answer: c

29. The type of braking system referred to as power brake, makes use of
(a) Electromagnets
(b) Compressed air
(c) Vacuum
Answer: b

30. In the vacuum suspended system, the brakes are applied when
(a) Atmospheric pressure is applied to one side of the diaphragm
(b) Vacuum is applied to both sides of diaphragm
(c) Atmospheric pressure is applied to both sides of the diaphragm
Answer: a

31. In the atmospheric suspended system the brakes are applied when
(a) Vacuum is applied to both sides of the diaphragm
(b) Atmospheric pressure is applied to both sides of the diaphragm
(c) Atmospheric pressure is applied to one side of the diaphragm
Answer: a

32. In a vacuum suspended unit, when the brakes are on, the piston or diaphragm has on both sides of it
(a) Atmospheric pressure
(b) Vacuum
(c) Hydraulic pressure
Answer: a

33. The function of the relay valve in a compressed air brake system is to
(a) Limit the maximum pressure reached in brake chambers
(b) Relieve air pressure in brake chambers when it reaches a maximum value
(c) Reduce the effort required at the brake pedal
(d) Speed up the supply of air to brake chambers located at a distance from brake valve
Answer: a

34. In the hydraulic braking system, the piston in the master cylinder is connected by mechanical linkage to the
(a) Wheel cylinders
(b) Brake shoes
(c) Brake pedal
(d) Wheel pedal
Answer: c

35. In the hydraulic braking system, the movement of the pistons in the wheel cylinder is transmitted to the
brake shoes by
(a) Actuating pins
(b) Springs
(c) Cables
(d) Trunnion
(e) Joints
Answer: a

36. Two general types of vacuum assisted power brakes are (a) Vacuum suspended and power suspended
(b) Integral and pressure suspended
(c) Atmospheric suspended and vacuum suspended
Ans: c

37. In the integral type of power brake, the diaphragm acts directly on the hydraulic piston in the
(a) Master cylinder
(b) Wheel cylinder
(c) Multiplier unit
Answer: a

38. In the multiplier type of brake, the diaphragm acts directly on the hydraulic piston in the
(a) Master cylinder
(b) Wheel cylinder
(c) Multiplier unit
Answer: c

39. In the power assisted type of brake the bellows applies force to the master cylinder piston
(a) Through diaphragm linkage
(b) Directly
(c) Through mechanical linkage
Answer: c

40. In the air brake, air pressure is supplied by
(a) Engine manifold
(b) A compressor
(c) The diaphragm valve
Answer: b

41. Power brakes in general operate making use of the pressure differential between the vacuum from the
intake manifold and
(a) Compressed air
(b) Atmospheric pressure
(c) Venturi vacuum
Answer: b

42. In the multiplier power brake system, movement of the brake pedal
(a) Increases the hydraulic pressure which actuates the control valve
(b) Actuates the valve in the bellows through linkage
(c) Actuates the valve to admit atmospheric pressure to one side of the diaphragm
Answer: c

43. In the power assisted brake system, movement of the brake pedal
(a) Increases the hydraulic pressure which actuates the control valve
(b) Actuates the valve in the bellows through linkage
(c) Actuates the valve to admit atmospheric pressure to one side of the diaphragm
Answer: c

44. The metal used for the brake drum is
(a) Aluminium alloy
(b) Cast steel
(c) Pressed steel
(d) Cast iron
Answer: d

45. Bleeding of brakes means
(a) Filling the master cylinder with brake oil
(b) Adjusting the brake shoe
(c) Removing air between master cylinder and each wheel unit
Answer: c
Automobile Engineering Interview Questions and Answers Preparation for GATE Exams

46. In trucks the system of wheel braking employed is
(a) Mechanical
(b) Hydraulic
(c) Pneumatic
Answer: c

47. In jeeps we use
(a) Mechanical brakes
(b) Hydraulic brakes
(c) Air brakes
Answer: b

48. In a vacuum type servo-assisted brake system, vacuum is available in …….. is made use of
(a) Exhaust manifold
(b) Combustion chamber
(c) Water jackets
(d) Inlet manifold
Answer: d

49. The approximate ratio of effort applied : effort available from servo system is (a) 1:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 10:1
Answer: b

50. Due to continuous running on a hot day the temperature of the braking fluid will increase, hence some
braking torque is applied on brake shoes, to avoid this a small quantity of fluid will be allowed to escape
into the master cylinder through
(a) Intake port
(b) Exhaust port
(c) Secondary port
Answer: c

1-Leaf springs absorb shocks by
(a) bending
(n) twisting
(c) compression
(d) tension
Answer: a

2-Coil springs absorb shocks by
(a) bending
(b) twisting
(c) compression
(d) tension
Answer: c

3-The following is a type of leaf springs
(a) three Quarter elliptic
(b) semi elliptic
(c) quarter elliptic
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

4-The material used for making torsion bar is
(a) Steel
(b) Cast iron
(c) High carbon steel
(d) All of the above
Answer: a

5-Shackles are sort of
(a) coupling
(b) link
(c) spring
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

6-Spring shackles are used to join
(a) chassis frame and spring
(b) Spring and Axle
(c) chassis frame and axle
(d) all of the above
Answer: a

7-Drive (live) axles
(a) are simply beams which supports the vehicle weight
(b) are usually the front axles
(c) contain differential
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

8-Dead axles
(a) are simply beams which supports the vehicle weight
(b) are usually the rear axles
(c) contain differential
(d) all of the above
Answer: a

9-The following represents the correct specification of a tyre
(a) 155-80-R-13
(b) R-155-80-13
(c) 155-80-13-R
(d) 155-R-80-13
Answer: a

10-Telescopic shock observer consists of
(a) One chamber
(b) two chambers
(c) three chamber
(d) four chambers
Answer: b

11-Cam actuated double acting hydraulic shock absorber contains
(a) no piston
(b) single piston
(c) double pistons
(d) three pistons
Answer: c

12-The stabilizers (sway bars) are
(a) alloy steel bars
(b) used to connect shock absorber operating arms
(c) placed parallel to cross members
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

13-The following is (are) the independent suspension system(s)
(a) Wishbone Arm system
(b) Trailing Link system
(c) Sliding Pillar system
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

14-The coil spring in used in
(a) Wishbone Arm system
(b) Trailing Link system
(c) Sliding Pillar system
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

15-Un-sprung weight is
(a) Weigh of vehicle
(b) Weigh of chassis frame
(c) Weight of wheels
(d) Weight of wheels and axles
Answer: d

16-Sprung weight is
(a) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight
(b) Weigh of chassis frame
(c) Weight of wheels
(d) Weight of wheels and axles
Answer: a

17-While in motion, the vehicle suspension is subjected to
(a) bouncing
(b) pitching
(c) rolling
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

18-A combination of roll and pitch is called
(a) circular pitch
(b) lateral pitch
(c) transverse pitch
(d) diagonal pitch
Answer: d

19. Which types of wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tire?
a) Disc wheel
b) Light alloy wheel
c) Wire wheel
d) Composite wheel
Answer: c
Explanation: Wire wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tire. Wire wheels are expensive due to their construction. The rim of a wired wheel has holes, due to which it is not possible to fit tubeless tires on wire wheels.

20. Which type of wheels is preferred in sports cars?
a) Disc wheel
b) Wire wheel
c) Magnesium alloy wheel
d) Aluminum alloy wheel
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnesium alloy wheels are preferred in sports cars. Magnesium alloy wheels have high impact and fatigue strength so that they can stand vibration and shock loading better.

21. In case of a wire wheel, the vehicle weight is supported by the wire in _________
a) Tension
b) Bending
c) Shear
d) Compression
Answer: a
Explanation: The vehicle weight is supported by the wire in tension in case of a wire wheel. The side forces on cornering are taken up by the spoke forming triangular arrangement.

22. What does the ‘ply rating’ refer to?
a) Aspect ratio
b) Rated strength
c) Recommended inflation pressure
d) The actual number of plies
Answer: b
Explanation: The ‘ply rating’ refers to rated strength. It is referred to the number of layers of cotton from which the ply is made. The ply rating is high that means the size of the tire is tough.

23. Where will an underinflated tire wear the thread most?
a) Near center
b) Near the edge
c) In the cross direction
d) In the lateral direction
Answer: b
Explanation: An underinflated tire will wear the thread near the edge most. It is sometimes visible in the shape of sidewall cracking.

24. Where will an overinflated tire wear the thread most?
a) Near center
b) Near the edge
c) In the cross direction
d) In the lateral direction
Answer: a
Explanation: An overinflated tire will wear the thread near the center. This type of tire break is caused when an object is hit with a force.

25. What do the permissible of mixing cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tires allow?
a) Cross-ply tires on left wheels
b) Cross-ply tires on right wheels
c) Cross-ply tires on front wheels
d) Cross-ply tires on rear wheels
Answer: c
Explanation: The permissible of mixing cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tires allow cross-ply tires on front wheels. In cross-ply type tires, the ply cords are woven at an angle to the tire axis.

26. What is the purpose of tire rotation on automobiles?
a) Avoid ply separation
b) Equalize wear
c) Get better ride
d) Reduce bump
Answer: b
Explanation: Equalize wear is the purpose of tire rotation on automobiles. The advantage of tires wearing uniformly is wear reduces a tire’s tread depth equally if all the tires wear at the same rate.

27. A car is fitted with 6 * 14 wheels and 185/65 R 14 tires on them. What is the rolling radius of the original tire?
a) 398.05 mm
b) 298.05 mm
c) 288.05 mm
d) 278.05 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: Radius of the wheel = ½ * 14 = 7 in = 177.8 mm. Section height of tire = 0.65 * 185 = 120.25 mm. Rolling radius of the original tires = 177.8 + 120.25 = 298.05 mm.

28. What does the code 145 SR -13 tire designation represent?
a) 145” width, 13” diameter, cross-ply
b) 145 mm width, 13” diameter, radial-ply
c) 145” width, 13 cm diameter, radial-ply
d) 145 mm width, 13 cm diameter, cross-ply
Answer: b
Explanation: The tire designation is of the form width (mm), speed rating, type of ply, and diameter (in) in the same order. So 145 SR – 13 signifies that width = W = 145 mm, speed rating = S which is up to 170 Kmph, the ply is of radial type, and diameter = 13” or 13 in = 330 mm.

1. What is the colour of a positive plate of a lead-acid battery?
a) White
b) Grey
c) White
d) Brown
Answer: d
Explanation: A positive plate of a lead-acid battery is brown in colour. A negative plate of a lead-acid battery is grey in colour. For each plate, there is a supporting grid made of an alloy of lead and antimony.

2. What gets deposited on the plates of a discharged lead-acid battery?
a) PbO₂
b) Pb₂O₄
c) Pb
d) PbSO₄
Answer: d
Explanation: PbSO₄ gets deposited on the plates of a discharged lead-acid battery. During discharging the reaction happens in the right direction. PbSO₄ gets deposited on both negative and positive plates.

3. What is the twenty-minute rating of battery?
a) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V
b) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V
c) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2 V
d) Lasting power of a battery on a small load
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of current 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V is called a twenty-minute rating of the battery. The temperature of the battery at the start of the test is brought to 80℉. It represents the rate of current a battery can deliver continuously.

4. What is the reserve capacity of battery?
a) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V
b) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2 V
c) Lasting power of a battery on a small load
d) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V
Answer: a
Explanation: The reserve capacity is the time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V. It is the measurement for the total capacity of the battery.

5. What is the cold rate of a battery?
a) Lasting power of a battery on a small load
b) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V
c) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2 V
d) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a measure of the worst conditions under which a battery is expected to deliver current, e.g., during starting the engine and operating under extreme cold. The cold rate of a battery is the current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2 V.

6. What is a twenty-hour rate of a battery?
a) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2 V
b) Lasting power of a battery on a small load
c) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V
d) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V
Answer: b
Explanation: A twenty-hour rate of a battery is the lasting power of a battery on a small load. During this test, the temperature should be about 80oF. This rating is important for powering accessories when the engine is not running.

7. What should a fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery indicate?
a) 12 V
b) 12.6 V
c) The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃
d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃
Answer: d
Explanation: A fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery indicates 12.6 V and a specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃. There should be no leak. The battery can be checked using a digital multimeter.

8. What is the number of positive plates in a battery cell?
a) One more than the negative plates
b) Two less than the negative plates
c) One less than the negative plates
d) Two more than the negative plates
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of positive plates in a battery cell is one less than the negative plates. One positive and one negative group of plates are sliding over each other, with separators sandwiched between them.

9. What is a maintenance-free battery?
a) A battery having lead-antimony plate grid
b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid
c) A battery does not contain acid
d) A battery does not contain water
Answer: b
Explanation: A maintenance-free battery is a battery having a lead-calcium plate grid. The battery which uses this plate grid loses water very slowly.

10. Which of the following is the advantage of alkaline battery?
a) High energy density
b) Good discharge characteristics over a wide range of temperature
c) The specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same
d) Cheap raw materials are used
Answer: c
Explanation: The advantage of the alkaline battery is that the specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same. The electrolyte does not take part in chemical reactions on charging or discharging.

11. Which component in the DC generator produces a magnetic field?
a) Stator
b) Commutator
c) Armature
d) Carbon brushes
Answer: d
Explanation: Carbon brushes produce the magnetic field in DC generator. The DC generator is a device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It works on the principle of induced EMF.

12. Which component in alternator produces a magnetic field?
a) Frame
b) Stator
c) Regulator
d) Rotor
Answer: d
Explanation: Rotor in an alternator produces a magnetic field. An alternator is a device that converts mechanical energy to electrical energy and produces the AC current. The rotor is the moving part of the alternator.

13. Why is a thermistor used in an alternator regulator?
a) To control maximum current
b) To control maximum voltage
c) To compensate for temperature change
d) To control minimum current
Answer: c
Explanation: A thermistor is used in an alternator regulator to compensate for temperature change. It is a temperature-sensing device. It alters its physical resistance to change temperature.

14. What is the frequency of a vibrating contact type regulator for DC generator?
a) 20 per second
b) 200 per second
c) 200 per minute
d) 20 per minute
Answer: b
Explanation: The frequency of a vibrating contact type regulator for DC generator is 200 per second. The main parts of the DC generator are frame, armature, and field coils. The parts of the armature are shaft, core, commutator and coil windings.

15. At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is _______
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) Zero
Answer: b
Explanation: The charging voltage is high at the start of the engine. The charging voltage should be less than the alternator voltage to charge the battery. The standard battery automotive battery should indicate 12.6 V at 35℃. When the engine is running, it should show 13.7 V to 14.7 V.

16. In an alternator, which component controls the output?
a) Voltage regulator
b) Cutout relay
c) Current regulator
d) Diode
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage regulator controls the output of the alternator. A voltage regulator is designed so that it keeps a constant voltage level. The voltage regulator is used when the steady and reliable voltage is needed.

17. What is the material of an alternator frame?
a) Cast iron
b) Brass
c) Copper
d) Aluminum
Answer: d
Explanation: An alternator frame is made of aluminum. Aluminum is lightweight. It is no-magnetic. It has a higher thermal conductivity so as to keep the alternator assembly cool by more efficient transfer of heat.

18. If the lead-acid cell has a total of 17 cells, then what is the number of positive plates?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of positive plates in the lead-acid cell is always one less than the number of negative plates. The number of negative plates = 9 and total plates are = 17, therefore, a number of positive plates = 8.

19. Which of the following is not an advantage of the alternator?
a) Higher output
b) Lower weight
c) Less maintenance
d) High efficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: With a lightweight of the alternator, the efficiency of alternator increases. As the output current does not flow through the commutator and brushes, thus surface contamination is eliminated.

20. Field coils in a generator produce permanent magnet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Field coils in a generator produce a temporary magnet. The field magnets are electromagnets. These magnets are energized by generator current. The fields magnets have a small residual magnetism this helps in providing the initial field to start the generator operation.

21. Which instrument is used for adjusting the ignition timing?
a) Accurate clock
b) Tachometer
c) Stopwatch
d) Stroboscopic light
Answer: d
Explanation: Stroboscope is used for adjusting the ignition timing. It is the light-emitting device which is connected to the spark plug of the cylinder for setting the ignition timing.

22. Which of the following firing order is commonly used for the four-cylinder vertical engine?
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 3-4-1-2
c) 4-3-2-1
d) 1-3-4-2
Answer: d
Explanation: 1-3-4-2 firing order is commonly used for a four-cylinder engine. For the four-cylinder engine, the firing order is decided such that a power stroke occurs every 180 degrees.

23. What is the dwell time?
a) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain closed
b) It is the time for which the contact breaker points remain open
c) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves open
d) The time during which inlet and exhaust valves close
Answer: a
Explanation: The dwell time is the time for which the contact breaker points remain closed. Dwell is the time for which the coil turned on.

24. Which of the following is not considered while deciding the optimum firing order of the engine?
a) Engine vibration
b) Engine cooling
c) Development of the backpressure
d) Engine configuration
Answer: d
Explanation: Engine vibration, engine cooling, and development of back pressure are considered while deciding the optimum firing order of the engine. The reduced vibration is required for optimum firing order of the engine.

25. Why is the Dwell meter used?
a) To set the spark plug gap
b) To set the ignition advance
c) To set the contact breaker gap
d) To set ignition timing
Answer: c
Explanation: The dwell meter used for setting the contact breaker gap. It uses the dwell angle as the parameter to set the contact breaker gap. To set the ignition timing stroboscope is used.

26. Which of the following is the disadvantage of the magneto ignition system?
a) Magneto ignition system has a poor quality of spark during starting
b) Magneto ignition system occupies more space
c) Magneto ignition system has more maintenance problems
d) Magneto ignition system is used largely in four wheels
Answer: a
Explanation: During starting, the quality of the spark is poor due to low speed. Magneto ignition system is mainly used in racing cars and two-wheelers. The main advantage is that it does not require a battery.

27. For how many times the contact breaker must make and break the circuit for a four-cylinder engine operating at N rpm?
a) N times
b) 1.5N times
c) N/2 times
d) 2N times
Answer: d
Explanation: The cam is having the same number of lobes as there are engine cylinders. They are used with two contact breakers in parallel.

28. Which of the following is the wrong statement?
a) In the exhaust, retarded timing causes burning of the hydrocarbons
b) The retarded timing improves fuel economy
c) The retarded timing requires the small opening for correct burning of the fuel
d) The exhaust gas temperature becomes higher due to retarded time
Answer: b
Explanation: The retarded timing reduces fuel economy. Due to spark retardation, the fuel burns slowly and after some time than it should be burned.

29. On which condition does the vacuum advance mechanism shift the ignition point?
a) Under part-load operation
b) Under full load operation
c) Under no-load operation
d) Under sudden acceleration
Answer: a
Explanation: The vacuum advance mechanism shifts the ignition point under part-load operation. The adjustment system is designed so that its operation results in the part-load advance curve.

30. The optimum spark timing must be retarded for the engine operating with a rich mixture.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum spark timing must be advanced for the engine operating with a rich mixture. The larger throttle opening size means better mixing and combustion.

1.Two of the three connecting rod bearing loads that increase as engine speeds increase are
A. Centrifugal and inertia loads
B. Torsional and pressure loads
C. Pressure and inertia loads
D. Pressure and centrifugal loads
Answer: Centrifugal and inertia loads

2.The central part of the axle beam is offset downwards to
A. Give improved resistance to end thrusts during cornering
B. Give better bending strength
C. Give improved torsional strength during brake application
D. Clear the engine sump and lower vehicle centre of gravity
Answer: Clear the engine sump and lower vehicle centre of gravity

3.X – member of a car frame ensures improved
A. Resistance to side force due to transverse wind load
B. Resistance of weaving and torsional strength of front end of frame
C. Bending strength of side members
D. Resistance to vertical shock loads acting simultaneously on both front wheels
Answer: Resistance to side force due to transverse wind load

4.The engine is usually supported by the frame
A. Four or five
B. One or two
C. Three or four
D. One or two
Answer: Three or four

5.Parts of the shock absorber include
A. Valves
B. Pistons
C. Coupler
D. Valve springs
Answer: Valves

6.The unsprung mass in a vehicle system is mainly composed of
A. The frame assembly
B. Gear box and propeller shaft
C. Axle and the parts attached to it
D. Engine and associated parts
Answer: Axle and the parts attached to it

7.The crankshafts are usually forged to get
A. Minimum friction effects
B. A good mechanical design
C. Good grain structure
D. Improved corrosion structure
Answer: A good mechanical design

8.The substance added to the oil which helps to keep the engine clean is called
A.Detergent
B. Soap
C. Thickening agent
D. Grease
Answer: Detergent

9.The pipes used in diesel engines from pump to nozzle is made up of
A. PVC
B. Rubber
C. Steel
D. Copper
Answer: Steel

10.As the battery is discharged, the active materials in both negative and positive plates are changed to

A. Lead sulphate
B. Lead oxide
C. Sulphuric acid
D .Spongy lead
Answer: Lead sulphate

11.The automobile chassis consists of the engine, frame, power train, wheels, steering and …………..
A. Braking system
B. Wind shield
C. The doors
D. Luggage boot
Answer: Braking system

12.The rear end suspension arrangement in which rear end torque is absorbed by the spring is called the
A. Torque tube drive
B. Hotchkiss drive
C. Hooks drive
D. Differential drive
Answer: Hotchkiss drive

13.On rebound, in the direct acting shock absorber, fluid flows out of the upper part of the cylinder and also ………..
A. Out of the reservoir
B. Into the dust shield
C. Out of the dust shield
D. Into the reservoir
Answer: Out of the reservoir

14.The weight or pressure required to deflect a spring in mm is called the spring
A. Rate
B. Rebound
C. Weight
D. Deflection
Answer: Rate

15.Leaf spring for vehicles are nipped to
A. Ensure that all leaves are uniformly stressed during loading
B. Improve the load carrying capacity of spring
C. To increase the interleaf friction
D. To vary the effective length of the spring
Answer: Ensure that all leaves are uniformly stressed during loading

16.The device that permits variation in the distance between the spring eyes of a leaf spring as the spring flexes is called
A. Spring shackle
B. Spring leaf
C. Spring U – bolt
D. Spring hanger
Answer: Spring shackle

17.When the direct acting shock absorber is compressed or telescoped fluid passes through the piston orifices into the upper part of the cylinder and also
A. Into the reservoir
B. Out of the reservoir
C. Out of the dust shield
D. Into the dust shield
Answer: Into the reservoir

18.The clips placed at intervals along some leaf spring to prevent spring leaf separation on rebound, are called
A. Rebound clips
B. Relief clips
C. Separation clips
D. Interval clips
Answer: Rebound clips

19.In a vehicle with torque tube drive, the rear suspension spring
A. Takes up driving thrust and torque reaction
B. Takes up braking thrust and torque reaction
D. Takes up end thrust and torque reaction
Answer: Supports load and takes up end thrust

20.With a leaf spring type of suspension, interference between steering and suspension system can be reduced to minimum when
A. Front end of the spring is pin joined and the rear end is shackled
B. Front end of the spring is shackled and rear end is pin jointed
C. Both end of the spring are shackled
D. Both ends of the springs are pin jointed
Answer: Front end of the spring is shackled and rear end is pin jointed